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• Cassandra random read speed

  - by Jody Powlette

  We're still evaluating Cassandra for our data store. As a very simple test, I inserted a value for 4 columns into the Keyspace1/Standard1 column family on my local machine amounting to about 100 bytes of data. Then I read it back as fast as I could by row key. I can read it back at 160,000/second. Great. Then I put in a million similar records all with keys in the form of X.Y where X in (1..10) and Y in (1..100,000) and I queried for a random record. Performance fell to 26,000 queries per second. This is still well above the number of queries we need to support (about 1,500/sec) Finally I put ten million records in from 1.1 up through 10.1000000 and randomly queried for one of the 10 million records. Performance is abysmal at 60 queries per second and my disk is thrashing around like crazy. I also verified that if I ask for a subset of the data, say the 1,000 records between 3,000,000 and 3,001,000, it returns slowly at first and then as they cache, it speeds right up to 20,000 queries per second and my disk stops going crazy. I've read all over that people are storing billions of records in Cassandra and fetching them at 5-6k per second, but I can't get anywhere near that with only 10mil records. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? Is there some setting I need to change from the defaults? I'm on an overclocked Core i7 box with 6gigs of ram so I don't think it's the machine. Here's my code to fetch records which I'm spawning into 8 threads to ask for one value from one column via row key: ColumnPath cp = new ColumnPath(); cp.Column_family = "Standard1"; cp.Column = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("site"); string key = (1+sRand.Next(9)) + "." + (1+sRand.Next(1000000)); ColumnOrSuperColumn logline = client.get("Keyspace1", key, cp, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); Thanks for any insights

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• Design pattern to use instead of multiple inheritance

  - by mizipzor

  Coming from a C++ background, Im used to multiple inheritance. I like the feeling of a shotgun squarely aimed at my foot. Nowadays, I work more in C# and Java, where you can only inherit one baseclass but implement any number of interfaces (did I get the terminology right?). For example, lets consider two classes that implement a common interface but different (yet required) baseclasses: public class TypeA : CustomButtonUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } public class TypeB : CustomTextUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } Both classes are UserControls so I cant substitute the base class. Both needs to implement the DoMagic function. My problem now is that both implementations of the function are identical. And I hate copy-and-paste code. The (possible) solutions: I naturally want TypeA and TypeB to share a common baseclass, where I can write that identical function definition just once. However, due to having the limit of just one baseclass, I cant find a place along the hierarchy where it fits. One could also try to implement a sort of composite pattern. Putting the DoMagic function in a separate helper class, but the function here needs (and modifies) quite a lot of internal variables/fields. Sending them all as (reference) parameters would just look bad. My gut tells me that the adapter pattern could have a place here, some class to convert between the two when necessery. But it also feels hacky. I tagged this with language-agnostic since it applies to all languages that use this one-baseclass-many-interfaces approach. Also, please point out if I seem to have misunderstood any of the patterns I named. In C++ I would just make a class with the private fields, that function implementation and put it in the inheritance list. Whats the proper approach in C#/Java and the like?

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• How will Arel affect rails' includes() 's capabilities.

  - by Tim Snowhite

  I've looked over the Arel sources, and some of the activerecord sources for Rails 3.0, but I can't seem to glean a good answer for myself as to whether Arel will be changing our ability to use includes(), when constructing queries, for the better. There are instances when one might want to modify the conditions on an activerecord :include query in 2.3.5 and before, for the association records which would be returned. But as far as I know, this is not programmatically tenable for all :include queries: (I know some AR-find-includes make t#{n}.c#{m} renames for all the attributes, and one could conceivably add conditions to these queries to limit the joined sets' results; but others do n_joins + 1 number of queries over the id sets iteratively, and I'm not sure how one might hack AR to edit these iterated queries.) Will Arel allow us to construct ActiveRecord queries which specify the resulting associated model objects when using includes()? Ex: User :has_many posts( has_many :comments) User.all(:include => :posts) #say I wanted the post objects to have their #comment counts loaded without adding a comment_count column to `posts`. #At the post level, one could do so by: posts_with_counts = Post.all(:select => 'posts.*, count(comments.id) as comment_count', :joins => 'left outer join comments on comments.post_id = posts.id', :group_by => 'posts.id') #i believe #But it seems impossible to do so while linking these post objects to each #user as well, without running User.all() and then zippering the objects into #some other collection (ugly) #OR running posts.group_by(&:user) (even uglier, with the n user queries)

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• Setting style on first and last visible TabItem of TabControl

  - by Donnelle

  I want to set a style on the first and last TabItems in a TabControl, and have them updated as the visibility of the TabItems is changed. I can't see a way to do so with triggers. What we're after looks like this: | | And the visibility of TabItems are determined by binding. I do have it working in code. On TabItem visibility changed, enumerate through TabItems until you find the first visible one. Set the style on that one. For all other visible TabItems, set them to the pointy style (so that the previously first visible one is now pointy). Then start from the end until you find a visible TabItem and set the last style on that one. (This also lets us address an issue with TabControl where it will display the content of a non-visible TabItem if none of the visible TabItems are selected.) There's undoubtably improvements I could make to my method, but I'm not convinced that it IS the right approach. How would you approach this?

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• how to keep a nativewindow on top

  - by Freddy Rios

  I need to keep a NativeWindow I am creating on top of the main window of the application. Currently I am using alwaysInFront = true, which is not limited to the windows in the application. I can successfully synchronize the minimize/restore/move/resize actions, so the top window behaves appropriately in those cases. Even though using this option has the drawback that if I alt-tab to other application the window goes on top of the other application. Because of the above I am trying to get it to work without using the alwaysInFront. I have tried using orderInFrontOf and orderToFront, which gets it in place but when I click an area in the main window the top one becomes hidden i.e. air makes it the top one. I have tried capturing activate/deactivate events but it only happens on the first click, so on the second click the top window becomes hidden again. I also tried making the top window active when the main one becomes active, but that causes the main one to loose focus and I can't click on anything. Ps. I am doing this to improve the behavior of a HTMLOverlay I am using - see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1044927/flex-air-htmlloader-blank-pop-up-window-when-flash-content-is-loaded/1077738#1077738

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• ETL , Esper or Drools?

  - by geoaxis

  Hello, The question environment relates to JavaEE, Spring I am developing a system which can start and stop arbitrary TCP (or other) listeners for incoming messages. There could be a need to authenticate these messages. These messages need to be parsed and stored in some other entities. These entities model which fields they store. So for example if I have property1 that can have two text fields FillLevel1 and FillLevel2, I could receive messages on TCP which have both fill levels specified in text as F1=100;F2=90 Later I could add another filed say FillLevel3 when I start receiving messages F1=xx;F2=xx;F3=xx. But this is a conscious decision on the part of system modeler. My question is what do you think is better to use for parsing and storing the message. ETL (using Pantaho, which is used in other system) where you store the raw message and use task executor to consume them one by one and store the transformed messages as per your rules. One could use Espr or Drools to do the same thing , storing rules and executing them with timer, but I am not sure how dynamic you could get with making rules (they have to be made by end user in a running system and preferably in most user friendly way, ie no scripts or code, only GUI) The end user should be capable of changing the parse rules. It is also possible that end user might want to change the archived data as well (for example in the above example if a new value of FillLevel is added, one would like to put a FillLevel=-99 in the previous values to make the data consistent). Please ask for explanations, I have the feeling that I need to revise this question a bit. Thanks

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• How to test an application for correct encoding (e.g. UTF-8)

  - by Olaf

  Encoding issues are among the one topic that have bitten me most often during development. Every platform insists on its own encoding, most likely some non-UTF-8 defaults are in the game. (I'm usually working on Linux, defaulting to UTF-8, my colleagues mostly work on german Windows, defaulting to ISO-8859-1 or some similar windows codepage) I believe, that UTF-8 is a suitable standard for developing an i18nable application. However, in my experience encoding bugs are usually discovered late (even though I'm located in Germany and we have some special characters that along with ISO-8859-1 provide some detectable differences). I believe that those developers with a completely non-ASCII character set (or those that know a language that uses such a character set) are getting a head start in providing test data. But there must be a way to ease this for the rest of us as well. What [technique|tool|incentive] are people here using? How do you get your co-developers to care for these issues? How do you test for compliance? Are those tests conducted manually or automatically? Adding one possible answer upfront: I've recently discovered fliptitle.com (they are providing an easy way to get weird characters written "u?op ?pisdn" *) and I'm planning on using them to provide easily verifiable UTF-8 character strings (as most of the characters used there are at some weird binary encoding position) but there surely must be more systematic tests, patterns or techniques for ensuring UTF-8 compatibility/usage. Note: Even though there's an accepted answer, I'd like to know of more techniques and patterns if there are some. Please add more answers if you have more ideas. And it has not been easy choosing only one answer for acceptance. I've chosen the regexp answer for the least expected angle to tackle the problem although there would be reasons to choose other answers as well. Too bad only one answer can be accepted. Thank you for your input. *) that's "upside down" written "upside down" for those that cannot see those characters due to font problems

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• Top 10 collection completion - a monster in-query formula in MySQL?

  - by Andrew Heath

  I've got the following tables: User Basic Data (unique) [userid] [name] [etc] User Collection (one to one) [userid] [game] User Recorded Plays (many to many) [userid] [game] [scenario] [etc] Game Basic Data (unique) [game] [total_scenarios] I would like to output a table that shows the collection play completion percentage for the Top 10 users in descending order of %: Output Table [userid] [collection_completion] 3 95% 1 81% 24 68% etc etc In my mind, the calculation sequence for ONE USER is: grab user's total owned scenarios from User Collection joined with Game Basic Data and COUNT(gbd.total_scenarios) grab all recorded plays by COUNT(DISTINCT scenario) for that user Divide all recorded plays by total owned scenarios So that's 2 queries and a little PHP massage at the end. For a list of users sorted by completion percentage things get a little more complicated. I figure I could grab all users' collection totals in one query, and all users recorded plays in another, and then do the calcs and sort the final array in PHP, but it seems like overkill to potentially be doing all that for 1000+ users when I only ever want the Top 10. Is there a wicked monster query in MySQL that could do all that and LIMIT 10? Or is sticking with PHP handling the bulk of the work the way to go in this case?

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• iphone mkmapview

  - by karthik

  Hi, This is karthik. I am developing an app using mapview in iphone. I have to use two different pins to show user locations. That two users are different type . One user is belong to some category and another one is some other category. I have to check that category and want to plot pin depend upon that category. When I try to do that, that pin is not showing properly. For a certain category it shows another pin, not what i set there. Can anyone help me? What i need is i want to load two different pins in map depend upon some category. For example , if that category is shopping mall then i have to show building image then if there is any garden i have to show some other image at a same time not one by one . I want to plot two pins with different category at the same time. For that,what could i do? I tried lot of solution , but its not showing properly. Help me?

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• using jquery to add tr

  - by user306472

  I added a jquery function to add a <tr> dynamically at the end of my table. It worked fine until I added table headers to my table. After I did this, the function started adding 2 trs at a time to the table. What happened? HTML: <table id="table" border="0"> <th>Col 1</th><th>Col2</th><th>col3</th> <tbody> <tr> <td> <select> <option value ="one">one</option> <option value="two">two</option> </select> </td> <td> <input type="text"></input> </td> <td> <input type="text"></input> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> JQuery code: $(function(){ $('a#add').click(function(){ $('#table > tbody').append('<tr><td><select><option value ="one">one</option><option value="two">two</option></select></td><td><input type="text"></input></td><td><input type="text"></input></td></tr>'); });

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• Can't bind string containing @ char with mysqli_stmt_bind_param

  - by Tirithen

  I have a problem with my database class. I have a method that takes one prepared statement and any number of parameters, binds them to the statement, executes the statement and formats the result into a multidimentional array. Everthing works fine until I try to include an email adress in one of the parameters. The email contains an @ character and that one seems to break everything. When I supply with parameters: $types = "ss" and $parameters = array("[email protected]", "testtest") I get the error: Warning: Parameter 3 to mysqli_stmt_bind_param() expected to be a reference, value given in ...db/Database.class.php on line 63 Here is the method: private function bindAndExecutePreparedStatement(&$statement, $parameters, $types) { if(!empty($parameters)) { call_user_func_array('mysqli_stmt_bind_param', array_merge(array($statement, $types), &$parameters)); /*foreach($parameters as $key => $value) { mysqli_stmt_bind_param($statement, 's', $value); }*/ } $result = array(); $statement->execute() or debugLog("Database error: ".$statement->error); $rows = array(); if($this->stmt_bind_assoc($statement, $row)) { while($statement->fetch()) { $copied_row = array(); foreach($row as $key => $value) { if($value !== null && mb_substr($value, 0, 1, "UTF-8") == NESTED) { // If value has a nested result inside $value = mb_substr($value, 1, mb_strlen($value, "UTF-8") - 1, "UTF-8"); $value = $this->parse_nested_result_value($value); } $copied_row[$ke<y] = $value; } $rows[] = $copied_row; } } // Generate result $result['rows'] = $rows; $result['insert_id'] = $statement->insert_id; $result['affected_rows'] = $statement->affected_rows; $result['error'] = $statement->error; return $result; } I have gotten one suggestion that: the array_merge is casting parameter to string in the merge change it to &$parameters so it remains a reference So I tried that (3rd line of the method), but it did not do any difference. How should I do? Is there a better way to do this without call_user_func_array?

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• When *not* to use prepared statements?

  - by Ben Blank

  I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

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• Multithreading and Interrupts

  - by Nicholas Flynt

  I'm doing some work on the input buffers for my kernel, and I had some questions. On Dual Core machines, I know that more than one "process" can be running simultaneously. What I don't know is how the OS and the individual programs work to protect collisions in data. There are two things I'd like to know on this topic: (1) Where do interrupts occur? Are they guaranteed to occur on one core and not the other, and could this be used to make sure that real-time operations on one core were not interrupted by, say, file IO which could be handled on the other core? (I'd logically assume that the interrupts would happen on the 1st core, but is that always true, and how would you tell? Or perhaps does each core have its own settings for interrupts? Wouldn't that lead to a scenario where each core could react simultaneously to the same interrupt, possibly in different ways?) (2) How does the dual core processor handle opcode memory collision? If one core is reading an address in memory at exactly the same time that another core is writing to that same address in memory, what happens? Is an exception thrown, or is a value read? (I'd assume the write would work either way.) If a value is read, is it guaranteed to be either the old or new value at the time of the collision? I understand that programs should ideally be written to avoid these kinds of complications, but the OS certainly can't expect that, and will need to be able to handle such events without choking on itself.

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• Which is a good way to maintain resources for Internationalization in .Net

  - by ashtee

  I have thought of three approaches to create and maintain resources in .Net projects for WinForms using Visual Studio 2008. (I am sure there should be more than three ways.) I need to decide on one before starting to implement internationalization for our product. Have individual sets of resource files (resx) for each windows form or piece of UI (a custom control) in each .net project. These are auto generated by Visual Studio when Localizable property is set to true in the form or control properties. Have one resource file per .net project. This is added manually and updated manually with the resource strings and messages. Have one resource manager project that has resources for all the components for a set of .net projects. Personally, I do not like the first approach as it creates numerous resources files. The only advantage we get in this approach is that we do not need to set text in UI elements manually. I like second and third approach as they are easy to maintain and there is only one set of resources that you need to handle. So no duplication of strings and messages. Easy for the translators also. What are your thoughts? Please share.

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• What are the drawbacks of using PHP to create variables in my CSS stylesheet?

  - by Greg

  One significant drawback of CSS is that one can't use variables. For example, I'd like to use variables to control the location of imported CSS, and it would be awesome to create variables for colors that are used repeatedly in a design. One approach is to use a PHP file for the CSS stylesheet. In other words, create a "style.php" with... <?php header("Content-type: text/css"); ?> ...at the top of the file, and then link to it using... <link href="style.php" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> ...in any file that uses these styles. So what's the catch? I think it might be performance -- I did a few quick experiments in Firefox/Firebug and as one would expect, the CSS stylesheet is cached, but the PHP stylesheet isn't. So we're paying the price of an additional GET. The other annoying thing is that TextMate does not syntax highlight properly for CSS in a .php file. Are there other drawbacks? Have you used this approach, and if so, would you recommend it?

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• Advantages/disadvantages of Python and Ruby

  - by Seburdis

  I know this is going to seem a little like all the other python vs ruby question out there, but I'm not looking specifically to pick one over the other all the time. My question is, essentially, why would you use one language over the other when you are starting a new project? What features does ruby have that python doesn't that would make you decide on it for a given project? What about python over ruby? I was just recently thinking about the differentiation between the two languages because of Jamis Buck's "There is no magic, only awesome" series of articles (4 parts, available here) when I realized I really don't know enough about the two languages to know when to choose one over the other. I'm hoping to get objective answers from people who have experience with both languages, rather than just "python is better, ruby sucks" kind of responses. If you know of a feature in one language that doesn't exist in the other and is great in a certain situation, feel free to chime in and say why you think it's awesome. If you have another language comparable to these that you'd like to suggest pros/cons for, like groovy for example, that would be appreciated too. Some thing I know each language has going for it: Ruby: Awesome metaprogramming Great community Wide selection of Gems Rails Great code readability, usually MacRuby is great for native development on Mac without objc Amazing testing tools (cucumber, rspec, shoulda, autotest, etc.) Python: Whitespace indentation List comprehensions Better functional programming support? Lots of support on linux Easy_install isn't far from gems Great variety of libraries available

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• How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

  - by joebeazelman

  Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

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• mysql complex key or + auto increment key (guid)

  - by darko

  Hi, I have not very big db. I am using auto increment primary keys and in my case there is no problem with that. GUID is not necessary. I have a table containing this fields: from_destination to_testination shipper quantity Where the fields 1,2,3 needs to be unique. Also I have second table that for the fields 1,2,3 stores bought quantities per day One to many. from_destination to_destination shipper date reserved_quantity case 1 Is it better to make fields 1,2,3 as primary complex key in the first table and the same fields in the second table to be foreign key First table from_destination | to_destination | primary shipper | quaitity Second table second_id - autoincrement primary from_destination | to_destination | foreign key shipper | date reserved_quantity Case 2 or just to add auto increment filed in the first table and make fields 1,2,3 unique. In the second table there will be one ingeger foreign key pointing to the first table, and one auto increment key for the table. First table first_id - autoincrement primary from_destination | to_destination | unique shipper | quaitity Second table second_id - autoincrement primary first_id - forein date reserved_quantity If so why we need complex keys, when we can have one field auto increment or GUID and all other fields that are candidates for complex key to be unique. Regards

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• Nhibernat mapping aspnet_Users table

  - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick

  My User table I want to map to aspnet_Users: <class name="User" table="`User`"> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="Guid" not-null="true" /> <property name="FullName" column="FullName" type="String" not-null="true" /> <property name="PhoneNumber" column="PhoneNumber" type="String" not-null="false" /> </class> My aspnet_Users table: <class name="aspnet_Users" table="aspnet_Users"> <id name="ID" column="UserId" type="Guid" /> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="string" not-null="false" /> </class> I tried adding one-to-one, one-to-many and many-to-one mappings. The closest I can get is with this error: Object of type 'System.Guid' cannot be converted to type 'System.Int32'. How do I create a 1 way mapping from User to aspnet_User via the UserId column in User? I am only wanting to create a reference so I can extract read-only information, affect sorts, etc. I still need to leave UserId column in User set up like it is now. Maybe a virtual reference keying off of UserId? Is this even possible with Nhibernate? Unfortunately it acts like it only wants to use ID from User to map to aspnet_Users. Changing the table User to have it's primary key be UserId instead of ID is not an option at this point. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• CSS Hover on parent list Item only

  - by Daniel O'Connor

  Hey Everyone, So I have some nested lists (only one level deep) and I'm running into trouble with the CSS :hover feature. I only want the hover to apply to the parent class, but I can't figure that one out. Here's my CSS <style type="text/css" media="screen"> .listblock li img { visibility: hidden; } .listblock li:hover img { visibility: visible; } </style> And here is a sample of one of the lists. <ul> <li>One <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> <li>Two <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a> <ul> <li>Uno<a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> <li>Dos <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> </ul> </li> <li>Three <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> </ul> The problem is that the image in the Uno and Dos list items also hovers. :( Help please! Thanks a lot

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• Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

  - by Tim

  Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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• How to make this OO?

  - by John

  Hello, Sorry for the poor title,I'm new to OOP so I don't know what is the term for what I need to do. I have, say, 10 different Objects that inherit one Object.They have different amount and type of class members,but all of them have one property in common - Visible. type TObj1=class(TObject) private a:integer; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; TObj2=class(TObject) private b:String; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; ...(Other 8 objects) For each of them I have a variable. var Obj1:TObj1; Obj2:TObj2; Obj3:TObj3; ....(Other 7 objects) Rule 1: Only one object can be initialized at a time(others have to be freed) to be visible. For this rule I have a global variable var CurrentVisibleObj:TObject; //Because they all inherit TObject Finally there is a procedure that changes visibility. procedure ChangeObjVisibility(newObj:TObject); begin CurrentVisibleObj.Free; //Free the old object CurrentVisibleObj:=newObj; //assign the new object CurrentVisibleObj:= ??? //Create new object CurrentVisibleObj.Visible:=true; //Set visibility to new object end; There is my problem,I don't know how to initialize it,because the derived class is unknown. How do I do this? I simplified the explanation,in the project there are TFrames each having different controls and I have to set visible/not visible the same way(By leaving only one frame initialized). Sorry again for the title,I'm very new to OOP.

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• Am I Writing Assembly Or NASM?

  - by cam

  I'm fed up with this. I've been trying to just get a grip on assembly for awhile, but I feel like I'm coding towards my compiler rather than a language. I've been using this tutorial, and so far it's giving me hell. I'm using NASM, which may be the problem, but I figured it was the most popular one. I'm simply trying to learn the most general form of assembly, so I decided to learn x86. I keep running into stupid errors, like not being able to increment a variable. Here's the latest one: not being able to use div. mov bx, 0; mov cx, 0; jmp start; start: inc cx; mov ax, cx; div 3; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah,0; jz totalvalue; mov ax, cx; div 5; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah, 0; jz totalvalue; cmp cx, 1000; jz end; totalvalue: add bx,cx; jmp start; jmp end; end: mov ah,4ch; mov al,00; int 21h; Should I change compilers? It seems like division should be standard. Do I need to read two tutorials (one on NASM, and one on x86?). Any specific help on this problem?

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• weird problem with load () or live () !!

  - by silversky

  I load a page with load () and then I create dinamically a tag. Then I use live() to bind a click event and fires a function. At the end a call unload (). The problem is that when I load the same page again ( without refresh ) when on click the function will be fired twice. If I exit again (again with unload ()) and load the page again on click will fire 3 times and so on .... A sample of my code is: $('#tab').click(function() { $('#formWrap').load('newPage.php'); }); $('div').after('<p class="ctr" ></p>'); $('p.ctr').live('click', function(e) { if($(e.target).is('[k=lf]')) { console.log ('one'); delete ($this); } else if .... }); function delete () { $.post( 'update.php', data); } I have other $.post inside on this page and also on the above live fnc and all work well. The above one also works but like I said on the second load will fire twice and the 3 times and so on ... The weird part for me is that if replece the console with console.log ('two'); save the page and load the page without refresh it will fire on a different rows - one two - if I unload the page replace the console with console.log ('three'); and load again will fire one two and three. I try to use: $.ajax({ url: 'updateDB.php', data: data, type: 'POST', cache:false }); $.ajaxSetup ({ cache: false }); header("Cache-Control: no-cache"); none of this it's working. And I have this problem only on this fnc. What do you think, it could be the reason, it remembers it remembers the previous action and it fires again?

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• asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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