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  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Strange behaviour on postback in ASP.NET

    - by C-King
    I'm working on a website with a login form. To log in, a postback is used to an OnClick handler in the codebehind. Somehow, the value returned from the Text-property of the username and password textboxes is ten times the value I entered, separated by commas. I checked my entire code for double ID's (which seems to be the most common problem causing this behaviour), but I found each ID defined only once. In the ASPX file I have this: <asp:Label ID="lblFeedback" ForeColor="Red" Font-Bold="true" runat="server" Visible="false" /><br /> <asp:Panel ID="pnlLogin" runat="server"> <table style="border-style: none;"> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="lblUsername" AssociatedControlID="txtUsername" runat="server" /> </td> <td> <asp:TextBox ID="txtUsername" runat="server" /><br /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="lblPassword" AssociatedControlID="txtPassword" runat="server" /> </td> <td> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPassword" runat="server" TextMode="password" /><br /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> </td> <td> <asp:Button ID="btnLogin" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> </table> </asp:Panel> The OnClick handler in the Codebehind: protected void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string username = Util.Escape(txtUsername.Text); string password = Util.Escape(txtPassword.Text); WebsiteUser user = WebsiteUser.Create(username, password); if (user != null) { //Set some session variables and redirect to user profile } else { lblFeedback.Text = Localizer.Translate("INVALID_LOGIN"); lblFeedback.ForeColor = Color.Red; lblFeedback.Visible = true; pnlLogin.Visible = true; } } The website is running on ASP.NET 2.0 on ISS 5.1 (Win XP Pro)

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • How to handle very frequent updates to a Lucene index

    - by fsm
    I am trying to prototype an indexing/search application which uses very volatile indexing data sources (forums, social networks etc), here are some of the performance requirements, Very fast turn-around time (by this I mean that any new data (such as a new message on a forum) should be available in the search results very soon (less than a minute)) I need to discard old documents on a fairly regular basis to ensure that the search results are not dated. Last but not least, the search application needs to be responsive. (latency on the order of 100 milliseconds, and should support at least 10 qps) All of the requirements I have currently can be met w/o using Lucene (and that would let me satisfy all 1,2 and 3), but I am anticipating other requirements in the future (like search relevance etc) which Lucene makes easier to implement. However, since Lucene is designed for use cases far more complex than the one I'm currently working on, I'm having a hard time satisfying my performance requirements. Here are some questions, a. I read that the optimize() method in the IndexWriter class is expensive, and should not be used by applications that do frequent updates, what are the alternatives? b. In order to do incremental updates, I need to keep committing new data, and also keep refreshing the index reader to make sure it has the new data available. These are going to affect 1 and 3 above. Should I try duplicate indices? What are some common approaches to solving this problem? c. I know that Lucene provides a delete method, which lets you delete all documents that match a certain query, in my case, I need to delete all documents which are older than a certain age, now one option is to add a date field to every document and use that to delete documents later. Is it possible to do range queries on document ids (I can create my own id field since I think that the one created by lucene keeps changing) to delete documents? Is it any faster than comparing dates represented as strings? I know these are very open questions, so I am not looking for a detailed answer, I will try to treat all of your answers as suggestions and use them to inform my design. Thanks! Please let me know if you need any other information.

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  • What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

    - by RubberDuck
    I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • Code Golf: Countdown Number Game

    - by Noldorin
    Challenge Here is the task, inspired by the well-known British TV game show Countdown. The challenge should be pretty clear even without any knowledge of the game, but feel free to ask for clarifications. And if you fancy seeing a clip of this game in action, check out this YouTube clip. It features the wonderful late Richard Whitely in 1997. You are given 6 numbers, chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100}, and a random target number between 100 and 999. The aim is to make use the six given numbers and the four common arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division; all over the rational numbers) to generate the target - or as close as possible either side. Each number may only be used once at most, while each arithmetic operator may be used any number of times (including zero.) Note that it does not matter how many numbers are used. Write a function that takes the target number and set of 6 numbers (can be represented as list/collection/array/sequence) and returns the solution in any standard numerical notation (e.g. infix, prefix, postfix). The function must always return the closest-possible result to the target, and must run in at most 1 minute on a standard PC. Note that in the case where more than one solution exists, any single solution is sufficient. Examples: {50, 100, 4, 2, 2, 4}, target 203 e.g. 100 * 2 + 2 + (4 / 4) e.g. (100 + 50) * 4 * 2 / (4 + 2) {25, 4, 9, 2, 3, 10}, target 465 e.g. (25 + 10 - 4) * (9 * 2 - 3) {9, 8, 10, 5, 9, 7), target 241 e.g. ((10 + 9) * 9 * 7) + 8) / 5 Rules Other than mentioned in the problem statement, there are no further restrictions. You may write the function in any standard language (standard I/O is not necessary). The aim as always is to solve the task with the smallest number of characters of code. Saying that, I may not simply accept the answer with the shortest code. I'll also be looking at elegance of the code and time complexity of the algorithm! My Solution I'm attempting an F# solution when I find the free time - will post it here when I have something! Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear (ideally commented) function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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  • hashing password giving different results

    - by geoff
    I am taking over a system that a previous developer wrote. The system has an administrator approve a user account and when they do that the system uses the following method to hash a password and save it to the database. It sends the unhashed password to the user. When the user logs in the system uses the exact same method to hash what the user enters and compares it to the database value. We've run into a couple of times when the database entry doesn't match the user's entry whey they should. So it appears that the method isn't always hashing the value the same. Does anyone know if this method of hashing isn't reliable and how to make it reliable? Thanks. private string HashPassword(string password) { string hashedPassword = string.Empty; // Convert plain text into a byte array. byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(password); // Allocate array, which will hold plain text and salt. byte[] plainTextWithSaltBytes = new byte[plainTextBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy plain text bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < plainTextBytes.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[i] = plainTextBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[plainTextBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Because we support multiple hashing algorithms, we must define // hash object as a common (abstract) base class. We will specify the // actual hashing algorithm class later during object creation. HashAlgorithm hash = new SHA256Managed(); // Compute hash value of our plain text with appended salt. byte[] hashBytes = hash.ComputeHash(plainTextWithSaltBytes); // Create array which will hold hash and original salt bytes. byte[] hashWithSaltBytes = new byte[hashBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy hash bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < hashBytes.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[i] = hashBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the result. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[hashBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Convert result into a base64-encoded string. hashedPassword = Convert.ToBase64String(hashWithSaltBytes); return hashedPassword; }

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  • NullReferenceException at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] R

    - by Eugene Larchick
    Hi, I updated my Visual Studio 2010 to the version 10.0.30319.1 RTM Rel and start getting the following exception during the build: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] ReferenceAssemblies) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.get_GetXamlSchemaContext() at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.GenerateCode(ITaskItem item, Boolean isApplication) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.Execute() at Bohr.Silverlight.BuildTasks.BohrCompileXaml.Execute() The code of BohrCompileXaml.Execute is the following: public override bool Execute() { List<TaskItem> pages = new List<TaskItem>(); foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightPages) { string newFileName = getGeneratedName(item.ItemSpec); String content = File.ReadAllText(item.ItemSpec); String parentClassName = getParentClassName(content); if (null != parentClassName) { content = content.Replace("<UserControl", "<" + parentClassName); content = content.Replace("</UserControl>", "</" + parentClassName + ">"); content = content.Replace("bohr:ParentClass=\"" + parentClassName + "\"", ""); } File.WriteAllText(newFileName, content); pages.Add(new TaskItem(newFileName)); } if (null != SilverlightApplications) { foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightApplications) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "Application: " + item.ToString()); } } foreach (ITaskItem item in pages) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "newPage: " + item.ToString()); } CompileXaml xamlCompiler = new CompileXaml(); xamlCompiler.AssemblyName = AssemblyName; xamlCompiler.Language = Language; xamlCompiler.LanguageSourceExtension = LanguageSourceExtension; xamlCompiler.OutputPath = OutputPath; xamlCompiler.ProjectPath = ProjectPath; xamlCompiler.RootNamespace = RootNamespace; xamlCompiler.SilverlightApplications = SilverlightApplications; xamlCompiler.SilverlightPages = pages.ToArray(); xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkDirectory = TargetFrameworkDirectory; xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory = TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory; xamlCompiler.BuildEngine = BuildEngine; bool result = xamlCompiler.Execute(); // HERE we got the error! And the definition of the task: <BohrCompileXaml LanguageSourceExtension="$(DefaultLanguageSourceExtension)" Language="$(Language)" SilverlightPages="@(Page)" SilverlightApplications="@(ApplicationDefinition)" ProjectPath="$(MSBuildProjectFullPath)" RootNamespace="$(RootNamespace)" AssemblyName="$(AssemblyName)" OutputPath="$(IntermediateOutputPath)" TargetFrameworkDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkDirectory)" TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory)" > <Output ItemName="Compile" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> <!-- Add to the list list of files written. It is used in Microsoft.Common.Targets to clean up for a next clean build --> <Output ItemName="FileWrites" TaskParameter="WrittenFiles" /> <Output ItemName="_GeneratedCodeFiles" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> </BohrCompileXaml> What can be the reason? And how can I get more info what's happening inside CompileXaml class?

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  • Redirecting users in JSP from within a includes - java syntax error

    - by Mark Hazlett
    Hey everyone, So my setup for my web application is that I have a general header and footer and then I just include them in all my other pages so that all the common elements for all the pages are in a single page. The only problem I'm running into is when I want to redirect the user back to a login page if the "username" session has not already been created. The problem that I"m running into is that I have an if statement at the top of my header.jsp and then I have the else in the footer.jsp and it is giving me a java syntax error. Any ideas? Here is the code I'm referring to... <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <% if(session.getAttribute("username") != null) { %> <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <!-- CSS files --> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <title>Insert title here</title> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <div id="header"> <div id="headerTitle">Title</div> </div> </div> <%} %> And then here is the footer <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../CSS/headerStyle.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </head> <body> <div id="footer"></div> </body> </html> <% else { response.sendRedirect("../wa_login/login.jsp"); } %> However it is giving me an error on the else statement because the else doesn't have an if statement because it's in the header file.

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  • Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

    - by whaka
    One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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  • Optimizing sparse dot-product in C#

    - by Haggai
    Hello. I'm trying to calculate the dot-product of two very sparse associative arrays. The arrays contain an ID and a value, so the calculation should be done only on those IDs that are common to both arrays, e.g. <(1, 0.5), (3, 0.7), (12, 1.3) * <(2, 0.4), (3, 2.3), (12, 4.7) = 0.7*2.3 + 1.3*4.7 . My implementation (call it dict) currently uses Dictionaries, but it is too slow to my taste. double dot_product(IDictionary<int, double> arr1, IDictionary<int, double> arr2) { double res = 0; double val2; foreach (KeyValuePair<int, double> p in arr1) if (arr2.TryGetValue(p.Key, out val2)) res += p.Value * val2; return res; } The full arrays have about 500,000 entries each, while the sparse ones are only tens to hundreds entries each. I did some experiments with toy versions of dot products. First I tried to multiply just two double arrays to see the ultimate speed I can get (let's call this "flat"). Then I tried to change the implementation of the associative array multiplication using an int[] ID array and a double[] values array, walking together on both ID arrays and multiplying when they are equal (let's call this "double"). I then tried to run all three versions with debug or release, with F5 or Ctrl-F5. The results are as follows: debug F5: dict: 5.29s double: 4.18s (79% of dict) flat: 0.99s (19% of dict, 24% of double) debug ^F5: dict: 5.23s double: 4.19s (80% of dict) flat: 0.98s (19% of dict, 23% of double) release F5: dict: 5.29s double: 3.08s (58% of dict) flat: 0.81s (15% of dict, 26% of double) release ^F5: dict: 4.62s double: 1.22s (26% of dict) flat: 0.29s ( 6% of dict, 24% of double) I don't understand these results. Why isn't the dictionary version optimized in release F5 as do the double and flat versions? Why is it only slightly optimized in the release ^F5 version while the other two are heavily optimized? Also, since converting my code into the "double" scheme would mean lots of work - do you have any suggestions how to optimize the dictionary one? Thanks! Haggai

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  • 'Timeout Expired' error against local SQL Express on only 2 LINQ Methods...

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am going to sum up my problem first and then offer massive details and what I have already tried. Summary: I have an internal winform app that uses Linq 2 Sql to connect to a local SQL Express database. Each user has there own DB and the DB stay in sync through Merge Replication with a Central DB. All DB's are SQL 2005(sp2or3). We have been using this app for over 5 months now but recently our users are getting a Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Detailed: The strange part is they get that in two differnt locations(2 differnt LINQ Methods) and only the first time they fire in a given time period(~5mins). One LINQ method is pulling all records that match a FK ID and then Manipulating them to form a Heirarchy View for a TreeView. The second is pulling all records that match a FK ID and dumping them into a DataGridView. The only things I can find in common with the 2 are that the first IS an IEnumerable and the second converts itself from IQueryable - IEnumerable - DataTable... I looked at the query's in Profiler and they 'seemed' normal. They are not very complicated querys. They are only pulling back 10 - 90 records, from one table. Any thoughts, suggestions, hints whatever would be greatly appreciated. I am at my wit's end on this.... public IList<CaseNoteTreeItem> GetTreeViewDataAsList(int personID) { var myContext = MatrixDataContext.Create(); var caseNotesTree = from cn in myContext.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate descending, cn.InsertDate descending select new CaseNoteTreeItem { CaseNoteID = cn.CaseNoteID, NoteContactDate = Convert.ToDateTime(cn.ContactDate). ToShortDateString(), ParentNoteID = cn.ParentNote, InsertUser = cn.InsertUser, ContactDetailsPreview = cn.ContactDetails.Substring(0, 75) }; return caseNotesTree.ToList<CaseNoteTreeItem>(); } AND THIS ONE public static DataTable GetAllCNotes(int personID) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var caseNotes = from cn in context.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate select new { cn.ContactDate, cn.ContactDetails, cn.TimeSpentUnits, cn.IsCaseLog, cn.IsPreEnrollment, cn.PresentAtContact, cn.InsertDate, cn.InsertUser, cn.CaseNoteID, cn.ParentNote }; return caseNotes.ToList().CopyLinqToDataTable(); } }

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  • How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

    - by Alex
    Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

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  • C++ Filling an 1D array to represent a n-dimensional object based on a straight line segment

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to find a good way to put this question but here goes. I'm making a system that uses a 1D array implemented as double * parts_ = new double[some_variable];. I want to use this to hold co-ordinates for a particle system that can run in various dimensions. What I want to be able to do is write a generic fill algorithm for filling this in n-dimensions with a common increment in all direction to a variable size. Examples will serve best I think. Consider the case where the number of particles stored by the array is 4 In 1D this produces 4 elements in the array because each particle only has one co-ordinate. 1D: {0, 25, 50, 75}; In 2D this produces 8 elements in the array because each particle has two co-ordinates.. 2D: {0, 0, 0, 25, 25, 0, 25, 25} In 3D this produces 12 elements in the array because each particle now has three co-ordinates {0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 25, 0, 0, 50, ... } These examples are still not quite accurate, but they hopefully will suffice. The way I would do this normally for two dimensions: int i = 0; for(int x = 0; x < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; x += 25) { for(int y = 0; y < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; y += 25) { parts_[i] = x; parts_[i+1] = y; i+=2; // Indentation hates me today .< How can I implement this for n-dimensions where 25 can be any number? The straight line part is because it seems to me logical that a line is a somewhat regular shape in 1D, as is a square in 2D, and a cube in 3D. It seems to me that it would follow that there would be similar shapes in this family that could be implemented for 4D and higher dimensions via a similar fill pattern. This is the shape I wish to set my array to represent.

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  • Refactor the following two C++ methods to move out duplicate code

    - by ossandcad
    I have the following two methods that (as you can see) are similar in most of its statements except for one (see below for details) unsigned int CSWX::getLineParameters(const SURFACE & surface, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; surface->getPlaneParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } unsigned int CSWX::getPlaneParameters(const CURVE & curve, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; curve->get_LineParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } Is there any technique that I can use to move the common lines of code of the two methods out to a separate method, that could be called from the two variations - OR - possibly combine the two methods to a single method? The following are the restrictions: The classes SURFACE and CURVE are from 3rd party libraries and hence unmodifiable. (If it helps they are both derived from IDispatch) There are even more similar classes (e.g. FACE) that could fit into this "template" (not C++ template, just the flow of lines of code) I know the following could (possibly?) be implemented as solutions but am really hoping there is a better solution: I could add a 3rd parameter to the 2 methods - e.g. an enum - that identifies the 1st parameter (e.g. enum::input_type_surface, enum::input_type_curve) I could pass in an IDispatch and try dynamic_cast< and test which cast is NON_NULL and do an if-else to call the right method (e.g. getPlaneParams() vs. get_LineParams()) The following is not a restriction but would be a requirement because of my teammates resistance: Not implement a new class that inherits from SURFACE/CURVE etc. (They would much prefer to solve it using the enum solution I stated above)

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  • Android Sqlite - obtaining the correct database row id

    - by Dan_Dan_Man
    I'm working on an app that allows the user to create notes while rehearsing a play. The user can view the notes they have created in a listview, and edit and delete them if they wish. Take for example the user creates 3 notes. In the database, the row_id's will be 1, 2 and 3. So when the user views the notes in the listview, they will also be in the order 1, 2, 3 (intially 0, 1, 2 before I increment the values). So the user can view and delete the correct row from the database. The problem arises when the user decides to delete a note. Say the user deletes the note in position 2. Thus our database will have row_id's 1 and 3. But in the listview, they will be in the position 1 and 2. So if the user clicks on the note in position 2 in the listview it should return the row in the database with row_id 3. However it tries to look for the row_id 2 which doesn't exist, and hence crashes. I need to know how to obtain the corresponding row_id, given the user's selection in the listview. Here is the code below that does this: // When the user selects "Delete" in context menu public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { AdapterContextMenuInfo info = (AdapterContextMenuInfo) item .getMenuInfo(); switch (item.getItemId()) { case DELETE_ID: deleteNote(info.id + 1); return true; } return super.onContextItemSelected(item); } // This method actually deletes the selected note private void deleteNote(long id) { Log.d(TAG, "Deleting row: " + id); mNDbAdapter.deleteNote(id); mCursor = mNDbAdapter.fetchAllNotes(); startManagingCursor(mCursor); fillData(); // TODO: Update play database if there are no notes left for a line. } // When the user clicks on an item, display the selected note protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); viewNote(id, "", "", true); } // This is where we display the note in a custom alert dialog. I've ommited // the rest of the code in this method because the problem lies in this line: // "mCursor = mNDbAdapter.fetchNote(newId);" // I need to replace "newId" with the row_id in the database. private void viewNote(long id, String defaultTitle, String defaultNote, boolean fresh) { final int lineNumber; String title; String note; id++; final long newId = id; Log.d(TAG, "Returning row: " + newId); mCursor = mNDbAdapter.fetchNote(newId); lineNumber = (mCursor.getInt(mCursor.getColumnIndex("number"))); title = (mCursor.getString(mCursor.getColumnIndex("title"))); note = (mCursor.getString(mCursor.getColumnIndex("note"))); . . . } Let me know if you would like me to show anymore code. It seems like something so simple but I just can't find a solution. Thanks!

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  • Is it possible to create a C++ factory system that can create an instance of any "registered" object

    - by chrensli
    Hello, I've spent my entire day researching this topic, so it is with some scattered knowledge on the topic that i come to you with this inquiry. Please allow me to describe what I am attempting to accomplish, and maybe you can either suggest a solution to the immediate question, or another way to tackle the problem entirely. I am trying to mimic something related to how XAML files work in WPF, where you are essentially instantiating an object tree from an XML definition. If this is incorrect, please inform. This issue is otherwise unrelated to WPF, C#, or anything managed - I solely mention it because it is a similar concept.. So, I've created an XML parser class already, and generated a node tree based on ObjectNode objects. ObjectNode objects hold a string value called type, and they have an std::vector of child ObjectNode objects. The next step is to instantiate a tree of objects based on the data in the ObjectNode tree. This intermediate ObjectNode tree is needed because the same ObjectNode tree might be instantiated multiple times or delayed as needed. The tree of objects that is being created is such that the nodes in the tree are descendants of a common base class, which for now we can refer to as MyBase. Leaf nodes can be of any type, not necessarily derived from MyBase. To make this more challenging, I will not know what types of MyBase derived objects might be involved, so I need to allow for new types to be registered with the factory. I am aware of boost's factory. Their docs have an interesting little design paragraph on this page: o We may want a factory that takes some arguments that are forwarded to the constructor, o we will probably want to use smart pointers, o we may want several member functions to create different kinds of objects, o we might not necessarily need a polymorphic base class for the objects, o as we will see, we do not need a factory base class at all, o we might want to just call the constructor - without #new# to create an object on the stack, and o finally we might want to use customized memory management. I might not be understanding this all correctly, but that seems to state that what I'm trying to do can be accomplished with boost's factory. But all the examples I've located, seem to describe factories where all objects are derived from a base type. Any guidance on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time!

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  • PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

    - by bigstylee
    Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

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  • Crossthread exception and invokerequired solution doesn't change my control value

    - by Pilouk
    EDIT Solution : Here i'm setting my byref value in each object then i'm running a backgroundworker Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next m_bgWorker = New BackgroundWorker m_bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = True AddHandler m_bgWorker.DoWork, AddressOf DownloadFiles m_bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync() ''Completed 'lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") 'Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here is my downloadFiles function : Note that each start will do the downloadMe function see below too Private Sub DownloadFiles(sender As Object, e As DoWorkEventArgs) For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next End Sub I have multiple thread that each will download a ftp file. I would like that each file that have been completed will set a value to a progress bar and a label from my UI thread. For some reason invokerequired never change to false. Here is my little function that start all the thread Private Sub TelechargeFichier() Dim DocManquant As Boolean = False Dim docName As String = "" Dim lg As String = "" Dim telechargementFini As Boolean = False lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1478") prgBar.Maximum = m_listeFichiers.Count For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeFichiers.Count - 1 m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefLabel(lblMessage) m_listeFichiers(i).Set_ByRefPrgbar(prgBar) m_listeThreads.Add(New Thread(AddressOf m_listeFichiers(i).DownloadMe)) Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Start() Next For i As Integer = 0 To m_listeThreads.Count - 1 m_listeThreads(i).Join() Next 'Completed lblMessage.Text = EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1383") Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK End Sub Here my property that hold the Byref control from the UI thread. This is in my object which content the addressof function that will download the file (DownloadMe) Public Sub Set_ByRefPrgbar(ByRef prgbar As ProgressBar) m_prgBar = prgbar End Sub Public Sub Set_ByRefLabel(ByRef lbl As EasyDeal.Controls.EasyDealLabel3D) m_lblMessage = lbl End Sub Here is the download function : Public Sub DownloadMe() Dim ftpReq As FtpWebRequest Dim ftpResp As FtpWebResponse = Nothing Dim streamInput As Stream Dim fileStreamOutput As FileStream Try ftpReq = CType(WebRequest.Create(EasyDeal.Controls.Common.FTP_CONNECTION & m_downloadFtpPath & m_filename), FtpWebRequest) ftpReq.Credentials = New NetworkCredential(FTP_USER, FTP_PASS) ftpReq.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile ftpResp = ftpReq.GetResponse streamInput = ftpResp.GetResponseStream() fileStreamOutput = New FileStream(m_outputPath, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.ReadWrite) ReadWriteStream(streamInput, fileStreamOutput) Catch ex As Exception 'Au pire la fichier sera pas downloader Finally If ftpResp IsNot Nothing Then ftpResp.Close() End If Dim nomFichier As String = m_displaynameEN If EasyDealChangeLanguage.GetCurrentLanguageTypes = EasyDealChangeLanguage.EnumLanguageType.Francais Then nomFichier = m_displaynameFR End If If m_lblMessage IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetControlText(m_lblMessage, String.Format(EasyDealChangeLanguage.Instance.GetStringFromResourceName("1479"), nomFichier)) End If If m_prgBar IsNot Nothing Then EasyDealCommon.TH_SetPrgValue(m_prgBar, 1) End If End Try End Sub Here is the crossthread invoke solution function : Public Sub TH_SetControlText(ByVal ctl As Control, ByVal text As String) If ctl.InvokeRequired Then ctl.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of Control, String)(AddressOf TH_SetControlText), ctl, text) Else ctl.Text = text End If End Sub Public Sub TH_SetPrgValue(ByVal prg As ProgressBar, ByVal value As Integer) If prg.InvokeRequired Then prg.BeginInvoke(New Action(Of ProgressBar, Integer)(AddressOf TH_SetPrgValue), prg, value) Else prg.Value += value End If End Sub The problem is the invokerequired never get to false it actually goes in to beginInvoke but never end in the Else section to set the value.

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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  • How to use jQuery to generate 2 new associated objects in a nested form?

    - by mind.blank
    I have a model called Pair, which has_many :questions, and each Question has_one :answer. I've been following this railscast on creating nested forms, however I want to generate both a Question field and it's Answer field when clicking on an "Add Question" link. After following the railscast this is what I have: ..javascripts/common.js.coffee: window.remove_fields = (link)-> $(link).closest(".question_remove").remove() window.add_fields = (link, association, content)-> new_id = new Date().getTime() regexp = new RegExp("new_" + association, "g") $(link).before(content.replace(regexp, new_id)) application_helper.rb: def link_to_add_fields(name, f, association) new_object = f.object.class.reflect_on_association(association).klass.new fields = f.simple_fields_for(association, new_object, :child_index => "new_#{association}") do |builder| render(association.to_s.singularize + "_fields", :f => builder) end link_to_function(name, "window.add_fields(this, \"#{association}\", \"#{escape_javascript(fields)}\")", class: "btn btn-inverse") end views/pairs/_form.html.erb: <%= simple_form_for(@pair) do |f| %> <div class="row"> <div class="well span4"> <%= f.input :sys_heading, label: "System Heading", placeholder: "required", input_html: { class: "span4" } %> <%= f.input :heading, label: "User Heading", input_html: { class: "span4" } %> <%= f.input :instructions, as: :text, input_html: { class: "span4 input_text" } %> </div> </div> <%= f.simple_fields_for :questions do |builder| %> <%= render 'question_fields', f: builder %> <% end %> <%= link_to_add_fields "<i class='icon-plus icon-white'></i> Add Another Question".html_safe, f, :questions %> <%= f.button :submit, "Save Pair", class: "btn btn-success" %> <% end %> _question_fields.html.erb partial: <div class="question_remove"> <div class="row"> <div class="well span4"> <%= f.input :text, label: "Question", input_html: { class: "span4" }, placeholder: "your question...?" %> <%= f.simple_fields_for :answer do |builder| %> <%= render 'answer_fields', f: builder %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> _answer_fields.html.erb partial: <%= f.input :text, label: "Answer", input_html: { class: "span4" }, placeholder: "your answer" %> <%= link_to_function "remove", "remove_fields(this)", class: "float-right" %> I'm especially confused by the reflect_on_association part, for example how does calling .new there create an association? I usually need to use .build Also for a has_one I use .build_answer rather than answers.build - so what does this mean for the jQuery part?

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