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  • deactivate ' pin to start ' on Application List page when pinning an app via code using C#?

    - by Ahmed Ali
    i'm creating a windows phone app ,where i've put a button to pin the app to start screen , but when press and hold the app icon on application list screen i find that the pin to start option can be used ShellTile TileToFind = ShellTile.ActiveTiles.FirstOrDefault(x => x.NavigationUri.ToString().Contains("MainPage.xaml")); // Create the Tile if we didn't find that it already exists. if (TileToFind == null) { // Create the Tile object and set some initial properties for the Tile. // The Count value of 12 shows the number 12 on the front of the Tile. Valid values are 1-99. // A Count value of 0 indicates that the Count should not be displayed. StandardTileData NewTileData = new StandardTileData { BackgroundImage = new Uri("300.png", UriKind.Relative), Title = "apptitle", BackTitle = "title", BackContent = "testing ", BackBackgroundImage = null }; // Create the Tile and pin it to Start. This will cause a navigation to Start and a deactivation of our app. ShellTile.Create(new Uri("/MainPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative), NewTileData); } else { MessageBox.Show("Already Pinned"); } how can i disable the user from pinning the application again from application list screen

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  • Cannot set property X of undefined - programatically created element

    - by Dave
    I am working on a class to create a fairly complex custom element. I want to be able to define element attributes (mainly CSS) as I am creating the elements. I came up with the below function to quickly set attrs for me given an input array: // Sample array structure of apply_settings //var _button_div = { // syle : { // position: 'absolute', // padding : '2px', // right : 0, // top : 0 // } //}; function __apply_settings(__el,apply_settings){ try{ for(settingKey in apply_settings){ __setting = apply_settings[settingKey]; if(typeof(__setting)=='string'){ __el[settingKey] = __setting; }else{ for(i in __setting){ __el[settingKey][i] = apply_settings[settingKey][i]; } } } }catch(ex){ alert(ex + " " + __el); } } The function works fine except here: function __draw_top(){ var containerDiv = document.createElement('div'); var buttonDiv = document.createElement('div'); __apply_settings(containerDiv,this.settings.top_bar); if(global_settings.show_x) buttonDiv.appendChild(__create_img(global_settings.images.close)); containerDiv.appendChild(buttonDiv); __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); return containerDiv; } The specific section that is failing is __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); with the error "Cannot set property 'position' of undefined". So naturally, I am assuming that buttonDiv is undefined.. I put alert(ex + " " + __el); in __apply_settings() to verify what I was working with. Surprisingly enough, the element is a div. Is there any reason why this function would be working for containerDiv and not buttonDiv? Any help would be greatly appreciated :) {EDIT} http://jsfiddle.net/Us8Zw/2/

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  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

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  • Spring aop multiple pointcuts & advice but only the last one is working

    - by Jarle Hansen
    I have created two Spring AOP pointcuts that are completely separate and will be woven in for different parts of the system. The pointcuts are used in two different around advices, these around-advices will point to the same Java method. How the xml-file looks: <aop:config> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(......)" id="pointcutOne" /> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(.....)" id="pointcurTwo" /> <aop:aspect id="..." ref="springBean"> <aop:around pointcut-ref="pointcutOne" method="commonMethod" /> <aop:aroung pointcut-ref="pointcutTwo" method="commonMethod" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> The problem is that only the last pointcut works (if I change the order "pointcutOne" works because it is last). I have gotten it to work by creating one big pointcut, but I would like to have them separate. Any suggestions to why only one of the pointcuts works at a time?

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  • How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

    - by ben
    I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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  • Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Robert Harvey
    I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

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  • Google App Engine Java app couldn't find javac ?

    - by Frank
    I'm learning to use Google App Engine, I installed it in Netbeans, the project works, but when I clicked on "Deploy To Google App Engine", I got the following error : Beginning server interaction for ... 0% Creating staging directory 5% Scanning for jsp files. 8% Compiling jsp files. 11% Compiling java files. Error Details: Apr 20, 2010 3:51:23 PM org.apache.jasper.JspC processFile INFO: Built File: \PayPal_Monitor.jsp java.lang.IllegalStateException: cannot find javac executable based on java.home, tried "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\javac.exe" and "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\bin\javac.exe" Unable to update app: cannot find javac executable based on java.home, tried "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\javac.exe" and "C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\bin\javac.exe" Please see the logs [C:\Users\NM\AppData\Local\Temp\appcfg3946701335172983337.log] for further information. The file "javac.exe" is in : C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jdk1.6.0_18\bin How can I add it to "java.home" ? I'm using Win Vista, and I tried to add it from "System - Environment Variables", but there is no "java.home" in there. Where can I find it ? Frank

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  • How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

    - by AR
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

    - by Karel J
    Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

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  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

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  • 'Fixed' for loop - what is more efficient?

    - by pimvdb
    I'm creating a tic-tac-toe game, and one of the functions has to iterate through each of the 9 fields (tic-tac-toe is played on a 3x3 grid). I was wondering what is more efficient (which one is perhaps faster, or what is the preferred way of scripting in such situation) - using two for nested loops like this: for(var i=0; i<3; i++) { for(var j=0; j<3; j++) { checkField(i, j); } } or hard-coding it like this: checkField(0, 0); checkField(0, 1); checkField(0, 2); checkField(1, 0); checkField(1, 1); checkField(1, 2); checkField(2, 0); checkField(2, 1); checkField(2, 2); As there are only 9 combinations, it would be perhaps overkill to use two nested for loops, but then again this is clearer to read. The for loop, however, will increment variables and check whether i and j are smaller than 3 every time as well. In this example, the time saving at least might be negligible, but what is the preferred way of coding in this case? Thanks.

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  • Visibility of reintroduced constructor

    - by avenmore
    I have reintroduced the form constructor in a base form, but if I override the original constructor in a descendant form, the reintroduced constructor is no longer visible. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; constructor TfrmA.Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); begin FWndParent := AWndParent; inherited Create(AOwner); end; type TfrmB = class(TfrmA) private public end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; end; constructor TfrmC.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited Create(AOwner); end; When creating: frmA := TfrmA.Create(nil, 0); frmB := TfrmB.Create(nil, 0); frmC := TfrmC.Create(nil, 0); // Compiler error My work-around is to override the reintroduced constructor or to declare the original constructor overloaded, but I'd like to understand the reason for this behavior. type TfrmA = class(TForm) private FWndParent: HWnd; public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); overload; override; constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); reintroduce; overload; virtual; end; type TfrmC = class(TfrmB) private public constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent; const AWndParent: Hwnd); override; end;

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • Core Data confusion: fetch without tableview.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    I have completed and reproduced Core Data tutorials using a tableview to display contents. However, I want to access an Entity through a fetch on a view without a tableview. I used the following fetch code, but the count returned is always 0. The data exists when the database is opened using SQLite tools. NSManagedObject *entryObj; XYZDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Quote" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"id" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); entryObj = nil; }else { NSLog(@"results %d", [results count]); } [request release]; [sortDescriptors release]; count returned is always 0; it should be 5. Can anyone point me to a reference or tutorial regarding creating a controller not to be used with a tableview.

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  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

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  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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  • Alter Dilemma : How to use to set Primary and other attributes.

    - by Rachel
    I have following table in database AND I need to alter it to below mentioned schema. Initially I was drop the current database and creating new one using the create but I am not supposed to do that and use ALTER but am not sure as to how can I use ALTER to add primary key and other constraints. Any Suggestions !!! Code Current: CREATE TABLE `details` ( `KEY` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `CODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `C_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `C_CODE` varchar(64) NOT NULL, `CCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `LCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `CAMCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `OFCODE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `OFNAME` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `PRIORITY` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `STDATE` datetime NOT NULL, `ENDATE` datetime NOT NULL, `INT` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `PHONE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TV` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `MTV` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `TYPE` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `CREATED` datetime NOT NULL, `MAIN` varchar(255) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Desired: CREATE TABLE `details` ( `id` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `code` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `cid` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `ccode` varchar(64) NOT NULL, `c_code` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `tcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `lcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `camcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ofcode` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ofname` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `priority` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `stdate` datetime NOT NULL, `enddate` datetime NOT NULL, `list` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `created` datetime NOT NULL, `date` datetime NOT NULL, `ofshn` int(20) NOT NULL, `ofcl` int(20) NOT NULL, `ofr` int(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`code`,`ccode`,`list`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Thanks !!!

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  • copy rows before updating them to preserve archive in Postgres

    - by punkish
    I am experimenting with creating a table that keeps a version of every row. The idea is to be able to query for how the rows were at any point in time even if the query has JOINs. Consider a system where the primary resource is books, that is, books are queried for, and author info comes along for the ride CREATE TABLE authors ( author_id INTEGER NOT NULL, version INTEGER NOT NULL CHECK (version > 0), author_name TEXT, is_active BOOLEAN DEFAULT '1', modified_on TIMESTAMP DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (author_id, version) ) INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (1, 1, 'John'), (2, 1, 'Jack'), (3, 1, 'Ernest'); I would like to be able to update the above like so UPDATE authors SET author_name = 'Jack K' WHERE author_id = 1; and end up with 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 2, 2, Jack K, t, 2012-03-29 21:37:40 which I can then query with SELECT author_name, modified_on FROM authors WHERE author_id = 2 AND modified_on < '2012-03-29 21:37:00' ORDER BY version DESC LIMIT 1; to get 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 Something like the following doesn't really work CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION archive_authors() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $archive_author$ BEGIN IF (TG_OP = 'UPDATE') THEN -- The following fails because author_id,version PK already exists INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (OLD.author_id, OLD.version, OLD.author_name); UPDATE authors SET version = OLD.version + 1 WHERE author_id = OLD.author_id AND version = OLD.version; RETURN NEW; END IF; RETURN NULL; -- result is ignored since this is an AFTER trigger END; $archive_author$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER archive_author AFTER UPDATE OR DELETE ON authors FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE archive_authors(); How can I achieve the above? Or, is there a better way to accomplish this? Ideally, I would prefer to not create a shadow table to store the archived rows.

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

    - by Joel Potter
    I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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