Search Results

Search found 14311 results on 573 pages for 'stan note'.

Page 505/573 | < Previous Page | 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512  | Next Page >

  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

    Read the article

  • Revision control for writing programming lessons

    - by Dietrich Epp
    I'd like to write a series programming lessons that guide programmers to build a certain kind of program. After each lesson, I'd like to provide sample code that implements what that lesson covered, and the next lesson would use that code as a starting point. Right now I'm using Git to keep track of the code from lesson to lesson. Each lesson has its own branch. lesson1: A--B--C \ lesson2: D--E--F \ lesson3: G--H--I However, suppose that now I want to make it easier on the Windows programmers using my lessons, so I add a Visual Studio project to lesson 1 and then merge it into lessons 2 and 3. lesson1: A--B--C--------------J \ \ lesson2: D--E--F--------K \ \ lesson3: G--H--I--L And then someone points out a bug in lesson 2 that causes crashes on certain systems. (This diagram is where I am right now, and I'm having doubts about continuing along this path.) lesson1: A--B--C--------------J \ \ lesson2: D--E--F--------K--M \ \ \ lesson3: G--H--I--L--N Here are the problems I imagine having: If I had many lessons, and I fix something in lesson 1, am I going to have to spend fifteen minutes or more just merging that one simple change? I know I'll probably have to test all of those lessons again, but I can put that off. When I make a bunch of changes to various lessons on one computer, how do I pull all of the branches at the same time? If I decide to publish these lessons, I'd like a way to tag all of the branches to correspond with what I publish. I figure I'll just need to tag each branch separately, but it would be nice if there were a better way. When I look at the history, I imagine becoming terribly confused about what I've done. Compare the above diagram to a hypothetical diagram below, where I use rebase instead of merge (and rebase has its own problems): lesson1: A--B--C--J \ lesson2: D2--E2--F2--M \ lesson3: G2--H2--I2 Do any of you have experience working with a project like this? Should I consider using a different VCS, such as Darcs? (Note: it would be a real pain to use centralized VCS, so don't suggest one of those unless the benefits are clear.) Should I consider writing plugins or extra tools for a VCS (such as a "meta tag" which tags several branches)?

    Read the article

  • file.createNewFile() creates files with last-modified time before actual creation time

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    I'm using JPoller to detect changes to files in a specific directory, but it's missing files because they end up with a timestamp earlier than their actual creation time. Here's how I test: public static void main(String [] files) { for (String file : files) { File f = new File(file); if (f.exists()) { System.err.println(file + " exists"); continue; } try { // find out the current time, I would hope to assume that the last-modified // time on the file will definitely be later than this System.out.println("-----------------------------------------"); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); // create the file System.out.println("Creating " + file + " at " + time); f.createNewFile(); // let's see what the timestamp actually is (I've only seen it <time) System.out.println(file + " was last modified at: " + f.lastModified()); // well, ok, what if I explicitly set it to time? f.setLastModified(time); System.out.println("Updated modified time on " + file + " to " + time + " with actual " + f.lastModified()); } catch (IOException e) { System.err.println("Unable to create file"); } } } And here's what I get for output: ----------------------------------------- Creating test.7 at 1272324597956 test.7 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.7 to 1272324597956 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.8 at 1272324597957 test.8 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.8 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.9 at 1272324597957 test.9 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.9 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 The result is a race condition: JPoller records time of last check as xyz...123 File created at xyz...456 File last-modified timestamp actually reads xyz...000 JPoller looks for new/updated files with timestamp greater than xyz...123 JPoller ignores newly added file because xyz...000 is less than xyz...123 I pull my hair out for a while I tried digging into the code but both lastModified() and createNewFile() eventually resolve to native calls so I'm left with little information. For test.9, I lose 957 milliseconds. What kind of accuracy can I expect? Are my results going to vary by operating system or file system? Suggested workarounds? NOTE: I'm currently running Linux with an XFS filesystem. I wrote a quick program in C and the stat system call shows st_mtime as truncate(xyz...000/1000).

    Read the article

  • ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

    - by John
    I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

    Read the article

  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

    Read the article

  • jQuery jScrollPane - it simply won't work! :'(

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hey folks, OK - I'll admit, I'm quite a beginner in this jQuery-department. I've probably made some amateur mistake, but hey, you gotta learn somewhere! :) So I'm using jScrollPane: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/jScrollPane/jScrollPane.html I want to use it style the scrollable area in my second column. Specifically, I would like to apply and format the scrollbars on the div #ajaxresults My page is... rather jQuery heavy. I don't know if any variables are conflicting or something... in fact I really have no idea at all why this isn't working. Take a look at my problematic page: http://furnace.howcode.com In the header, I've set this to go: <!-- Includes for jScrollPane --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jquery.mousewheel.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jScrollPane.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="http://localhost:8888/stylesheets/jScrollPane.css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#ajaxresults').jScrollPane(); }); </script> (I've changed localhost on the server copy though) Nothing ever seems to work with the #ajaxresults div. I've set, as the jScrollPane docs say, overflow:auto on it but still no luck. I find that when jScrollPane DOES seem to 'run' it just moves the div down about 100 pixels. Try it for yourself. Perhaps someone could help? There's quite a few jQuery plugins there so I don't know if something's colliding/crashing etc... Please note the site is still in development between myself and a friend, which explains the personal messages we submit to each other ('Hi Donnie!' etc. :D ). Also, when you view the page nothing may appear in the second column for a few seconds - it's just fetching the data via Ajax. So give it a little time. Thanks very much! Jack

    Read the article

  • Core-Data + AFNetworking + UI Updating (Responsiveness)

    - by Mustafa
    Here's the scenario: I'm writing a DownloadManager, that allows the user to download, pause, cancel, download all, and pause all. The DownloadManager is a singleton, and uses AFNetworking to download files. It has it's own private managed object context, so that user can freely use other parts of the application (by adding, editing, deleting) core-data objects. I have a core-data entity DownloadInfo that stores the download information i.e. fileURL, fileSize, bytesRead, etc. The DownloadManager updates the download progress in DownloadInfo (one for each file). I have a DownloadManagerViewController which uses NSFetchedResultsController to show the download status to the user. This download view controller is using the main managed object context. Now let's say that I have 20 files in the download queue. And let's say that only 3 concurrent downloads are allowed. The download manager should download the file, and show the download progress. Problem: The DownloadInfo objects are being updated by the DownloadManager at a very high rate. The DownloadManagerViewController (responsible for showing the download progress) is updating the list using NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate methods. The result is that a lot is happening in the main queue and application has very poor responsiveness. How can I fix this? How can I make the application responsive, while showing the download progress? I don't know how else to communicate that the download status between DownloadManager and DownloadManagerViewController. Is there another/ a better way to do this? I don't want to use main managed object context in my DownloadManager, for reasons mentioned above. Note, that the DownloadManager is using AFNetworking which is handling the requests asynchronously, but eventually the DownloadInfo objects are updated in the main thread (as a result of the callback methods). Maybe there's a way to handle the downloads and status update operations in a background thread? but how? How will I communicate between the main thread and the background thread i.e. how will I tell the background thread to queue another file for download? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to sort my paws?

    - by Ivo Flipse
    In my previous question I got an excellent answer that helped me detect where a paw hit a pressure plate, but now I'm struggling to link these results to their corresponding paws: I manually annotated the paws (RF=right front, RH= right hind, LF=left front, LH=left hind). As you can see there's clearly a pattern repeating pattern and it comes back in aknist every measurement. Here's a link to a presentation of 6 trials that were manually annotated. My initial thought was to use heuristics to do the sorting, like: There's a ~60-40% ratio in weight bearing between the front and hind paws; The hind paws are generally smaller in surface; The paws are (often) spatially divided in left and right. However, I’m a bit skeptical about my heuristics, as they would fail on me as soon as I encounter a variation I hadn’t thought off. They also won’t be able to cope with measurements from lame dogs, whom probably have rules of their own. Furthermore, the annotation suggested by Joe sometimes get's messed up and doesn't take into account what the paw actually looks like. Based on the answers I received on my question about peak detection within the paw, I’m hoping there are more advanced solutions to sort the paws. Especially because the pressure distribution and the progression thereof are different for each separate paw, almost like a fingerprint. I hope there's a method that can use this to cluster my paws, rather than just sorting them in order of occurrence. So I'm looking for a better way to sort the results with their corresponding paw. For anyone up to the challenge, I have pickled a dictionary with all the sliced arrays that contain the pressure data of each paw (bundled by measurement) and the slice that describes their location (location on the plate and in time). To clarfiy: walk_sliced_data is a dictionary that contains ['ser_3', 'ser_2', 'sel_1', 'sel_2', 'ser_1', 'sel_3'], which are the names of the measurements. Each measurement contains another dictionary, [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10] (example from 'sel_1') which represent the impacts that were extracted. Also note that 'false' impacts, such as where the paw is partially measured (in space or time) can be ignored. They are only useful because they can help recognizing a pattern, but won't be analyzed. And for anyone interested, I’m keeping a blog with all the updates regarding the project!

    Read the article

  • jQuery "Autocomplete" plugin is messing up the order of my data

    - by Max Williams
    I'm using Jorn Zaefferer's Autocomplete plugin on a couple of different pages. In both instances, the order of displayed strings is a little bit messed up. Example 1: array of strings: basically they are in alphabetical order except for General Knowledge which has been pushed to the top: General Knowledge,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Displayed strings: General Knowledge,Geography,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Note that Geography has been pushed to be the second item, after General Knowledge. The rest are all fine. Example 2: array of strings: as above but with Cross-curricular instead of General Knowledge. Cross-curricular,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Displayed strings: Cross-curricular,Citizenship,Art and Design,Business Studies,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Here, Citizenship has been pushed to the number 2 position. I've experimented a little, and it seems like there's a bug saying "put things that start with the same letter as the first item after the first item and leave the rest alone". Kind of mystifying. I've tried a bit of debugging by triggering alerts inside the autocomplete plugin code but everywhere i can see, it's using the correct order. it seems to be just when its rendered out that it goes wrong. Any ideas anyone? max EDIT - reply to Clint Thanks for pointing me at the relevant bit of code btw. To make diagnosis simpler i changed the array of values to ["carrot", "apple", "cherry"], which autocomplete re-orders to ["carrot", "cherry", "apple"]. Here's the array that it generates for stMatchSets: stMatchSets = ({'':[#1={value:"carrot", data:["carrot"], result:"carrot"}, #3={value:"apple", data:["apple"], result:"apple"}, #2={value:"cherry", data:["cherry"], result:"cherry"}], c:[#1#, #2#], a:[#3#]}) So, it's collecting the first letters together into a map, which makes sense as a first-pass matching strategy. What i'd like it to do though, is to use the given array of values, rather than the map, when it comes to populating the displayed list. I can't quite get my head around what's going on with the cache inside the guts of the code (i'm not very experienced with javascript).

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 files work in one folder, but NOT in another

    - by Steve
    I am about to leap of a building. I have created an app for a client and all the files are in a folder on their D drive. Now it is time to go production, so I copied all my files and folders to their excisting classic asp folder on the same drive. BUT NOTHING WORKS. The only difference I can see is that DEV does not require HTTPS like the production site. I also made sure all the permissions are the same on both folder. I made sure that the GAC has read rights using the aspnet_regiis tool. I am at the end of my debug knowlegde, could someone please help me out. Here are the error messages I get from the application event log. Failed to initialize the AppDomain:/LM/W3SVC/3/Root Exception: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Message: Exception of type 'System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException' was thrown. StackTrace: at System.Web.Configuration.ErrorRuntimeConfig.ErrorConfigRecord.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigRecord.GetLkgSection(String configKey) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfigLKG.GetSectionObject(String sectionName) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.GetSection(String sectionName, Type type, ResultsIndex index) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.get_HostingEnvironment() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.StartMonitoringForIdleTimeout() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironment(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironmentAndReportErrors(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------ Failed to execute the request because the ASP.NET process identity does not have read permissions to the global assembly cache. Error: 0x80131902 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------- aspnet_wp.exe (PID: 4568) stopped unexpectedly. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Here is the web error message: Server Application Unavailable The web application you are attempting to access on this web server is currently unavailable. Please hit the "Refresh" button in your web browser to retry your request. Administrator Note: An error message detailing the cause of this specific request failure can be found in the application event log of the web server. Please review this log entry to discover what caused this error to occur. Thank you for your help, Steve

    Read the article

  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Unable to execute stored Procedure using Java and JDBC on SQL server

    - by jwmajors81
    I have been trying to execute a MS SQL Server stored procedure via JDBC today and have been unsuccessful thus far. The stored procedure has 1 input and 1 output parameter. With every combination I use when setting up the stored procedure call in code I get an error stating that the stored procedure couldn't be found. I have provided the stored procedure I'm executing below (NOTE: this is vendor code, so I cannot change it). set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROC [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier int OUTPUT AS BEGIN DECLARE @HoldPolicyId int DECLARE @PolicyId char(14) IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM UniqueIdentifierGen (UPDLOCK) ) INSERT INTO UniqueIdentifierGen VALUES (0) UPDATE UniqueIdentifierGen SET CurIdentifier = CurIdentifier + 1 SELECT @OutIdentifier = (SELECT CurIdentifier FROM UniqueIdentifierGen) END The code looks like: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.setInt(1, 0); ResultSet result = statement.executeQuery(); I get the following error: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The above results in: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The code above resulted in the following error: Could not find stored procedure 'spWCoTaskIdGen'. Finally, I should also point out the following: I have used the MS SQL Server Management Studio tool and have been able to successfully run the stored procedure. The sql generated to execute the stored procedure is provided below: GO DECLARE @return_value int, @OutIdentifier int EXEC @return_value = [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier = @OutIdentifier OUTPUT SELECT @OutIdentifier as N'@OutIdentifier ' SELECT 'Return Value' = @return_value GO The code being executed runs with the same user id that was used in point #1 above. In the code that creates the Connection object I log which database I'm connecting to and the code is connecting to the correct database. Any ideas? Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • showing errors from actions in table-based views

    - by enashnash
    I have a view where I want to perform different actions on the items in each row in a table, similar to this (in, say, ~/Views/Thing/Manage.aspx): <table> <% foreach (thing in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: thing.x %></td> <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("SetEnabled", "Thing")) { %> <%: Html.Hidden("x", thing.x) %> <%: Html.Hidden("enable", !thing.Enabled) %> <input type="submit" value="<%: thing.Enabled ? "Disable" : "Enable" %>" /> <% } %> </td> <!-- more tds with similar action forms here, a few per table row --> </tr> <% } %> In my ThingController, I have functions similar to the following: public ActionResult Manage() { return View(ThingService.GetThings()); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult SetEnabled(string x, bool enable) { try { ThingService.SetEnabled(x, enable); } catch (Exception ex) { ModelState.AddModelError("", ex.Message); // I know this is wrong... } return RedirectToAction("Manage"); } In the most part, this is working fine. The problem is that if ThingService.SetEnabled throws an error, I want to be able to display the error at the top of the table. I've tried a few things with Html.ValidationSummary() in the page but I can't get it to work. Note that I don't want to send the user to a separate page to do this, and I'm trying to do it without using any javascript. Am I going about displaying my table in the best way? How do I get the errors displayed in the way I want them to? I will end up with perhaps 40 small forms on the page. This approach comes largely from this article, but it doesn't handle the errors in the way I need to. Any takers?

    Read the article

  • Using XSLT, how do I separate nodes based on their value?

    - by Will Goring
    I have a pretty flat XML structure that I need to reorder into categorised sections and, for the life of me, I can't figure out how to do it in XSLT (not that I'm by any means an expert.) Basically, the original XML looks kinda like: <things> <thing> <value>one</value> <type>a</type> </thing> <thing> <value>two</value> <type>b</type> </thing> <thing> <value>thee</value> <type>b</type> </thing> <thing> <value>four</value> <type>a</type> </thing> <thing> <value>five</value> <type>d</type> </thing> </things> And I need to output something like: <data> <a-things> <a>one</a> <a>four</a> </a-things> <b-things> <b>two</b> <b>three</b> </b-things> <d-things> <d>five</d> </d-things> </data> Note that I can't output <c-things> if there aren't any <c> elements, but I do know ahead of time what the complete list of types is, and it's fairly short so handcoding templates for each type is definitely possible. It feels like I could probably hack something together using <xsl:if> and <xsl:for-each> but it also feels like there must be a more ... 'templatey' way to do it. Can anyone help? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • .NET Impersonate not working!

    - by Jagd
    I have a webpage that allows a user to upload a file to a network share. When I run the webpage locally (within VS 2008) and try to upload the file, it works! However, when I deploy the website to the webserver and try to upload the file through the webpage, it doesn't work! The error being returned to me on the webserver says "Access to the path '\05prd1\emp\test.txt' is denied. So, obviously, this is a permissions issue. The network share is configured to allow full access both to me (NT authentication) and to the NETWORK SERVICE (which is .NET's default account and what we have set in our IIS application pool as the default user for this website). I have tried this with and without authentication, and neither one works on the webserver, yet both ways works on my local machine. The code that does the file upload is below. Please note that the code below includes impersonation, but like I said above, I've tried it with and without impersonation and it's made no difference. if (fuCourses.PostedFile != null && fuCourses.PostedFile.ContentLength > 0) { System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impCtx; impCtx = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); try { lblMsg.Visible = true; // The courses file to be uploaded HttpPostedFile file = fuCourses.PostedFile; string fName = file.FileName; string uploadPath = "\\\\05prd1\\emp\\"; // Get the file name if (fName.Contains("\\")) { fName = fName.Substring( fName.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } // Delete the courses file if it is already on \\05prd1\emp FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(uploadPath + fName); if (fi != null && fi.Exists) { fi.Delete(); } // Open new file stream on \\05prd1\emp and read bytes into it from file upload FileStream fs = File.Create(uploadPath + fName, file.ContentLength); using (Stream stream = file.InputStream) { byte[] b = new byte[4096]; int read; while ((read = stream.Read(b, 0, b.Length)) > 0) { fs.Write(b, 0, read); } } fs.Close(); lblMsg.Text = "File Successfully Uploaded"; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Green; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Red; } finally { impCtx.Undo(); } } Any help on this would be very appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

    Read the article

  • How can I position some divs inside an unordered list so they line up with the root element of the l

    - by Ronedog
    I want to position all the divs to line up to the left on the same x coordinate so it looks nice. Notice the picture below, how based on the number of nested categories the div (and its contents) show up at slightly different x coordinates. I need to have the div's line up at exactly the same x coordinate no matter how deeply nested. Note, the bottom most category always has a div for the content, but that div has to be situated inside the last < li . I am using an unordered list to display the menu and thought the best solution would be to grab the root category (Cat 2, and mCat1) and obtain their left offset using jquery, then simply use that value to update the positioning of the div...but I couldn't seem to get it to work just right. I would appreciate any advice or help that you are willing to give. Heres the HTML <ul id="nav> <li>Cat 2 <ul> <li>sub cat2</li> </ul> </li> <li>mCat1 <ul> <li>Subcat A <ul> <li>Subcat A.1 <ul> <li>Annie</li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> Heres some jquery I tried (I have do insert the div inside this .each() loop in order to retrieve some values, but basically, this selector is grabbing the last < li in the menu tree and placing a div after it and that is the div that I want to position. the 245 value was something I was playing around with to see how I could get things to line up, and I know its out of wack, but the problem is still the same no matter what I do: $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").each(function () { var self = $(this); var position = self.offset(); var xLeft = Math.round(position.left)- 245; console.log("xLeft:", xLeft ); self.after( '<div id="' + self.attr('p_node') + '_p_cont_div" class="property_position" style="display:none; left:' + xLeft + 'px;" /> ' ); }); Heres the css: .property_position{ float:left; position: relative; top: 0px; padding-top:5px; padding-bottom:10px; }

    Read the article

  • XML Return from an Oracle Stored Procedure

    - by Tequila Jinx
    Unfortunately most of my DB experience has been with MSSQL which tends to hold your hand a lot more than Oracle. What I'm trying to do is fairly trivial in tSQL, however, pl/sql is giving me a headache. I have the following procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE USPX_GetUserbyID (USERID USERS.USERID%TYPE, USERRECORD OUT XMLTYPE) AS BEGIN SELECT XMLELEMENT("user" , XMLATTRIBUTES(u.USERID AS "userid", u.companyid as "companyid", u.usertype as "usertype", u.status as "status", u.personid as "personid") , XMLFOREST( p.FIRSTNAME AS "firstname" , p.LASTNAME AS "lastname" , p.EMAIL AS "email" , p.PHONE AS "phone" , p.PHONEEXTENSION AS "extension") , XMLELEMENT("roles", (SELECT XMLAGG(XMLELEMENT("role", r.ROLETYPE)) FROM USER_ROLES r WHERE r.USERID = USERID AND r.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) , XMLELEMENT("watches", (SELECT XMLAGG( XMLELEMENT("watch", XMLATTRIBUTES(w.WATCHID AS "id", w.TICKETID AS "ticket") ) ) FROM USER_WATCHES w WHERE w.USERID = USERID AND w.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) ) AS "RESULT" INTO USERRECORD FROM USERS u LEFT JOIN PEOPLE p ON p.PERSONID = u.PERSONID WHERE u.USERID = USERID; END USPX_GetUserbyID; When executed, it should return an XML document with the following structure: <user userid="" companyid="" usertype="" status="" personid=""> <firstname /> <lastname /> <email /> <phone /> <extension /> <roles> <role /> </roles> <watches> <watch id="" ticket="" /> </watches> </user> When I execute the query itself, replacing the USERID parameter with a string and removing the "into" clause, the query runs fine and returns the expected structure. However, when the procedure attempts to execute the query, passing the results of the XMLELEMENT function into the USERRECORD output parameter, I get the following exception: Error report: ORA-01422: exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows ORA-06512: at "USPX_GETUSERBYID", line 4 ORA-06512: at line 3 01422. 00000 - "exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows" *Cause: The number specified in exact fetch is less than the rows returned. *Action: Rewrite the query or change number of rows requested I'm baffled trying to nail this down, and unfortunately my google-fu hasn't helped. I've found plenty of Oracle SQL|XML examples, but none that deal with XML returns from a procedure. Note: I know that an alternate method of retrieving XML using DBMS methods exists, however, it's my understanding that that functionality is deprecated in favor of SQL|XML.

    Read the article

  • All embedded databases fail to open connections

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm working on a winforms desktop application that needs to store data. I made the really bad decision to try and embed a database. I've tried: SQLite VistaDB SQL Server Compact In each case, I was able to generate a Entity Framework Model over the basic schema I've created. I have an event that adds data that I've been using to test these databases. Well, I kept adding a new record using EF and finding it didn't actually insert a record. In debugging, I checked the context object to see what was happening. It turns out that it is saying "the underlying provider failed to open," or something to that effect. It was not throwing an exception, just not inserting a record. The same thing has happened for all 3 embedded databases--prompting me to get it through my dense head that there has to be something wrong with my configuration. Well, I tried to write some basic sql using a sqlconnection and sqlcommand. This time it throws an exception. In the SQL Server Compact case, it now says: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I thought perhaps a problem was the path in app.Config. So I changed the connection string to: Note that I simplified the path away from anything that might have spaces and avoided using the Data Directory nonsense that causes problem when the debugging directory does not match the preconfigured value for the data directory. I'm running Windows 7; I thought perhaps it might be an access issue--so I tried running VS 2010 in Administrator mode. No luck. I also installed Sql Server Compact SP2, thinking this might be a bug. No luck. Anyway, I'm ready to pull my hair out. I'm on a tight deadline for this thing and didn't expect to spend the day trying to figure out what is going on.

    Read the article

  • Wordpress: how to call a plugin function with an ajax call?

    - by Bee
    I'm writing a Wordpress MU plugin, it includes a link with each post and I want to use ajax to call one of the plugin functions when the user clicks on this link, and then dynamically update the link-text with output from that function. I'm stuck with the ajax query. I've got this complicated, clearly hack-ish, way to do it, but it is not quite working. What is the 'correct' or 'wordpress' way to include ajax functionality in a plugin? (My current hack code is below. When I click the generate link I don't get the same output I get in the wp page as when I go directly to sample-ajax.php in my browser.) I've got my code[1] set up as follows: mu-plugins/sample.php: <?php /* Plugin Name: Sample Plugin */ if (!class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { class SamplePlugin { function SamplePlugin() {} function addHeaderCode() { echo '<link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="'.get_bloginfo('wpurl'). '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample.css" />\n'; wp_enqueue_script('sample-ajax', get_bloginfo('wpurl') . '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php', array('jquery'), '1.0'); } // adds the link to post content. function addLink($content = '') { $content .= "<span class='foobar clicked'><a href='#'>click</a></span>"; return $content; } function doAjax() { // echo "<a href='#'>AJAX!</a>"; } } } if (class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { $sample_plugin = new SamplePlugin(); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { add_action('wp_head',array(&$sample_plugin,'addHeaderCode'),1); add_filter('the_content', array(&$sample_plugin, 'addLink')); } mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } ?> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery(".foobar").bind("click", function() { var aref = this; jQuery(this).toggleClass('clicked'); jQuery.ajax({ url: "http://mysite/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php", success: function(value) { jQuery(aref).html(value); } }); }); }); mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { $sample_plugin->doAjax(); } else { echo "unset"; } ?> [1] Note: The following tutorial got me this far, but I'm stumped at this point. http://www.devlounge.net/articles/using-ajax-with-your-wordpress-plugin

    Read the article

  • Error Serializing a CLR object for use in a WCF service

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have written a custom exception object. The reason for this is I want to track additional information when an error occurs. My CLR object is defined as follows: public class MyException : Exception { public override string StackTrace { get { return base.StackTrace; } } private readonly string stackTrace; public override string Message { get { return base.Message; } } private readonly string message; public string Element { get { return element; } } private readonly string element; public string ErrorType { get { return errorType; } } private readonly string errorType; public string Misc { get { return misc; } } private readonly string misc; #endregion Properties #region Constructors public MyException() {} public MyException(string message) : base(message) { } public MyException(string message, Exception inner) : base(message, inner) { } public MyException(string message, string stackTrace) : base() { this.message = message; this.stackTrace = stackTrace; } public MyException(string message, string stackTrace, string element, string errorType, string misc) : base() { this.message = message; this.stackTrace = stackTrace; this.element = element; this.errorType = errorType; this.misc = misc; } protected MyException(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) : base(info, context) { element = info.GetString("element"); errorType = info.GetString("errorType"); misc = info.GetString("misc"); } public override void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { base.GetObjectData(info, context); info.AddValue("element", element); info.AddValue("errorType", errorType); info.AddValue("misc", misc); } } I have created a copy of this custom xception in a WP7 application. The only difference is, I do not have the GetObjectData method defined or the constructor with SerializationInfo defined. If I run the application as is, I receive an error that says: Type 'My.MyException' cannot be serialized. Consider marking it with the DataContractAttribute attribute, and marking all of its members you want serialized with the DataMemberAttribute attribute. If the type is a collection, consider marking it with the CollectionDataContractAttribute. If I add the DataContract / DataMember attributes to the class and its appropriate members on the server-side, I receive an error that says: Type cannot be ISerializable and have DataContractAttribute attribute. How do I serialize MyException so that I can pass an instance of it to my WCF service. Please note, I want to use my service from an Android app. Because of this, I don't want to do anything too Microsoft centric. That was my fear with DataContract / DataMember stuff. Thank you so much for your help!

    Read the article

  • UINavigationBar unresponsive after canceling a UITableView search in nav controller in tab bar in a popover

    - by Mark
    Ok, this is an odd one and I can reproduce it with a new project easily. Here is the setup: I have a UISplitViewController. In the left side I have a UITabBarController. In this tab bar controller I have two UINavigationControllers. In the navigation controllers I have UITableViewControllers. These table views have search bars on them. Ok, what happens with this setup is that if I'm in portrait mode and bring up this view in the popover and I start a search in one of the table views and cancel it, the navigation bar becomes unresponsive. That is, the "back" button as well as the right side button cannot be clicked. If I do the exact same thing in landscape mode so we are not in a popover, this doesn't happen. The navigation bar stays responsive. So, the problem only seems to happen inside a popover. I've also noticed that if I do the search but click on an item in the search results which ends up loading something into the "detail view" of the split view and dismissing the popover, and then come back to the popover and then click the Cancel button for the search, the navigation bar is responsive. My application is a universal app and uses the same tab bar controller in the iPhone interface and it works there without this issue. As I mentioned above, I can easily reproduce this with a new project. Here are the steps if you want to try it out yourself: start new project - split view create new UITableViewController class (i named TableViewController) uncomment out the viewDidLoad method as well as the rightBarButtonItem line in viewDidLoad (so we will have an Edit button in the navigation bar) enter any values you want to return from numberOfSectioinsInTableView and numberOfRowsInSection methods open MainWindow.xib and do the following: please note that you will need to be viewing the xib in the middle "view mode" so you can expand the contents of the items drag a Tab Bar Controller into the xib to replace the Navigation Controller item drag a Navigation Controller into the xib as another item under the Tab Bar Controller delete the other two view controllers that are under the Tab Bar Controller (so, now our tab bar has just the one navigation controller on it) inside the navigation controller, drag in a Table View Controller and use it to replace the View Controller (Root View Controller) change the class of the new Table View Controller to the class created above (TableViewController for me) double-click on the Table View under the new Table View Controller to open it up (will be displayed in the tab bar inside the split view controller) drag a "Search Bar and Search Display" onto the table view save the xib run the project in simulator while in portrait mode, click on the Root List button to bring up popover notice the Edit button is clickable click in the Search box - we go into search mode click the Cancel button to exit search mode notice the Edit button no longer works So, can anyone help me figure out why this is happening? Thanks, Mark

    Read the article

  • extra vertical space within <li> in IE7

    - by powerboy
    The test case is in below. Or you can view it in jsbin: http://jsbin.com/uxagi. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> body {margin: 20px; } #main {border: 1px solid red;} img {float: left; height: 100px; padding: 0 10px 10px 0;} ul {margin: 0; padding: 0; list-style-type: none;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="main"> <ul> <li> <img src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/thumb/0/07/CranebyLinson1894.jpg/100px-CranebyLinson1894.jpg" /> <div class="content">"The Open Boat" is a short story by American author Stephen Crane. First published in 1897, it was based on Crane's experience of having survived a shipwreck off the coast of Florida earlier that year while traveling to Cuba to work as a newspaper correspondent. Crane was stranded at sea for thirty hours when his ship, the SS Commodore, sank after hitting a sandbar. He and three other men were forced to navigate their way to shore in a small boat; one of the men, an oiler named Billie Higgins, drowned. Crane subsequently adapted his report into narrative form, and the short story "The Open Boat" was published in Scribner's Magazine. The story is told from the point of view of an anonymous correspondent, Crane's fictional doppelgänger, and the action closely resembles the author's experiences after the shipwreck. A volume titled The Open Boat and Other Tales of Adventure was published in the United States in 1898. Praised for its innovation by contemporary critics, the story is considered an exemplary work of literary Naturalism. One of the most frequently discussed works in Crane's canon, it is notable for its use of imagery, irony, symbolism, and exploration of themes including survival, solidarity, and the conflict between man and nature. H. G. Wells considered "The Open Boat" to be "beyond all question, the crown of all [Crane's] work".</div> </li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> Note that in standards-compliant browsers and IE8, there is no vertical space between the red border and the text. But there is vertical space in IE7 (haven't tested in IE6).

    Read the article

  • C++ Program Always Crashes While doing a std::string assign

    - by bbazso
    I have been trying to debug a crash in my application that crashes (i.e. asserts a * glibc detected free(): invalid pointer: 0x000000000070f0c0 **) while I'm trying to do a simple assign to a string. Note that I'm compiling on a linux system with gcc 4.2.4 with an optimization level set to -O2. With -O0 the application no longer crashes. E.g. std::string abc; abc = "testString"; but if I changed the code as follows it no longer crashes std::string abc("testString"); So again I scratched my head! But the interesting pattern was that the crash moved later on in the application, AGAIN at another string. I found it weird that the application was continuously crashing on a string assign. A typical crash backtrace would look as follows: #0 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) bt #0 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #1 0x00007f2c2663dbc3 in abort () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #2 0x00000000004d8cb7 in people_streamingserver_sighandler (signum=6) at src/peoplestreamingserver.cpp:487 #3 <signal handler called> #4 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #5 0x00007f2c2663dbc3 in abort () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #6 0x00007f2c26680ce0 in ?? () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #7 0x00007f2c270ca7a0 in std::string::assign (this=0x7f2c21bc8d20, __str=<value optimized out>) at /home/bbazso/ThirdParty/sources/gcc-4.2.4/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/libstdc++-v3/include/bits/basic_string.h:238 #8 0x00007f2c21bd874a in PEOPLESProtocol::GetStreamName (this=<value optimized out>, pRawPath=0x2342fd8 "rtmp://127.0.0.1/mp4:pop.mp4", lStreamName=@0x7f2c21bc8d20) at /opt/trx-HEAD/gcc/4.2.4/lib/gcc/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/4.2.4/../../../../include/c++/4.2.4/bits/basic_string.h:491 #9 0x00007f2c21bd9daa in PEOPLESProtocol::SignalProtocolCreated (pProtocol=0x233a4e0, customParameters=@0x7f2c21bc8de0) at peoplestreamer/src/peoplesprotocol.cpp:240 This was really weird behavior and so I started to poke around further in my application to see if there was some sort of memory corruption (either heap or stack) error that could be occurring that could be causing this weird behavior. I even checked for ptr corruptions and came up empty handed. In addition to visual inspection of the code I also tried the following tools: Valgrind using both memcheck and exp-ptrcheck electric fence libsafe I compiled with -fstack-protector-all in gcc I tried MALLOC_CHECK_ set to 2 I ran my code through lint checks as well as cppcheck (to check for mistakes) And I stepped through the code using gdb So I tried a lot of stuff and still came up empty handed. So I was wondering if it could be something like a linker issue or a library issue of some sort that could be causing this problem. Are there any know issues with the std::string that make is susceptible to crashing in -O2 or maybe it has nothing to do with the optimization level? But the only pattern that I can see thus far in my problem is that it always seems to crash on a string and so I was wondering if anyone knew of any issues that my be causing this type of behavior. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Problem with std::map and std::pair

    - by Tom
    Hi everyone. I have a small program I want to execute to test something #include <map> #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct _pos{ float xi; float xf; bool operator<(_pos& other){ return this->xi < other.xi; } }; struct _val{ float f; }; int main() { map<_pos,_val> m; struct _pos k1 = {0,10}; struct _pos k2 = {10,15}; struct _val v1 = {5.5}; struct _val v2 = {12.3}; m.insert(std::pair<_pos,_val>(k1,v1)); m.insert(std::pair<_pos,_val>(k2,v2)); return 0; } The problem is that when I try to compile it, I get the following error $ g++ m2.cpp -o mtest In file included from /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_tree.h:64, from /usr/include/c++/4.4/map:60, from m2.cpp:1: /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_function.h: In member function ‘bool std::less<_Tp>::operator()(const _Tp&, const _Tp&) const [with _Tp = _pos]’: /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_tree.h:1170: instantiated from ‘std::pair<typename std::_Rb_tree<_Key, _Val, _KeyOfValue, _Compare, _Alloc>::iterator, bool> std::_Rb_tree<_Key, _Val, _KeyOfValue, _Compare, _Alloc>::_M_insert_unique(const _Val&) [with _Key = _pos, _Val = std::pair<const _pos, _val>, _KeyOfValue = std::_Select1st<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >, _Compare = std::less<_pos>, _Alloc = std::allocator<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >]’ /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_map.h:500: instantiated from ‘std::pair<typename std::_Rb_tree<_Key, std::pair<const _Key, _Tp>, std::_Select1st<std::pair<const _Key, _Tp> >, _Compare, typename _Alloc::rebind<std::pair<const _Key, _Tp> >::other>::iterator, bool> std::map<_Key, _Tp, _Compare, _Alloc>::insert(const std::pair<const _Key, _Tp>&) [with _Key = _pos, _Tp = _val, _Compare = std::less<_pos>, _Alloc = std::allocator<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >]’ m2.cpp:30: instantiated from here /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_function.h:230: error: no match for ‘operator<’ in ‘__x < __y’ m2.cpp:9: note: candidates are: bool _pos::operator<(_pos&) $ I thought that declaring the operator< on the key would solve the problem, but its still there. What could be wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512  | Next Page >