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• Wondering where to begin

  - by Cat

  Hello all. After being interested for years and years (and years), I have finally decided to start learning how to create software and web applications. Base on recommendations, I have started with learning the basics of web design first (which I am almost done with) and then will move on to the meat of my process: learning the languages. Problem is, I don't know where to start :/ PHP, Ruby, Perl...and where would SQL, JavaScript and .NET fit into the mix? I am assuming they build on each other/play off of each other somewhat so following some sort of 'order' will make the process more logical and digestible. You're probably thinking, "Just go to school for computer engineering, duh!" But I already have a degree and don't plan on going back to school. I believe I have an adequate aptitude for this sort of thing, and although it will be challenging, with the support of the community I know I can do it on my own. Thank in advance everyone and I am very sorry for the length. I look forward to hearing what all you have to say. Warm Regards, Cat

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• firefox lead dot in cookie issue

  - by Jon

  Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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• Why does this JavaScript not correctly update input values?

  - by dmanexe

  I have two input fields, and without changing their names (i.e., I have to use the name with the brackets), how do I make this javascript code work? <script> function calc_concreteprice(mainform) { var oprice; var ototal; oprice = (eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][sqft]'.value) * eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][price]'.value)); ototal = (oprice); mainform.'estimate[concrete][quick_total]'.value = ototal; } </script> Here's the HTML of the input area. <tr> <td>Concrete Base Price</td> <td><input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][price]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> per SF <strong>times</strong> <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][sqft]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> SF</td> <td> = <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][quick_total]" value="" /></td> </tr> I know I can get it working by changing_the_input_name_with_underscores but I need to have the names with the brackets (storing the form contents in an array).

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• Getting elements children with certain tag jQuery

  - by johnnyArt

  I'm trying to get all the input elements from a certain form from jQuery by providing only the name of the form and only knowing that those wanted fields are input elements. Let's say: <form action='#' id='formId'> <input id='name' /> <input id='surname'/> </form> How do I access them individually with jQuery? I tried something like $('#formId > input') with no success, in fact an error came back on the console "XML filter is applied to non-XML value (function (a, b) {return new (c.fn.init)(a, b);})" Maybe I have to do it with .children or something like that? I'm pretty new at jQuery and I'm not really liking the Docs. It was much friendlier in Mootools, or maybe I just need to get used to it. Oh and last but not least, I've seen it asked before but no final answer, can I create a new dom element with jQuery and work with it before inserting it (if I ever do) into de code? In mootools, we had something like var myEl = new Element(element[, properties]); and you could then refer to it in further expressions, but I fail to understand how to do that on jQuery Thanks in advance.

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• How to use IsKeyboardFocusWithin and IsSelected together?

  - by jpsstavares

  I have a style defined for my ListBoxItems with a trigger to set a background color when IsSelected is True: <Style x:Key="StepItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Border Name="Border" Padding="0" SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <ContentPresenter /> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="#40a0f5ff"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> This style maintains the selected item even when the ListBox and ListBoxItem loses focus, which in my case is an absolute must. The problem is that I also want the ListBoxItem to be selected when one of its TextBox's child gets focused. To achieve this I add a trigger that sets IsSelected to true when IsKeyboardFocusWithin is true: <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="True" /> </Trigger> When I add this trigger the Item is selected when the focus is on a child TextBox, but the first behaviour disappears. Now when I click outside the ListBox, the item is de-selected. How can I keep both behaviours?

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• equality on the sender of an event

  - by Berryl

  I have an interface for a UI widget, two of which are attributes of a presenter. public IMatrixWidget NonProjectActivityMatrix { set { // validate the incoming value and set the field _nonProjectActivityMatrix = value; .... // configure & load non-project activities } public IMatrixWidget ProjectActivityMatrix { set { // validate the incoming value and set the field _projectActivityMatrix = value; .... // configure & load project activities } The widget has an event that both presenter objects subscribe to, and so there is an event handler in the presenter like so: public void OnActivityEntry(object sender, EntryChangedEventArgs e) { // calculate newTotal here .... if (ReferenceEquals(sender, _nonProjectActivityMatrix)) { _nonProjectActivityMatrix.UpdateTotalHours(feedback.ActivityTotal); } else if (ReferenceEquals(sender, _projectActivityMatrix)) { _projectActivityMatrix.UpdateTotalHours(feedback.ActivityTotal); } else { // ERROR - we should never be here } } The problem is that the ReferenceEquals on the sender fails, even though it is the implemented widget that is the sender - the same implemented widget that was set to the presenter attribute! Can anyone spot what the problem / fix is? Cheers, Berryl I didn't know you could edit nicely. Cool. Here is the event raising code: void OnGridViewNumericUpDownEditingControl_ValueChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // omitted to save sapce if (EntryChanged == null) return; var args = new EntryChangedEventArgs(activityID, dayID, Convert.ToDouble(amount)); EntryChanged(this, args); } Here is the debugger dump of the presenter attribute, sans namespace info: ?_nonProjectActivityMatrix {WinPresentation.Widgets.MatrixWidgetDgv} [WinPresentation.Widgets.MatrixWidgetDgv]: {WinPresentation.Widgets.MatrixWidgetDgv} Here is the debugger dump of the sender: ?sender {WinPresentation.Widgets.MatrixWidgetDgv} base {Core.GUI.Widgets.Lookup.MatrixWidgetBase<Core.GUI.Widgets.Lookup.DynamicDisplayDto>}: {WinPresentation.Widgets.MatrixWidgetDgv} _configuration: {Domain.Presentation.Timesheet.Matrix.WeeklyMatrixConfiguration} _wrappedWidget: {Win.Widgets.DataGridViewDynamicLookupWidget} AllowUserToAddRows: true ColumnCount: 11 Count: 4 EntryChanged: {Method = {Void OnActivityEntry(System.Object, Smack.ConstructionAdmin.Domain.Presentation.Timesheet.Matrix.EntryChangedEventArgs)}} SelectedCell: {DataGridViewNumericUpDownCell { ColumnIndex=3, RowIndex=3 }} SelectedCellValue: "0.00" SelectedColumn: {DataGridViewNumericUpDownColumn { Name=MONDAY, Index=3 }} SelectedItem: {'AdministrativeActivity: 130-04', , AdministrativeTime, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00, 0.00} Berryl

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• Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

  - by SonOfNun

  I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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• Nhibernate fires SQL commands

  - by Chris

  Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

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• does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

  - by han

  Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

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• Java OO design confusion: how to handle actions modified by states modified by actions...

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, Given an entity, whose action is potentially modified by states (of the entity and other entities) in turn potentially modified by other actions (of the entity and other entities) , what is the best way to code or design to handle the potential existence of the modifiers? Speaking metaphorically, I am coding a Java application representing a piano. As you know a piano has keys (which, when pressed, emit sound) and pedals (which, when pressed, modify the keys' sounds). My base class structure is as follows: Entity (for keys and pedals) State (this holds each entity's states, e.g. name such as "soft pedal", and boolean "Pressed"), Action (this holds each entity's actions, e.g. play sound when pressed, or modify others sounds). By composition, the Entity class has a copy of each of State and Action inside it. e.g.: public class Entity { State entityState = new State(); Action entityAction = new Action(); Thus I have coded a "C-Sharp" key Entity. When I "press" that entity (set its "Pressed" state to true), its action plays a "C-Sharp" sound and then sets its "Pressed" state to false. At the same time, if the "C-Sharp" key entity is not "tuned", its sound deviates from "C-Sharp". Meanwhile I have coded a "soft pedal" Entity. When that entity is "pressed", no sound plays but its action is to make softer the sound of the "C-Sharp" and other key entities. I have also coded a "sustain pedal" Entity. When that entity is "pressed", no sound plays but its action is to enable reverberation of the sound of the "C-Sharp" and other key entities. Both the "soft" and "sustain pedals" can be pressed at the same time with the result that keys entities become both softened and reverberating. In short, I do not understand how to make this simultaneous series of states and actions modify each other in a sensible OO way. I am wary of coding a massive series of "if" statements or "switches". Thanks in advance for any help or links you can offer.

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• How to pass a function in a function?

  - by SoulBeaver

  That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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• Importing from referenced assembly - MEF

  - by cmaduro

  I have the following simplified code: namespace Silverbits.Applications { public partial class SilverbitsApplication : Application { [Import("MainPage")] public UserControl MainPage { get { return RootVisual as UserControl; } set { RootVisual = value; } } public SilverbitsApplication() { this.Startup += this.SilverbitsApplication_StartUp; this.Exit += new EventHandler(SilverbitsApplication_Exit); this.UnhandledException += this.SilverbitsApplication_UnhandledException; InitializeComponent(); } private void SilverbitsApplication_StartUp(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } } namespace Manpower4U { public class App : SilverbitsApplication { public App() : base() { } } } namespace Manpower4U { [Export("MainPage")] public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } } } The idea is that I have a Silverbits Library which is a completely different solution. And I have Manpower4U silverlight application that references my Silverbits library. I want to export MainPage from Manpower4U and set it to the RootVisual in my SilverbitsApplication class. SilverbitsApplication class is basically App.xaml/App.cs from the silverlight application, only I put it in a class library and subclassed App.cs file in Manpower4U, which is now the entry point of Manpower4U. MEF cannot resolve the import. How do I get this to work?

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• What is the the relation between programming and mathematics?

  - by Math Grad

  Programmers seem to think that their work is quite mathematical. I understand this when you try to optimize something in performance, find the most efficient alogithm, etc.. But it patently seems false when you look at a billing application for a shop, or a systems software riddled with I/O calls. So what is it exactly? Is computation and associated programming really mathematical? Here I have in mind particularly the words of the philosopher Schopenhauer in mind: That arithmetic is the basest of all mental activities is proved by the fact that it is the only one that can be accomplished by means of a machine. Take, for instance, the reckoning machines that are so commonly used in England at the present time, and solely for the sake of convenience. But all analysis finitorum et infinitorum is fundamentally based on calculation. Therefore we may gauge the “profound sense of the mathematician,” of whom Lichtenberg has made fun, in that he says: “These so-called professors of mathematics have taken advantage of the ingenuousness of other people, have attained the credit of possessing profound sense, which strongly resembles the theologians’ profound sense of their own holiness.” I lifted the above quote from here. It seems that programmers are doing precisely the sort of mechanized base mental activity the grand old man is contemptuous about. So what exactly is the deal? Is programming really the "good" kind of mathematics, or just the baser type, or altogether something else just meant for business not to be confused with a pure discipline?

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• TFS How does merging work?

  - by Johannes Rudolph

  I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

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• Associating Models with Polymorphic

  - by Josh Crowder

  I am trying to associate Contacts with Classes but as two different types. Current_classes and Interested_classes. I know I need to enable polymorphic but I am not sure as to where it needs to be enabled. This is what I have at the moment class CreateClasses < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :classes do |t| t.string :class_type t.string :class_name t.string :date t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :classes end end class CreateContactsInterestedClassesJoin < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table 'contacts_interested_classes', :id => false do |t| t.column 'class_id', :integer t.column 'contact_id', :integer end end def self.down drop_table 'contacts_interested_classes' end end class CreateContactsCurrentClassesJoin < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table 'contacts_current_classes', :id => false do |t| t.column 'class_id', :integer t.column 'contact_id', :integer end end def self.down drop_table 'contacts_current_classes' end end And then inside of my Contacts Model I want to have something like this. class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :classes, :join_table => "contacts_interested_classes", :foreign_key => "class_id" :as => 'interested_classes' has_and_belongs_to_many :classes, :join_table => "contacts_current_classes", :foreign_key => "class_id" :as => 'current_classes' end What am I doing wrong?

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• TortoiseSVN lists files as modified, but they are identical

  - by BJ Safdie

  I am merging a hot fix from our QA branch back into our Dev branch. Five files have changed. I do a fresh checkout of the Dev branch. I then do a merge (range of revisions) from QA into the Dev working copy. It brings in five files and there is a conflict on an external and ignore property -- which I resolve by "using local" (dev). When I check modifications or commit, I expect to see the five files I merged as the only changes. However, I get close to 700 "modified" files showing up in the commit dialog. If I select one of these file and "Compare with base," WinMerge comes up and says the "files are identical." I have tried this with the file dates set to "last committed" and not. Why are all of these files showing up as modified, when they are identical? What in the merge is causing this? How do I prevent SVN/TortoiseSVN from getting confused this way in the future?

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• How can I work out what events are being waited for with WinDBG in a kernel debug session

  - by Benj

  I'm a complete WinDbg newbie and I've been trying to debug a WindowsXP problem that a customer has sent me where our software and some third party software prevent windows from logging off. I've reproduced the problem and have verified that only when our software and the customers software are both installed (although not necessarily running at logoff) does the log off problem occur. I've observed that WM_ENDSESSION messages are not reaching the running windows when the user tries to log off and I know that the third party software uses a kernel driver. I've been looking at the processes in WinDbg and I know that csrss.exe would normally send all the windows a WM_ENDSESSION message. When I ran: !process 82356020 6 To look at csrss.exe's stack I can see: WARNING: Frame IP not in any known module. Following frames may be wrong. 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 0x7c90e514 THREAD 8246d998 Cid 0248.02a0 Teb: 7ffd7000 Win32Thread: e1627008 WAIT: (WrUserRequest) UserMode Non-Alertable 8243d9f0 SynchronizationEvent 81fe0390 SynchronizationEvent Not impersonating DeviceMap e1004450 Owning Process 82356020 Image: csrss.exe Attached Process N/A Image: N/A Wait Start TickCount 1813 Ticks: 20748 (0:00:05:24.187) Context Switch Count 3 LargeStack UserTime 00:00:00.000 KernelTime 00:00:00.000 Start Address 0x75b67cdf Stack Init f80bd000 Current f80bc9c8 Base f80bd000 Limit f80ba000 Call 0 Priority 14 BasePriority 13 PriorityDecrement 0 DecrementCount 0 Kernel stack not resident. ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child f80bc9e0 80500ce6 00000000 8246d998 804f9af2 nt!KiSwapContext+0x2e (FPO: [Uses EBP] [0,0,4]) f80bc9ec 804f9af2 804f986e e1627008 00000000 nt!KiSwapThread+0x46 (FPO: [0,0,0]) f80bca24 bf80a4a3 00000002 82475218 00000001 nt!KeWaitForMultipleObjects+0x284 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bca5c bf88c0a6 00000001 82475218 00000000 win32k!xxxMsgWaitForMultipleObjects+0xb0 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd30 bf87507d bf9ac0a0 00000001 f80bcd54 win32k!xxxDesktopThread+0x339 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd40 bf8010fd bf9ac0a0 f80bcd64 00bcfff4 win32k!xxxCreateSystemThreads+0x6a (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 8053d648 00000000 00000022 00000000 win32k!NtUserCallOneParam+0x23 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 7c90e514 00000000 00000022 00000000 nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xf8 (FPO: [0,0] TrapFrame @ f80bcd64) This waitForMultipleObjects looks interesting because I'm wondering if csrss.exe is waiting on some event which isn't arriving to allow the logoff. Can anyone tell me how I might find out what event it's waiting for anything else I might do to further investigate the problem?

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• Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

  - by Scott Silvi

  Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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• Using CURL within a loop to download a file, 1st one works, 2nd one times out

  - by kitenski

  Morning all, I am using CURL to download an image file within a loop. The first time it runs fine and I see the image appear in the directory. The second time it fails with a timeout, despite it being a valid URL. Can anyone suggest why it always fails on the 2nd time and how to fix it? The snippet of code is: // download image $extension = "gif"; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 90); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $imgurl); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); echo $imgurl . " attempting to open URL "; $i = curl_exec($ch); if ( $i==false ) { echo curl_errno($ch).' '.curl_error($ch); } $image_name=time().'.'.$extension; $f = fopen('/fulldirectorypath/' . $image_name ,'w+'); fwrite($f,$i); fclose($f); I have put an echo in there to display the $IMGURL, to check it is valid, and upped the timeout to 90 secs, but it still fails. This is what I see on screen: http://images.eu-xmedia.de/thumbnails/34555861/5676051/pt=pic,lang=2,origfile=yes/image.gif attempting to open URL 28 Operation timed out after 90 seconds with 0 bytes received an empty file is created in my directory. thanks alot, Greg

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• WebService Stubs WSDL Axis2

  - by tt0686

  Good afternoon in my timezone. I have a wsdl file with the following snippet of code: <schema targetNamespace="http://util.cgd.pt" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <import namespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" /> <complexType name="Attribute"> <sequence> <element name="fieldType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="dataType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="name" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="value" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> </sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="ArrayOffAttribute"> <complexContent> <restriction base="soapenc:Array"> <attribute ref="soapenc:arrayType" wsdl:arrayType="tns3:Attribute[]" /> </restriction> </complexContent> </complexType> When i use jax-rpc or Axis1 to generate the stubs the type Attribute is generated, but when i use Axis2 the type Attribute is not generated and a new type is created ArrayOffAttribute, this new type extends the axis2.databinding.types.soapencoding.Array and permits to add elements through the array.addObject(object), my question is, i am migrating one Java EE application from webservices using jax-rpc to start using Axis2, and the methods are using the Attribute type to fullfill attributes fields, now in Axis2 and do not have attribute type , what should i use in the ArrayOffAttribute.addObject(?) ? Could be something wrong with Axis2 ? i am stop here :( Thanks in advance Best regards

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• Simplifying Testing through design considerations while utilizing dependency injection

  - by Adam Driscoll

  We are a few months into a green-field project to rework the Logic and Business layers of our product. By utilizing MEF (dependency injection) we have achieved high levels of code coverage and I believe that we have a pretty solid product. As we have been working through some of the more complex logic I have found it increasingly difficult to unit test. We are utilizing the CompositionContainer to query for types required by these complex algorithms. My unit tests are sometimes difficult to follow due to the lengthy mock object setup process that must take place, just right, to allow for certain circumstances to be verified. My unit tests often take me longer to write than the code that I'm trying to test. I realize this is not only an issue with dependency injection but with design as a whole. Is poor method design or lack of composition to blame for my overly complex tests? I've tried base classing tests, creating commonly used mock objects and ensuring that I utilize the container as much as possible to ease this issue but my tests always end up quite complex and hard to debug. What are some tips that you've seen to keep such tests concise, readable, and effective?

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• Manage multiple UDP calls

  - by rayman

  Hi all, I would like to have an advice for this issue: I am using Jbos 5.1.0, EJB3.0 I have system, which sending requests via UDP'S to remote modems, and suppose to wait for an answer from the target modem. the remote modems support only UDP calls, therefor I o design asynchronous mechanism. (also coz I want to request X modems parallel) this is what I try to do: all calls are retrieved from Data Base, then each call will be added as a message to JMS QUE. let's say i will set X MDB'S on that que, so I can work asynchronous. now each MDB will send UDP request to the IP-address(remote modem) which will be parsed from the que message. so basicly each MDB, which takes a message is sending a udp request to the remote modem and [b]waiting [/b]for an answer from that modem. [u]now here is the BUG:[/u] could happen a scenario where MDB will get an answer, but not from the right modem( which it requested in first place). that bad scenario cause two wrong things: a. the sender which sent the message will wait forever since the message never returned to him(it got accepted by another MDB). b. the MDB which received the message is not the right one, and probablly if it was on a "listener" mode, then it supposed to wait for an answer from diffrent sender.(else it wouldnt get any messages) so ofcourse I can handle everything with a RETRY mechanisem. so both mdb's(the one who got message from the wrong sender, and the one who never got the answer) will try again, to do thire operation with a hope that next time it will success. This is the mechanism, mybe you could tell me if there is any design pattren, or any other effective solution for this problem? Thanks, ray.

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• How to allow one thread to mutate an array property while another thread iterates on a copy of the a

  - by Steve918

  I would like to implement an observer pattern in Objective-C where the observer implements an interface similar to SKPaymentTransactionObserver and the observable class just extends my base observable. My observable class looks something like what is below. Notice I'm making copies of the observers before enumeration to avoid throwing an exception . I've tried adding an NSLock around add observers and notify observers, but I run into a deadlock. What would be the proper way to handle concurrency when observers are being added as notifications are being sent? @implementation Observable -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)notifyObservers:(SEL)selector withObject:(id)arg1 withObject:(id)arg2 { @synchronized(self) { NSSet* observer_copy = [observers copy]; for (id observer in observer_copy) { if([observer respondsToSelector: selector]) { [observer performSelector: selector withObject: arg1 withObject: arg2]; } } [observer_copy release]; } } -(void)addObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers addObject: observer]; } } -(void)removeObserver:(id)observer { @synchronized(self) { [observers removeObject: observer]; } }

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• Python/MySQL fails under Windows

  - by AP257

  I'm trying to get Python 2.6 to communicate with MySQL Server 5.1, under Windows XP, but I keep getting a strange error, "SystemError: NULL object passed to Py_BuildValue": >>> import MySQLdb as mysql >>> db = mysql.connect(user = "root", passwd="whatever", db="mysql", host="localh ost") >>> cu = db.cursor() >>> cu.execute("show tables") Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\dirr\lib\site-packages\MySQLdb\cursors.py", line 173, in execu te self.errorhandler(self, exc, value) File "C:\ dirr\lib\site-packages\MySQLdb\connections.py", line 36, in de faulterrorhandler raise errorclass, errorvalue SystemError: NULL object passed to Py_BuildValue I thought it might be a character set problem, but I've tried setting and setting MySQL as UTF-8, and it hasn't made a difference. I guess there must be a problem with python-mysql. Can anyone help? UPDATE OK, python-mysql under windows is a bit of a nightmare, particularly with Python 2.6 it seems. Rather than installing python-mysql with pip, use this installer instead. That fixed it.

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• steps to fix a project that won't compile

  - by eco_bach

  Hi Pulling my hair out in trying to get a simple window based project to compile. I am running both 3.2.2 and 3.2.3 versions of Xcode. The latter is set up in a separate folder. Originally I used the latter to create and compile my project against the new 4.0 sdk. It compiled fine. Then I made the mistake of deleting some sdks I thought I no longer needed. Ever since I can no longer compile. Right now I get a dozen or so errors similar to the following "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CATransition", referenced from: objc-class-ref-to-CATransition in ViewTransitionsAppDelegate.o My active executable is the iphone simulator 4 and Base SDK is iPhone device 3.0. I tried reinstalling the xcode3.2.3 installer, no difference. I'm totally stymied, as my project WAS working and compiling fine, both to the simulator and external device. Are there any best practices or recommended steps in fixing or rebuilding a project when it won't compile? Any help welcome!

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