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• Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

  - by Jacob Kofoed

  Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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• Entity Framework POCO objects

  - by Dan

  I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

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• ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

  - by Tedd Hansen

  I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

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• Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

  - by Rising Star

  I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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• PHP Outputting File Attachments with Headers

  - by OneNerd

  After reading a few posts here I formulated this function which is sort of a mishmash of a bunch of others: function outputFile( $filePath, $fileName, $mimeType = '' ) { // Setup $mimeTypes = array( 'pdf' => 'application/pdf', 'txt' => 'text/plain', 'html' => 'text/html', 'exe' => 'application/octet-stream', 'zip' => 'application/zip', 'doc' => 'application/msword', 'xls' => 'application/vnd.ms-excel', 'ppt' => 'application/vnd.ms-powerpoint', 'gif' => 'image/gif', 'png' => 'image/png', 'jpeg' => 'image/jpg', 'jpg' => 'image/jpg', 'php' => 'text/plain' ); // Send Headers //-- next line fixed as per suggestion -- header('Content-Type: ' . $mimeTypes[$mimeType]); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="' . $fileName . '"'); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); header('Cache-Control: private'); header('Pragma: private'); header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); readfile($filePath); } I have a php page (file.php) which does something like this (lots of other code stripped out): // I run this thru a safe function not shown here $safe_filename = $_GET['filename']; outputFile ( "/the/file/path/{$safe_filename}", $safe_filename, substr($safe_filename, -3) ); Seems like it should work, and it almost does, but I am having the following issues: When its a text file, I am getting a strange symbol as the first letter in the text document When its a word doc, it is corrupt (presumably that same first bit or byte throwing things off). I presume all other file types will be corrupt - have not even tried them Any ideas on what I am doing wrong? Thanks - UPDATE: changed line of code as suggested - still same issue.

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• What happens when we say "listen to a port" ?

  - by smwikipedia

  Hi, When we start a server application, we always need to speicify the port number it listens to. But how is this "listening mechanism" implemented under the hood? My current imagination is like this: The operating system associate the port number with some buffer. The server application's responsibiligy is to monitor this buffer. If there's no data in this buffer, the server application's listen operation will just block the application. When some data arrives from the wire, the operating system will know that check the data and see if it is targed at this port number. And then it will fill the buffer. And then OS will notify the blocked server application and the server application will get the data and continue to run. Question is: If the above scenario is correct, how could the opearting system know there's data arriving from wire? It cannot be a busy pooling. Is it some kind of interrupt-based mechanism? If there's too much data arriving and the buffer is not big enough, will there be data loss? Is the "listen to a port" operation really a blocking operation? Many thanks.

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• Flex 3 - Remove image flickering

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I have an application with different components that are accessible through a viewstack in the main application. The main application looks like that: <Application> <Viewstack> <myComponent1/> <myComponent2/> <myComponent3/> . . . </Viewstack> </Application> In myComponent1, I have a horizontalList where the user can select a product. In myComponent2, I have 2 containers inside the component. A left container with a larger image of the product selected in myComponent1 and a right container with all characteristics of the product. Both containers have an embed background image. When I select a product in myComponent1, the application displays myComponent2. When the component is displayed, I first see the page without the large image of the product, then both containers flickers and the product image is displayed. How could I avoid this flickering? It's really annoying _< Thanks in advance for your help =) Regards. BS_C3

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• Creating Modules for VB Program (Similar to firefox add on)

  - by Assimilater

  Hi all. I have a contact manager program that I'd like to design for multiple network marketing companies. My desired structure would include a core program which covers basic contact management functions. After that one could purchase a module for their specific network marketing company. This module would contain a variety of controls that the original program would need to be able to manipulate. Here is an example of what it would have to have: A group box containing buttons that link to a genealogy view, and the option to import one's donwnline from the back office provided by a company. A panel which is displayed on the contact page allowing the user to input business information or which will be filled by importing a downline from the back office: ie business ID, qualification level, sponsor information etc. a panel displayed when one searches for contacts on the contact list page which allows the user to sort based on information such as when they joined, what their business id is and so forth. a panel which is displayed in a personal business overview page which presents to an individual how many people in their downline are at each qualification level and develop a mailing list for individuals of a certain qualification level. I have the code developed to perform all these functions, I just wanted to give you an example of what needed to be done. I'm thinking that what I'm trying to create is a library that one can download and the program will recognize, but I'm not really sure where to go. What I'm really trying to do is figure out what kind of file I can make that will contain all this code and the GUI information that the program will recognize. Any ideas? With thanks, John

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• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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• Ant: simplest way to copy over a relative list of files

  - by Derek Illchuk

  Using Ant, I want to copy a list of files from one project to another, where each project has the same directory structure. Is there a way to get the following to work? <project name="WordSlug" default="pull" basedir="."> <description> WordSlug: pull needed files </description> <property name="prontiso_home" location="../../prontiso/trunk"/> <!-- I know this doesn't work, what's the missing piece? --> <target name="pull" description="Pull needed files"> <copy todir="." overwrite="true"> <resources> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml"/> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php"/> <!-- etc. --> </resources> </copy> </target> </project> Success is deriving the paths automatically: ${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml copied to ./application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml ${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php copied to ./application/controllers/CacheController.php Thanks!

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• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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• Cannot perform an ORDERBY against my EF4 data

  - by Jaxidian

  I have a query hitting EF4 using STEs and I'm having an issue with user-defined sorting. In debugging this, I have removed the dynamic sorting and am hard-coding it and I still have the issue. If I swap/uncomment the var results = xxx lines in GetMyBusinesses(), my results are not sorted any differently - they are always sorting it ascendingly. FYI, Name is a varchar(200) field in SQL 2008 on my Business table. private IQueryable<Business> GetMyBusinesses(MyDBContext CurrentContext) { var myBusinesses = from a in CurrentContext.A join f in CurrentContext.F on a.FID equals f.id join b in CurrentContext.Businesses on f.BID equals b.id where a.PersonID == 52 select b; var results = from r in myBusinesses orderby "Name" ascending select r; //var results = from r in results // orderby "Name" descending // select r; return results; } private PartialEntitiesList<Business> DoStuff() { var myBusinesses = GetMyBusinesses(); var myBusinessesCount = GetMyBusinesses().Count(); Results = new PartialEntitiesList<Business>(myBusinesses.Skip((PageNumber - 1)*PageSize).Take(PageSize).ToList()) {UnpartialTotalCount = myBusinessesCount}; return Results; } public class PartialEntitiesList<T> : List<T> { public PartialEntitiesList() { } public PartialEntitiesList(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public PartialEntitiesList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } }

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• Serving .docx files through Php

  - by user275074

  Hi, I'm having issues when attempting to serve a .docx file using Php. When uploading the file I detect the file mime type and upload the file using the file with the correct extension based on the mime type; e.g. below: application/msword - doc application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document - docx When attempting to serve the files for download, I do the reverse in detecting the extension and serving based on the mime type e.g. public static function fileMimeType($extention) { if(!is_null($extention)) { switch($extention) { case 'txt': return 'text/plain'; break; case 'odt': return 'application/vnd.oasis.opendocument.text'; break; case 'doc': return 'application/msword'; break; case 'docx': return 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document'; break; case ('jpg' || 'jpeg'): return 'image/jpeg'; break; case 'png': return 'image/png'; break; case 'pdf': return 'application/pdf'; break; default: break; } } } All files appear to download correctly and open fine but when attempting to open a docx file, Word (on multiple files) throws a error stating the file is corrupt. Any ideas would be great, thanks.

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• How to use App.Xaml's ResourseDictionaries with own entry point

  - by Polaris

  Hello friends. I created some logic for singleInstance application and I must to use my own entry point (not App.xaml) for Application. I have some styles in App.xaml which now is not working. How can I use this ResourceDictionaries from my App.xaml for entire project in my situation? My class for manage Application Startup public class SingleInstanceManager : WindowsFormsApplicationBase { App app; public SingleInstanceManager() { this.IsSingleInstance = true; } protected override bool OnStartup(Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.StartupEventArgs e) { try { // First time app is launched app = new App(); App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = e.CommandLine; //IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Run(); return false; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); return false; } } protected override void OnStartupNextInstance(StartupNextInstanceEventArgs eventArgs) { // Subsequent launches base.OnStartupNextInstance(eventArgs); Intro win = (Intro)app.MainWindow; if (eventArgs != null) { App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = eventArgs.CommandLine[0]; } IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Activate(); } } and my own Entry Point: public class EntryPoint { [STAThread] public static void Main(string[] args) { SingleInstanceManager manager = new SingleInstanceManager(); manager.Run(args); } } And my App.Xaml code behind: public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(System.Windows.StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); // Create and show the application's main window Intro window = new Intro(); window.Show(); } public void Activate() { // Reactivate application's main window this.MainWindow.Activate(); } } And my App.xaml has some code which decribe ResourceDictionaries which doesnt work. Why?

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• VB6 ActiveX exe - what is the proper registration sequence?

  - by Timbuck

  I have recently updated a Visual Basic 6 application that is an ActiveX exe, running on Windows XP. I have a couple of testers for this application who have received a copy of the exe and are attempting to run it. However, they are getting an error message "Unexpected error;quitting" when trying to do so. A key difference between their testing and my testing is that on the machines I tested on, I have admin rights and was able to register the application using the appname.exe /regserver command line. Reading the details at MS Support about file registration appears unclear: Visual Basic ActiveX EXE files register themselves the first time you run the EXE. However, you cannot use the EXE as a COM server until it is registered. So does this mean that after the first time the users run the exe that the application should be correctly registered, and the error I am receiving is sign of something other than an incorrectly registered application? Or does this mean that the application will not work properly until such time as the file is explicitly registered using the appname.exe /regserver command line? nb - during a production distribution, the software would be sent out to client PCs using Systems Management Server, which isn't an option for this testing.

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• Asynchronous SQL Operations

  - by Paul Hatcherian

  I've got a problem I'm not sure how best to solve. I have an application which updates a database in response to ad hoc requests. One request in particular is quite common. The request is an update that by itself is quite simple, but has some complex preconditions. For this request the business layer first requests a set of data from the data layer. The business logic layer evaluated the data from the database and parameters from the request, from this the action to be performed is determined, and the request's response message(s) are created. The business layer now executes the actual update command that is the purpose of the request. This last step is the problem, this command is dependent on the state of the database, which might have changed since the business logic ran. Locking down the data read in this operation across several round-trips to the database doesn't seem like a good idea either. Is there a 'best-practice' way to accomplish something like this? Thanks!

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• Mercurial repository narrow clone?

  - by Berry Langerak

  Hi. I'm currently in the process of moving from Subversion to Mercurial, and I have to say I don't regret that decision. However, when trying to convert my project, I ran into a problem of Mercurial, which I can't seem to get fixed. I have two distinct projects: one is a framework, and the other is an application that relies on that framework. Here's what the repositories look like: The Framework repository: docs/ deploy/ lib/ tests/ The Application repository: application/ config/ lib/ tests/ www/ What I'd like is for the application's lib directory to contain a copy of the frameworks' lib/ directory. I used to do this using svn:externals. Now, I am aware that Mercurial supports the concept of subrepositories, but that doesn't seem like the "correct" solution, as it doesn't actually pull in the lib/ directory like I wanted, as you'll still have to pull and push changes manually. That, plus once you clone the framework repository, you'll get all of it, not just the lib/ directory. I only need the lib/ directory, not the tests, or the docs. Now, I thought up two different solutions to this problem, but I wonder which is the best. The first solution would be to clone the framework in a different directory altogether and create symlink in the application's lib/ directory which points to the framework's lib/ directory. Putting the symlink in .hgignore should make sure all is well, I think? That means that you could edit the frameworks code, and commit that, and you could edit the application's code and commit that, too. The other option is to have multiple repositories. The framework gets pulled as a whole, which means you'll get the docs/, deploy/, test/ etc. directories, which are not needed for usage of the framework. I thought maybe creating a repository purely for the library might be a solution, although I sincerely doubt it, as the Unit Tests are very dependant upon the library itself. Does anyone know a decent solution for this problem?

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• Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

  - by user193655

  I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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• Do I need a spatial index in my database?

  - by Sanoj

  I am designing an application that needs to save geometric shapes in a database. I haven't choosen the database management system yet. In my application, all database queries will have an bounding box as input, and as output I want all shapes within that database. I know that databases with a spatial index is used for this kind of application. But in my application there will not be any queries of type "give me objects nearby x/y" or other more complex queries that are useful in a GIS application. I am planning of having a database without a spatial index and have queries looking like: SELECT * FROM shapes WHERE x < max_x AND x > min_x AND y < max_y AND y > min_y And have an index on the columns x (double) and y (double). As long I can see, I don't really need a database with an spatial index, howsoever my application is close to that kind of applications. And even if I would like to have nearby queries, then I could create a big enough bounding box around that point. Or will this lead to poor performance? Do I really need a spatial database? And when is a spatial index needed?

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• Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

  - by misaxi

  Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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• Patterns and Libraries for working with raw UI values.

  - by ProfK

  By raw values, I mean the application level values provided by UI controls, such as the Text property on a TextBox. Too often I find myself writing code to check and parse such values before they get used as a business level value, e.g. PaymentTermsNumDays. I've mitigated a lot of the spade work with rough and ready extension methods like String.ToNullableInt, but we all know that just isn't right. We can't put the whole world on String's shoulders. Do I look at tasking my UI to provide business values, using a ruleset pushed out from the server app, or open my business objects up a bit to do the required sanitising etc. as they required? Neither of these approaches sits quite right with me; the first seems closer to ideal, but quite a bit of work, while the latter doesn't show much respect to the business objects' single responsibility. The responsibilities of the UI are a closer match. Between these extremes, I could also just implement another DTO layer, an IoC container with sanitising and parsing services, derive enhanced UI controls, or stick to copy and paste inline drudgery.

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• Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

  - by siemaa

  Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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• ASP.NET configuration inheritance

  - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems

  I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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• Rails from with better url

  - by Sam

  wow, switching to rest is a different paradigm for sure and is mainly a headache right now. view <% form_tag (businesses_path, :method => "get") do %> <%= select_tag :business_category_id, options_for_select(@business_categories.collect {|bc| [bc.name, bc.id ]}.insert(0, ["All Containers", 0]), which_business_category(@business_category) ), { :onchange => "this.form.submit();"} %> <% end %> controller def index @business_categories = BusinessCategory.find(:all) if params[:business_category_id].to_i != 0 @business_category = BusinessCategory.find(params[:business_category_id]) @businesses = @business_category.businesses else @businesses = Business.all end respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @businesses } end end routes map.resources What I want to to is get a better url than what this form is presenting which is the following: http://localhost:3000/businesses?business_category_id=1 Without rest I would have do something like http://localhost:3000/business/view/bbq bbq as permalink or I would have done http://localhost:300/business_categories/view/bbq and get the business that are associated with the category but I don't really know the best way of doing this. So the two questions are what is the best logic of finding a business by its categories using the latter form and number two how to get that in a pretty url all through restful routes in rails.

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