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• How to add an array value to the middle of an associative array?

  - by Citizen

  Lets say I have this array: $array = array('a'=>1,'z'=>2,'d'=>4); Later in the script, I want to add the value 'c'=>3 before 'z'. How can I do this? EDIT: Yes, the order is important. When I run a foreach() through the array, I do NOT want this newly added value added to the end of the array. I am getting this array from a mysql_fetch_assoc() EDIT 2: The keys I used above are placeholders. Using ksort() will not achieve what I want. EDIT 3: http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.array-splice.php#88896 accomplishes what I'm looking for but I'm looking for something simpler. EDIT 4: Thanks for the downvotes. I gave feedback to your answers and you couldn't help, so you downvoted and requested to close the question because you didn't know the answer. Thanks. EDIT 5: Take a sample db table with about 30 columns. I get this data using mysql_fetch_assoc(). In this new array, after column 'pizza' and 'drink', I want to add a new column 'full_dinner' that combines the values of 'pizza' and 'drink' so that when I run a foreach() on the said array, 'full_dinner' comes directly after 'drink'

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• Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

  - by Petr Vostrel

  I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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• Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

  - by Eric

  I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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• Exception error in Erlang

  - by Jim

  So I've been using Erlang for the last eight hours, and I've spent two of those banging my head against the keyboard trying to figure out the exception error my console keeps returning. I'm writing a dice program to learn erlang. I want it to be able to call from the console through the erlang interpreter. The program accepts a number of dice, and is supposed to generate a list of values. Each value is supposed to be between one and six. I won't bore you with the dozens of individual micro-changes I made to try and fix the problem (random engineering) but I'll post my code and the error. The Source: -module(dice2). -export([d6/1]). d6(1) - random:uniform(6); d6(Numdice) - Result = [], d6(Numdice, [Result]). d6(0, [Finalresult]) - {ok, [Finalresult]}; d6(Numdice, [Result]) - d6(Numdice - 1, [random:uniform(6) | Result]). When I run the program from my console like so... dice2:d6(1). ...I get a random number between one and six like expected. However when I run the same function with any number higher than one as an argument I get the following exception... **exception error: no function clause matching dice2:d6(1, [4|3]) ... I know I I don't have a function with matching arguments but I don't know how to write a function with variable arguments, and a variable number of arguments. I tried modifying the function in question like so.... d6(Numdice, [Result]) - Newresult = [random:uniform(6) | Result], d6(Numdice - 1, Newresult). ... but I got essentially the same error. Anyone know what is going on here?

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• Beginner Question: For extract a large subset of a table from MySQL, how does Indexing, order of tab

  - by chongman

  Sorry if this is too simple, but thanks in advance for helping. This is for MySQL but might be relevant for other RDMBSs tblA has 4 columns: colA, colB, colC, mydata, A_id It has about 10^9 records, with 10^3 distinct values for colA, colB, colC. tblB has 3 columns: colA, colB, B_id It has about 10^4 records. I want all the records from tblA (except the A_id) that have a match in tblB. In other words, I want to use tblB to describe the subset that I want to extract and then extract those records from tblA. Namely: SELECT a.colA, a.colB, a.colC, a.mydata FROM tblA as a INNER JOIN tblB as b ON a.colA=b.colA a.colB=b.colB ; It's taking a really long time (more than an hour) on a newish computer (4GB, Core2Quad, ubuntu), and I just want to check my understanding of the following optimization steps. ** Suppose this is the only query I will ever run on these tables. So ignore the need to run other queries. Now my questions: 1) What indexes should I create to optimize this query? I think I just need a multiple index on (colA, colB) for both tables. I don't think I need separate indexes for colA and colB. Another stack overflow article (that I can't find) mentioned that when adding new indexes, it is slower when there are existing indexes, so that might be a reason to use the multiple index. 2) Is INNER JOIN correct? I just want results where a match is found. 3) Is it faster if I join (tblA to tblB) or the other way around, (tblB to tblA)? This previous answer says that the optimizer should take care of that. 4) Does the order of the part after ON matter? This previous answer say that the optimizer also takes care of the execution order.

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• Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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• Execute a function to affect different template class instances

  - by Samer Afach

  I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

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• JQuery - Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected

  - by ydobonmai

  Below is the content of my .aspx page and the "jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" is in the same location as the .aspx file. When I run the website with debugging, I get the below error. I know I am terribly missing something here. Any clue? Error :- Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected When I run without debugging, I get the following javascript error:- Line: 10 Error: 'jQuery' is undefined ASPX page content:- <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default3.aspx.cs" Inherits="Default3" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <script>$(function () { alert('hello') });</script> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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• Adobe flex dateField

  - by JonoB

  I have some code as follows: private function onComboChange(evt:Event):void { var temp:Date = df_date.selectedDate; temp.date += 5; df_dateDue.selectedDate = new Date(temp); } In essence, I am trying to add 5 days onto the selected date in df_date, and put that date into df_dateDue. This fires off via an EventListener on a combobox. Both df_date and df_dateDue are dateFields. OK, so the first time that I run this, it works fine; df_date stays the same and df_dateDue is set to 5 days past df_date. However, the next time that I run it, df_dateDue increments by 10 days from df_date, the next time by 15, and so on. So, stepping through the code shows that somehow df_date has become linked to the temp var, and that the temp var is not resetting itself each time the function is called. Example: df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 01 Jan. Fire off the event, df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 06 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point, var temp = 06 Jan (even though df_date still shows 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 11 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point var temp = 11 Jan (even though df_date = 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 16 Jan What am I missing here?

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• Rack, FastCGI, Lighttpd configuration

  - by zacsek

  Hi! I want to run a simple application using Rack, FastCGI and Lighttpd, but I cannot get it working. I get the following error: /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `initialize': Address already in use - bind(2) (Errno::EADDRINUSE) from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `new' from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/rack/handler/fastcgi.rb:23:in `run' from /www/test.rb:7 Here is the application: #!/usr/bin/ruby app = Proc.new do |env| [200, {'Content-Type' => 'text/plain'}, "Hello World!"] end require 'rack' Rack::Handler::FastCGI.run app, :Port => 4000 ... and the lighttpd.conf: server.modules += ( "mod_access", "mod_accesslog", "mod_fastcgi" ) server.port = 80 server.document-root = "/www" mimetype.assign = ( ".html" => "text/html", ".txt" => "text/plain", ".jpg" => "image/jpeg", ".png" => "image/png" ) index-file.names = ( "test.rb" ) fastcgi.debug = 1 fastcgi.server = ( ".rb" => (( "host" => "127.0.0.1", "port" => 4000, "bin-path" => "/www/test.rb", "check-local" => "disable", "max-procs" => 1 )) ) Can someone help me? What am I doing wrong?

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• jQuery: bind generated elements

  - by superUntitled

  Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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• How to best launch C++ application from web page

  - by JB

  I guess there are two parts to this question, one technical and one best practice for security and doing things "right". I'm working on a little game using C++ / directx but I would like to be able to launch it from a web page by someone clicking on a link on that page. Ideally I would like the first time they clicked for it to launch an installer downloads and installs the game on their machine, and then the next time to launch an application which updates the game from a web site if it's old and then launches it. I have no problems with the expected security popups and questions the first time it runs. I want people to be certain what they are installing and understand what they are doing. But it would be nice if once it is installed they could run it with the minimum of fuss. My question then is what technologies I could use to do this? I'm thinking that it would need a browser plugin and an activex control so that first time you'd install that, and subsequently the control/plugin would be able to launch the game. I'm not sure that under newer browser secuity models that a plugin would have the permissions to be able to run an installer though or silently invoke applications on the client machine even if they are already installed. Is there a more sensible way to achive what I want to achieve? And I'm worried about the security aspects too. I want this to be convenient for users but I of course want to do it "right". I know this can be done as I've seen several mmorpg type games that launch in this way from the browser now but it's not entirely clear to me how they've done it.

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• Web User Control og Event

  - by Mcoroklo

  I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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• get_post_meta return empty string

  - by Jean-philippe Emond

  I guest it is a little issues but I running a SQL to get some post id. $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.post_id FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); (count: 302) After that, I get all id and I run get_post_meta like that: foreach($result as $id){ $activity = get_post_meta($id); var_dump($activity); foreach($activity as $key=>$value){ if(is_array($value) && $key=="age"){ var_dump($value); } } } (var_dump result: string "") samething if I run with: $activity = get_post_meta($id,'activity',true); Where we need to get a result. What is wrong? Thank you for your help!!! [Bonus Question] If the "activity" meta_key as an array Value. and I get directly like: $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.meta_value FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); How I parse it? Thanks again!

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• Which design pattern is most appropriate?

  - by Anon

  Hello, I want to create a class that can use one of four algorithms (and the algorithm to use is only known at run-time). I was thinking that the Strategy design pattern sounds appropriate, but my problem is that each algorithm requires slightly different parameters. Would it be a bad design to use strategy, but pass in the relevant parameters into the constructor?. Here is an example (for simplicity, let's say there are only two possible algorithms) ... class Foo { private: // At run-time the correct algorithm is used, e.g. a = new Algorithm1(1); AlgorithmInterface* a; }; class AlgorithmInterface { public: virtual void DoSomething = 0; }; class Algorithm1 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm1( int i ) : value(i) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Does something with int value }; int value; }; class Algorithm2 : public AlgorithmInterface { public: Algorithm2( bool b ) : value(b) {} virtual void DoSomething(){ // Do something with bool value }; bool value; };

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• what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

  - by R_Coder

  I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

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• tomcat resource missing, servlet not running

  - by user2837260

  import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.*; public class MyServlet implements Servlet { public void init(ServletConfig con) {} public void service(ServletRequest req, ServletResponse res) throws IOException,ServletException { res.setContentType("text/html"); PrintWriter out=res.getWriter(); String s="blah"; String s1="blah"; out.println("<html><body>"); if((s.equals(req.getParameter("firstname")))&&(s1.equals(req.getParameter("pwd")))) out.println("passwords match"); else out.println("password and name combo does not match"); out.println("</body></html>"); } public void destroy() {} public ServletConfig getServletConfig() { return null;} public String getServletInfo() { return null;} } this is my java file with the servlet class.its saved with the name MyServlet.java and so is the class file. and here is the xml file: <web-app> <servlet> <servlet-name>demoo</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MyServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>demoo</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/demo</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> i have made the folder as WEB-INF and then classes... WEB-INF also contains the .xml file but when i try to run the servlet , it says resource not found ps- i am already looking for the servlet with the name :demo localhost:8081/s1/demo* s1 is the war file * a html file in the war file seems to run fine on the server though. *

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• Tool to detect use/abuse of String.Concat (where StringBuilder should be used)

  - by Mark Rushakoff

  It's common knowledge that you shouldn't use a StringBuilder in place of a small number of concatenations: string s = "Hello"; if (greetingWorld) { s += " World"; } s += "!"; However, in loops of a significant size, StringBuilder is the obvious choice: string s = ""; foreach (var i in Enumerable.Range(1,5000)) { s += i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine(s); Is there a tool that I can run on either raw C# source or a compiled assembly to identify where in the source code that String.Concat is being called? (If you're not familiar, s += "foo" is mapped to String.Concat in the IL output.) Obviously, I can't realistically search through an entire project and evaluate every += to identify whether the lvalue is a string. Ideally, it would only point out calls inside a for/foreach loop, but I would even put up with all the false positives of noting every String.Concat. Also, I'm aware that there are some refactoring tools that will automatically refactor my code to use StringBuilder, but I am only interested in identifying the Concat usage at this point. I routinely run Gendarme and FxCop on my code, and neither of those tools identify what I've described.

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• Best practice to test a web application, regarding domain name and integration with external service

  - by ycseattle

  I have run into these problems several times and was never able to find a comfortable solution. Let's say my website has the domain name MyDomain.com. When I run the tests on the test machine (a continuous integration server), I will modify the HOSTS file on this machine so the MyDomain.com is mapped to this local machine instead of the real production server. This doesn't work very well for many situations. For example, my application will create subdomain names user1.MyDomain.com dynamically but this is difficult to keep the testing flexible. Another problem is my web application will interact with Amazon S3, and sometimes other service like Amazon Simple Message Queue. I am only comfortable to include these interaction in my tests but I am never happy with my solution for mixing testing and production on Amazon services. Could somebody offer some tips on these issues? I would like to make my testing framework clean and flexible. I am sure this is a common question for all web applications and there must be a mature way to deal with these. Thanks!

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• How to create view in RoR if skipped during controller generation

  - by swapnesh

  When I run this: rails generate controller hello index it no doubt generates hello controller, but accidentally when I run another command like this: rails generate controller world it creates the world controller successfully, but missed the Route "world/index" like as "hello/index". For this mistake I need to use destroy controller and then generate it once more, is thr some kind of mid way command that I can generate if forgotten something rather than destroying and creating every time. This command rails generate controller contact-us index creates a route as contact_us/index or contact_us after changing routes.rb under config folder. How could I create a more SEO friendly URL in RoR? Like localhost:3000/contact-us? I am working on some very basic rules to follow RoR..like 3 static pages (Home, About us, Contact Us) Just simple html content to understand more, will certainly add more features to it as well. localhost:3000/home localhost:3000/About_us localhost:3000/contact_us I created this via creating home, About_us, contact_us controller command and then changed html in views. Since I am on an initial phase, I read somewhere for static pages we can create this in our public like what we have error pages there in the folder or the approach im using is correct?

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• Which pdf elements could cause crashes?

  - by Felixyz

  This is a very general question but it's based on a specific problem. I've created a pdf reader app for the iPad and it works fine except for certain pdf pages which always crash the app. We now found out that the very same pages cause Safari to crash as well, so as I had started to suspect the problem is somewhere in Apple's pdf rendering code. From what I have been able to see, the crashing pages cause the rendering libraries to start allocating memory like mad until the app is killed. I have nothing else to help me pinpoint what triggers this process. It doesn't necessarily happen with the largest documents, or the ones with the most shapes. In fact, we haven't found any parameter that helps us predict which pages will crash and which not. Now we just discovered that running the pages through a consumer program that lets you merge docs gets rid of the problem, but I haven't been able to detect which attribute or element it is that is the key. Changing documents by hand is also not an option for us in the long run. We need to run an automated process on our server. I'm hoping someone with deeper knowledge about the pdf file format would be able to point me in a reasonable direction to look for document features that could cause this kind of behavior. All I've found so far is something about JBIG2 images, and I don't think we have any of those.

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• Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

  - by michael

  Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

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• JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

  - by prabu

  Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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• Weird exception: Cannot cast String to Boolean when using getBoolean

  - by La bla bla

  I'm getting a very weird error. I have 2 activities. On both I'm getting the SharedPreferences using MODE_PRIVATE (if it matters) by sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); on each activity's onCreate() I'm calling sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true) On the IntroActivity this works fine. But when I'm trying in the main activity, I'm getting this 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to java.lang.Boolean 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.SharedPreferencesImpl.getBoolean(SharedPreferencesImpl.java:242) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.lablabla.parkme.ParkMeActivity$2.onClick(ParkMeActivity.java:194) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:4084) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View$PerformClick.run(View.java:16966) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:615) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:137) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4745) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:511) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:786) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:553) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I made sure that I'm not putting a String somewhere in the middle with that same key Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: some code: //onCreate() sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); // other method boolean showIntro = sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true); // Exception is here showIntroCheckBox.setChecked(showIntro); If it matters, the code which throws the exception is inside a button's onClick

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• Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

  - by vIceBerg

  I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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