Search Results

Search found 16530 results on 662 pages for 'off shore'.

Page 508/662 | < Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >

  • Unrecognized Token : "#" C# to SQLITE

    - by user2788405
    Background + Problem: ( Begginer here ) I want to populate sqlite db with values from a list I have in my c# code. Here's the sqlite code taken from finisarsqlite website: I modified it a bit by creating my own column names like "seq#" etc. But I'm getting the following error : "unrecognized token #" Maybe my syntax is off? Code: // [snip] - As C# is purely object-oriented the following lines must be put into a class: // We use these three SQLite objects: SQLiteConnection sqlite_conn; SQLiteCommand sqlite_cmd; SQLiteDataReader sqlite_datareader; // create a new database connection: sqlite_conn = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=database.db;Version=3;New=True;Compress=True;"); // open the connection: sqlite_conn.Open(); // create a new SQL command: sqlite_cmd = sqlite_conn.CreateCommand(); // Let the SQLiteCommand object know our SQL-Query: sqlite_cmd.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE table1 (Seq# integer primary key, Field integer primary key, Description integer primary key);"; // Now lets execute the SQL ;D sqlite_cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); <<< ---- This is where Error Occurs ! // Lets insert something into our new table: sqlite_cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO table1 (Seq#, Field, Description) VALUES (list[0], list[1], list[2]);"; // And execute this again ;D sqlite_cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // We are ready, now lets cleanup and close our connection: sqlite_conn.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • new ActiveXObject('Word.Application') creates new winword.exe process when IE security does not allo

    - by Mark Ott
    We are using MS Word as a spell checker for a few fields on a private company web site, and when IE security settings are correct it works well. (Zone for the site set to Trusted, and trusted zone modified to allow control to run without prompting.) The script we are using creates a word object and closes it afterward. While the object exists, a winword.exe process runs, but it is destroyed when the word object is closed. If our site is not set in the trusted zone (Internet zone with default security level) the call that creates the word object fails as expected, but the winword.exe process is still created. I do not have any way to interact with this process in the script, so the process stays around until the user logs off (users have no way to manually destroy the process, and it wouldn't be a good solution even if they did.) The call that attempts to create the object is... try { oWordApplication = new ActiveXObject('Word.Application'); } catch(error) { // irrelevant code removed, described in comments.. // notify user spell check cannot be used // disable spell check option } So every time the page is loaded this code may be run again, creating yet another orphan winword.exe process. oWordApplication is, of course, undefined in the catch block. I would like to be able to detect the browser security settings beforehand, but I have done some searching on this and do not think that it is possible. Management here is happy with it as it is. As long as IE security is set correctly it works, and it works well for our purposes. (We may eventually look at other options for spell check functionality, but this was quick, inexpensive, and does everything we need it to do.) This last problem bugs me and I'd like to do something about it, but I'm out of ideas and I have other things that are more in need of my attention. Before I put it aside, I thought I'd ask for suggestions here...

    Read the article

  • Maven error: Unable to get resource / Server redirected too many times

    - by tewe
    Our proxy went down and I tried to update dependencies with maven while it was off. Since then I can't download anything with maven. I get this error for everything. I tried -U option, deleting my local repository and tried different maven version (2.0.9, 2.2.1) but it doesn't work. Any idea how to solve this? Earlier it also said 'repository will be blacklisted' to all of them. Downloading: http://repo1.maven.org/maven2/org/apache/maven/plugins/maven-compiler-plugin/2.1/maven-compiler-plugin-2.1.pom [WARNING] Unable to get resource 'org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-compiler-plugin:pom:2.1' from repository central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2): Error transferring file: Server redirected too many times (20) org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-compiler-plugin:pom:2.1 from the specified remote repositories: jboss-snapshot (http://snapshots.jboss.org/maven2), central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2), JBoss Repo (http://repository.jboss.com/maven2), spring-maven-snapshot (http://maven.springframework.org/snapshot), com.springsource.repository.bundles.external (http://repository.springsource.com/maven/bundles/external), com.springsource.repository.bundles.snapshot (http://repository.springsource.com/maven/bundles/snapshot), jboss (http://repository.jboss.com/maven2), com.springsource.repository.bundles.release (http://repository.springsource.com/maven/bundles/release), jboss-snapshot-plugins (http://snapshots.jboss.org/maven2), com.springsource.repository.bundles.milestone (http://repository.springsource.com/maven/bundles/milestone), jboss-plugins (http://repository.jboss.com/maven2) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:228) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:90) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.findModelFromRepository(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:558) ... 25 more Caused by: org.apache.maven.wagon.ResourceDoesNotExistException: Unable to download the artifact from any repository at org.apache.maven.artifact.manager.DefaultWagonManager.getArtifact(DefaultWagonManager.java:404) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:216) ... 27 more

    Read the article

  • How to reclaim storage for deleted LOBs

    - by Jim Hudson
    I have a LOB tablespace. Currently holding 9GB out of 12GB available. And, as far as I can tell, deleting records doesn't reclaim any storage in the tablespace. I'm getting worried about handling further processing. This is Oracle 11.1 and the data are in a CLOB and a BLOB column in the same table. The LOB Index segments (SYS_IL...) are small, all the storage is in the data segments (SYS_LOB...) We'e tried purge and coalesce and didn't get anywhere -- same number of bytes in user_extents. "Alter table xxx move" will work, but we'd need to have someplace to move it to that has enough space for the revised data. We'd also need to do that off hours and rebuild the indexes, of course, but that's easy enough. Copying out the good data and doing a truncate, then copying it back, will also work. But that's pretty much just what the "alter table" command does. Am I missing some easy ways to shrink things down and get the storage back? Or is "alter table xxx move" the best approach? Or is this a non-issue and Oracle will grab back the space from the deleted lob rows when it needs it?

    Read the article

  • jquery - how to get input text value from inside td

    - by Ashish Rajan
    <tr> <td> <input type="text" name="duration[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="start[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="wait[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="end[]"> </td> </tr> I have such multiple rows. I need to fetch the values off all tds on keyup event on the td with input name start. Since they are many i cannot go with ids, need help in parent child approach with jquery. I was able to reach parent tr on keyup event on the above mentioned td but not able to access values of input field in other tds. the jquery code i used $(document).ready(function(){ $(".start").keyup(function(){ alert($(this).parent().get(-3).tagName); }) });

    Read the article

  • Can't run ASP.NET MVC 2 web app on IIS 7.5

    - by Portman
    I'm trying to run an ASP.NET MVC 2 web application under IIS on Windows 7, but I get a 403.14 error. Here are the steps to reproduce: Open Visual Studio 2010 Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 project called MvcApplication1 Shift+F5 to run the app. You should see http://localhost:{random_port}/ and the page will render correctly. Click on MvcApplication1, and select "Properties". Go to the "Web" section. Select "Use Local IIS Web server" and create a virtual directory. Save. Shift+F5 to run the app. You should see http://localhost/MvcApplication1/ and an IIS error HTTP Error 403.14 - Forbidden The Web server is configured to not list the contents of this directory.. It's clear that for whatever reason, ASP.NET routing is not working correctly. Things I've already thought of and tried: Verified that all IIS features are enabled in "Turn Windows features on or off". Verified that the default website is configured to use .NET 4.0 Reassigned ASP.NET v4 scripmaps via aspnet_regiis -i in the v4.0.30319 directory. Here's the most amazing part - this is on a just-built machine. New copy of Windows 7 x64 Ultimate, clean install of Visual Studio 2010 Premium, no other websites and no other work performed. Anything else I can try?

    Read the article

  • close long poll connection, jQuery-ajax

    - by MyGGaN
    Background I use a Tornado-like server with support for long-polls. Each web pages a user clicks around to sets up a long poll to the server like this: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: "/mylongpollurl/", dataType: 'application/json', success: function(json) { // I do stuff here }, error: function(xhr, errText, ex) { // If timeout I send a new long-poll request } }); Problem I will now rely on data that I get from Fiddler monitoring all requests made from my browser (FF at the moment). Page 1 is loaded and the long poll request is made, now idling at server side. I click a link to page 2 and that page is loaded and setting up a long poll request, BUT the long poll request from page 1 is still idling at server side (according to Fiddler). This means that I will stack all long poll calls when clicking around the page, thus end up with lots of active connections on the server (or are they maybe sharing connection?) My thoughts - As it's a Tornado-like server (using epoll) it can handle quite a lot of connections. But this fact is not to exploit in my opinion. What I mean is that I prefer not to have a timeout on the server for this case (were the client disappears). - I know those stand alone pages better uses a common head and only swap content via ajax calls but this design we use today was not my call... - The best way to solve this would probably be to have the connection reused (hard to pull off I think) or closed as soon as the browser leaves the page (you click to another page). Thanks -- MyGGaN

    Read the article

  • Listview of items from a object selected in another listview

    - by Ingó Vals
    Ok the title maybe a little confusing. I have a database with the table Companies wich has one-to-many relotionship with another table Divisions ( so each company can have many divisions ) and division will have many employees. I have a ListView of the companies. What I wan't is that when I choose a company from the ListView another ListView of divisions within that company appears below it. Then I pick a division and another listview of employees within that division appaers below that. You get the picture. Is there anyway to do this mostly inside the XAML code declaritively (sp?). I'm using linq so the Company entity objects have a property named Division wich if I understand linq correctly should include Division objects of the divisions connected to the company. So after getting all the companies and putting them as a itemsource to CompanyListView this is where I currently am. <ListView x:Name="CompanyListView" DisplayMemberPath="CompanyName" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0" /> <ListView DataContext="{Binding ElementName=CompanyListView, Path=SelectedItem}" DisplayMemberPath="Division.DivisionName" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" /> I know I'm way off but I was hoping by putting something specific in the DataContext and DisplayMemberPath I could get this to work. If not then I have to capture the Id of the company I guess and capture a select event or something. Another issue but related is the in the seconde column besides the lisview I wan't to have a details/edit view for the selected item. So when only a company is selected details about that will appear then when a division under the company is picked It will go there instead, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Need to override drawrect if your UIView is merely a container?

    - by Greg Maletic
    According to Apple's docs, "Subclasses need not override -[UIView drawRect:] if the subclass is a container for other views." I have a custom UIView subclass that is indeed merely a container for other views. Yet the contained views aren't getting drawn. Here's the pertinent code that sets up the custom UIView subclass: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { // Consists of both an "on" light and an "off" light. We flick between the two depending upon our state. self.onLight = [[[LoyaltyCardNumberView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; self.onLight.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; self.onLight.on = YES; [self addSubview:self.onLight]; self.offLight = [[[LoyaltyCardNumberView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; self.offLight.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; self.offLight.on = NO; [self addSubview:self.offLight]; self.on = NO; } return self; } When I run the code that displays this custom UIView, nothing shows up. But when I add a drawRect method... - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { [self.onLight drawRect:rect]; [self.offLight drawRect:rect]; } ...the subviews display. (Clearly, this isn't the right way to be doing this, not only because it's contrary to what the docs say, but because it -always- displays both subviews, completely ignoring some other code in my UIView that sets the hidden property of one of the views, it ignores the z-ordering, etc.) Anyway, the main question: why don't my subviews display when I'm not overriding drawRect:? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Undefined control sequence

    - by Jelle Fresen
    Hi, I am making my Master's Thesis with LaTeX, but I can't get the provided style to work. Specifically, I get the error 'Undefined control sequence' when using the function makeformaltitlepages, which is defined in mscthesis.sty. On the internet, the only answer I could find is the straightforward 'you probably made a typo', or 'you probably forgot to include the package', but I have reason to believe neither of those apply to me. I am quite sure that the function exists, for when I add a little verification, using the @ifundefined command, the logfile shows that the function actually does exist. And, as can be seen in the following piece of code, I also include the package: \usepackage{mscthesis} % setup information like author, company, title, etc. \begin{document} \formatmatter \thispagestyle{empty} \maketitle \makeatletter \@ifundefined{makeformaltitlepages}{\message{Function is not defined.}}{\message{Function is defined.}} \makeatother \makeformaltitlepages{\input{abstract}} % add chapters, sections, etc. and end the document Now, the output shows the line "Function is defined." just before the output of maketitle (which I think is rather strange on its own, but that might be a flushing issue), followed by the following infinitely repeated error (well, cut off after 100 times by LaTeX): Function is defined. // some gibberish about font info ! Undefined control sequence. \GenericError ... #4 \errhelp \@err@ ... l.112 \makeformaltitlepages{} The control sequence at the end of the top line of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have misspelled it (e.g., `\hobx'), type `I' and the correct spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue, and I'll forget about whatever was undefined. While the error keeps repeating, the line that starts with '#4' cycles between the following four lines: #4 \errhelp \@err@ ... \let \@err@ ... \@empty \def \MessageBreak... \endgroup Ok, so, do any of you have a suggestion of how I might continue to hunt this bug? Or what blatantly obvious mistake did I make?

    Read the article

  • Do SEO-friendly URLs really affect a page's ranking?

    - by Lee Harold
    SEO-friendly URLs are all the rage these days. But do they actually have a meaningful impact on a page's ranking in Google and other search engines? If so, why? If not, why not? (Note that I would absolutely agree that SEO-friendly URLs are nicer to use for human beings. My question is whether they actually make a difference to the ranking algorithms.) Update: As it turns out, the Google post that endorphine points to here has caused tremendous confusion in the SEO community. For a sampling of the discussion, see here, here, and here. Part of the problem is that the Google post is addressing the worst case where URL rewriting is done poorly and so you'd be better off sticking with a dynamic URL rather than a mangled static "SEO-friendly" URL. There's no question dynamic URLs can be crawled by Google and can achieve high rankings. Maybe it would be easier to reframe the question more concretely: given 2 otherwise equivalent pages, which will rank higher for the search "do seo friendly urls really affect page ranking"? A) http://stackoverflow.com/questions/505793/do-seo-friendly-urls-really-affect-a-pages-ranking or B) http://stackoverflow.com?question=505793 (a fake URL for comparison only)

    Read the article

  • android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON doesn't work as a receiver intent filter

    - by Jim Blackler
    I'm trying to get a BroadcastReceiver invoked when the screen is turned on. In my AndroidManifest.xml I have specified : <receiver android:name="IntentReceiver"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON"></action> </intent-filter> </receiver> However it seems the receiver is never invoked (breakpoints don't fire, log statements ignored). I've swapped out SCREEN_ON for BOOT_COMPLETED for a test, and this does get invoked. This is in a 1.6 (SDK level 4) project. A Google Code Search revealed this, I downloaded the project and synced it, converted it to work with latest tools, but it too is not able to intercept that event. http://www.google.com/codesearch/p?hl=en#_8L9bayv7qE/trunk/phxandroid-intent-query/AndroidManifest.xml&q=android.intent.action.SCREEN_ON Is this perhaps no longer supported? Previously I have been able to intercept this event successfully with a call to Context.registerReceiver() like so registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { // ... } }, new IntentFilter(Intent.ACTION_SCREEN_ON)); However this was performed by a long-living Service. Following sage advice from CommonsWare I have elected to try to remove the long-living Service and use different techniques. But I still need to detect the screen off and on events.

    Read the article

  • Mixed surrogate composite key insert in JPA 2.0, PostgreSQL and Hibernate 3.5

    - by Gerald
    First off, we are using JPA 2.0 and Hibernate 3.5 as persistence provider on a PostgreSQL database. We successfully use the sequence of the database via the JPA 2.0 annotations as an auto-generated value for single-field-surrogate-keys and all works fine. Now we are implementing a bi-temporal database-scheme that requires a mixed key in the following manner: Table 1: id (pk, integer, auto-generated-sequence) validTimeBegin (pk, dateTime) validTimeEnd (dateTime) firstName (varChar) Now we have a problem. You see, if we INSERT a new element, the field id is auto-generated and that's fine. Only, if we want to UPDATE the field within this scheme, then we have to change the validTimeBegin column WITHOUT changing the id-field and insert it as a new row like so: BEFORE THE UPDATE OF THE ROW: |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | NULL | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| AFTER THE UPDATE OF THE ROW happening at exactly 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 server-time: (we update the person with the id:1 to reflect his new first name...) |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | NULL | Jerry | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| So our problem is, that this doesn't work at all using an auto-generated-sequence for the field id because when inserting a new row then the id ALWAYS is auto-generated although it really is part of a composite key which should sometimes behave differently. So my question is: Is there a way to tell hibernate via JPA to stop auto-generating the id-field in the case I want to generate a new variety of the same person and go on as usual in every other case or do I have to take over the whole id-generation with custom code? Thanks in advance, Gerald

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 "Generate Database from Model" to SQLEXPRESS mdf results in "Could not locate ent

    - by InfinitiesLoop
    I'm using Visual Studio 2010 RTM. I want to do model-first, so I started a new MVC app and added a new blank edmx. Created a few entities. No problem. Then I "Generate Database from Model", and allow the dialog to create a new database for me, which it does successfully as 'mydatabase.mdf' in the app's App_Data directory. Then I open the generated sql file (in Visual Studio). To run it of course I have to give it a connection. I am not sure if it's right, but I used '.\SQLEXPRESS' and Windows authentication. No idea how I'd tell it where the MDF is. Then the problem -- upon executing it, I get: Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'mydatabase'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. And indeed there were no tables created in the MDF. So... what am I doing wrong, or am I off my rocker expecting this to work? :)

    Read the article

  • WPF derived ComboBox SelectedValuePath issue

    - by opedog
    In our application we have a very large set of data that acts as our data dictionary for ComboBox lists, etc. This data is staticly cached and keyed off of 2 variables, so I thought it wise to write a control that derived from ComboBox and exposed the 2 keys as DPs. When those 2 keys have proper values I set the ItemsSource of the ComboBox automatically from the data dictionary list it corresponds to. I also automatically set the SelectedValuePath and DisplayMemberPath to Code and Description, respectively. Here's how an example of how an item in the ItemsSource from the data dictionary list always looks: public class DataDictionaryItem { public string Code { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public string Code3 { get { return this.Get.Substring(0, 3); } } } The value of Code is always 4 bytes long, but sometimes I only need to bind 3 bytes of it. Hence, the Code3 property. Here's how the code looks inside my custom combobox to set the ItemsSource: private static void SetItemsSource(CustomComboBox combo) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(combo.Key1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(combo.Key2)) { combo.ItemsSource = null; return; } List<DataDictionaryItem> list = GetDataDictionaryList(combo.Key1, combo.Key2); combo.ItemsSource = list; } Now, my problem is, when I change the SelectedValuePath in the XAML to Code3, it doesn't work. What I bind to SelectedValue still gets the full 4 character Code from DataDictionaryItem. I even tried rerunning SetItemsSource when the SelectedValuePath was changed and no dice. Can anyone see what I need to do to get my custom combobox to wake up and use the SelectedValuePath provided if it's overridden in the XAML? Tweaking the value in the property setter in my SelectedValue bound business object is not an option.

    Read the article

  • how to tackle this combinatorial algorithm problem

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I have N people who must each take T exams. Each exam takes "some" time, e.g. 30 min (no such thing as finishing early). Exams must be performed in front of an examiner. I need to schedule each person to take each exam in front of an examiner within an overall time period, using the minimum number of examiners for the minimum amount of time (i.e. no examiners idle) There are the following restrictions: No person can be in 2 places at once each person must take each exam once noone should be examined by the same examiner twice I realise that an optimal solution is probably NP-Complete, and that I'm probably best off using a genetic algorithm to obtain a best estimate (similar to this? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/184195/seating-plan-software-recommendations-does-such-a-beast-even-exist). I'm comfortable with how genetic algorithms work, what i'm struggling with is how to model the problem programatically such that i CAN manipulate the parameters genetically.. If each exam took the same amount of time, then i'd divide the time period up into these lengths, and simply create a matrix of time slots vs examiners and drop the candidates in. However because the times of each test are not necessarily the same, i'm a bit lost on how to approach this. currently im doing this: make a list of all "tests" which need to take place, between every candidate and exam start with as many examiners as there are tests repeatedly loop over all examiners, for each one: find an unscheduled test which is eligible for the examiner (based on the restrictions) continue until all tests that can be scheduled, are if there are any unscheduled tests, increment the number of examiners and start again. i'm looking for better suggestions on how to approach this, as it feels rather crude currently.

    Read the article

  • Getting data from UITableView

    - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi
    Hi, I have a few custom UITableViewCells - http://img11.imageshack.us/i/customfacilitiescell.png/ which are added to this UIViewController - http://img189.imageshack.us/i/facilitycontroller.png/ Now, on clicking a button in the controller, I'd like to get the on/off status of all the UISwitches in the controller. Thanks, Teja Edit: I've made a few edits, but I still can't figure out how to do this. My program structure currently - A CustomCell.xib that looks like this - http://img11.imageshack.us/i/customfacilitiescell.png/ A CustomCellController that a subclass of UITableViewCell that has the IBOutlets for the labels and switches from above. Now I have a UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate> (Say, Screen1Controller) which looks like - http://img189.imageshack.us/i/facilitycontroller.png/ The tableviewcell is being created like this - - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *Id= @"CustomFacilitiesCell"; CustomFacilitiesCellController *cell = (CustomFacilitiesCellController *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:Id]; if(cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomFacilitiesCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) { if([oneObject isKindOfClass:[CustomFacilitiesCellController class]]) cell = (CustomFacilitiesCellController *) oneObject; } } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; CustomFacilitiesCellController *rowData = (CustomFacilitiesCellController *)[self.facilities objectAtIndex:row]; cell.facname.text = rowData.facname.text; cell.FacID.text = rowData.FacID.text; cell.facSwitch = [(CustomFacilitiesCellController *)rowData facSwitch]; UISwitch *temp = cell.facSwitch; [(UISwitch *)[cell facSwitch] addTarget:self action:@selector(facSwitchOptionChanged:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; cell.facSwitch.on = NO; //cell.facSwitch.enabled = FALSE; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; return cell; } - (IBAction) facSwitchOptionChanged:(id) sender { int i=0; } In particular, my problem is that the facSwitchOptionChanged() isn't getting called. Thanks again for the help, Teja.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC in a subfolder (only) on godaddy

    - by Anthony Potts
    Okay, I have read many of the routing posts concerning putting asp.net mvc on godaddy. However, I have not come to a solution to my current problem. I am trying to publish an ASP.NET MVC application to a subfolder on godaddy. I have upgraded the account to use IIS 7 and I have included the MVC dlls in \bin\ deployment method. However, I suspect that my route is not correct. Currently, my routes are set up with the standard out of the box route: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I have a subdomain set up so that it looks like office.domain.com. The subdomain is pointing at a folder "/office/" which is right off the root folder. (There is not an MVC application installed in the root folder). All of my application has been placed in this 'office' folder. When I hover over the links however, the 'office' portion shows up in the link as well. e.g. Hovering over a link to the customer controller, index action yields "office.domain.com/office/Customer" as the target. This link then gets a 404 when I attempt to go to it. What should my route be to fix this? Is there something I have neglected in setting up the subdomain in godaddy? Is this something I just can't do in godaddy's domain management "tool". Do I need to set up a virtual directory for this instead of just a directory? Update: I changed the IIS settings in godaddy to use integrated pipeline mode, per this discussion and I am no longer getting 404 errors. The application worked just fine as suggested it would.

    Read the article

  • asp.net ajax control toolkit combobox displays incorectly when in fieldset with style of position:re

    - by Jon P
    I currently have an Instance of the ASP.net ajax control toolkit combo box residing in a field set with a style of position:releative applied. The control also sits in a very plain table (please no comments about using tables for lay-out, I know it is evil and try to avoid it). There are two problems with the display of the list: The list does not sit flush with the text box. In I.E. 7 (which is the majority of my target audience, intranet where IE7 is the company standard) the list display about 10px below the fieldset, which is what the bottom margin of the fieldset is set to. In FF 2.0 the list sits sinificantly lower and off-set to the right. Below the filed set there is more content in a div, also with a style of position:relative applied. The list from the combo box displays behind the content of this div, which is obviouly an issue. Removing position:releative from the fieldset resolves the display issue of the combo box, but results in other unwanted display side effects. My interim workaround is to specifically restyle this fieldset without the position:absolute style, but I'm hoping for a better solution. Thanks

    Read the article

  • UISearchBar and UINavigationItem

    - by tbehunin
    I can't seem to get a UISearchBar to position itself from the far left to the far right in the navigation bar. In the -(void)viewDidLoad method, I have the following code: `UISearchBar *sb = [[UISearchBar alloc] initWithFrame:self.tableView.tableHeaderView.frame]; sb.delegate = self; self.navigationItem.titleView = sb; [sb sizeToFit]; [sb release];` When you build and run, it looks just fine at first glance. However, looking more closely, you can tell there is a margin/space on the left. This wouldn't be a big deal in the grand scheme of things, but when I tap the search bar to start a search, I animate the cancel button into view. Because the search bar is positioned slightly to the right, the animation is jerky and the cancel button falls off the end like so: link text It seems as if the UINavigationItem is like a table with three cells, where there is a padding on the first and last which I can't remove - nor does there seem to be a way to 'merge' it all together and then place the search bar there. I know this look is possible, because the AppStore search has a search bar in the navigation bar and it goes all the way to the edges. Anyone know how to get the search bar to go all the way to the edges so my slide-in cancel button animation will work properly?

    Read the article

  • Can somebody explain the differences, status and future of the various ASP.NET AJAX libraries and to

    - by tjrobinson
    I'm confused about the differences and relationships between the various Microsoft ASP.NET AJAX components/libraries/toolkits and particularly the naming of them. It starts off relatively simple with ASP.NET AJAX itself: ASP.NET AJAX 1.0 (available for ASP.NET 2.0 in a separate package called ASP.NET 1.0 Extensions) ASP.NET AJAX 3.5 (included with ASP.NET 3.5) ASP.NET AJAX 4.0 (included with ASP.NET 4.0) Then come the various projects on CodePlex and elsewhere: ASP.NET AJAX Control Toolkit (aka Original Ajax Control Toolkit) Samples CodePlex It seems that the September 2009 Release is the final release of the Original Ajax Control Toolkit and that it's been superseded by... Ajax Control Toolkit in ASP.NET Ajax Library It looks like the old ASP.NET AJAX Control Toolkit has now become part of a larger ASP.NET Ajax Library but is still maintained seperately on CodePlex. This release is in beta at time of writing so presumably if I want to use the "Control Toolkit" I should stick with the September 2009 Release of the Original ASP.NET AJAX Control Toolkit CodePlex Microsoft Ajax Library Preview Is this the same as the ASP.NET Ajax Library mentioned above just with a confusing name variation? Is the "Control Toolkit" included in Preview 6 and is it older newer or older than the code in Ajax Control Toolkit in ASP.NET Ajax Library? CodePlex Microsoft ASP.NET Ajax Wiki - note the inconsistent insertion of ASP.NET into the name Links to useful articles, roadmaps would be useful.

    Read the article

  • How do you set tab view to scroll?

    - by DrogoNevets
    I have managed to set up a tabbed view for my app (woo!) and have the following xml for the UI <TabHost xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/tabhost" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:padding="5dp"> <TabWidget android:id="@android:id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <FrameLayout android:id="@android:id/tabcontent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </LinearLayout> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <Spinner android:id="@+id/areaSpinner" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/one_row" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/cragSpinner" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/one_row" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/routeSpinner" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/one_row" /> <DatePicker android:id="@+id/dateClimbed" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/styleSpinner" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/one_row" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/detailsSpinner" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/one_row" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/climbNotes" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="@dimen/three_row" /> </LinearLayout> yet am seemingly unable to scroll down to see the rest of the form (cuts off at one of the spinners, why is this? and how do i fix it?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Autocomplete using extraParams to pass additional GET variables

    - by paperclip
    I am referring specifically to the jQuery Autocomplete v1.1 plugin by Jörn Zaefferer [source: http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-autocomplete/] as there seems to be quite a few variations of this plugin. I'm trying to pass additional parameters to the server when the user starts typing because I have multiple fields that I want autocomplete to provide suggestions for. In addition to the query, I want to send the input name attribute to the server but I can't seem to use $(this).attr('name') within the extraParams. My jQuery: $('.ajax-auto input').autocomplete('search.php', { extraParams: { search_type: function(){ return $(this).attr('name'); } } }) This is my HTML. <form method="post" action="#" id="update-form" autocomplete="off"> <ol> <li class="ajax-auto"> <label for="form-initials">Initials</label> <input type="text" id="form-initials" name="initials" /> </li> <li class="ajax-auto"> <label for="form-company">Company</label> <input type="text" id="form-company" name="company" /> </li> </ol> </form> Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Ajax call - Set variable value on success.

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I have an application that I am writing that modifies data on a cached object in the server. The modifications are performed through an ajax call that basically updates properties of that object. When the user is done working, I have a basic 'Save Changes' button that allows them to Save the data and flush the cached object. In order to protect the user, I want to warn them if the try to navigate away from the page when modifications have been made to the server object if they have not saved. So, I created a web service method called IsInitialized that will return true or false based on whether or not changes have been saved. If they have not been saved, I want to prompt the user and give them a chance to cancel their navigation request. Here's my problem - although I have the calls working correctly, I can't seem to get the ajax success call to set the variable value on its callback function. Here's the code I have now. ////Catches the users to keep them from navigation off the page w/o saved changes... window.onbeforeunload = CheckSaveStatus; var IsInitialized; function CheckSaveStatus() { var temp = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "URL.asmx/CheckIfInstanceIsInitilized", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(result) { IsInitialized = result.d; }, error: function(xmlHttpRequest, status, err) { alert(xmlHttpRequest.statusText + " " + xmlHttpRequest.status + " : " + xmlHttpRequest.responseText); } }); if (IsInitialized) { return "You currently have unprocessed changes for this Simulation."; } } I feel that I might be trying to use the Success callback in an inappropriate manner. How do I set a javascript variable on the Success callback so that I can decide whether or not the user should be prompted w/ the unsaved changes message? As was just pointed out, I am making an asynchronous call, which means the rest of the code gets called before my method returns. Is there a way to use that ajax call, but still catch the window.onunload event? (without making synchronos ajax)

    Read the article

  • Self hosted WCF ServiceHost/WebServiceHost Concurrency/Peformance Design Options (.NET 3.5)

    - by Kyle
    So I'll be providing a few functions via a self hosted (in a WindowsService) WebServiceHost (not sure how to process HTTP GET/POST with ServiceHost), one of which may be called a large amount of the time. This function will also rely on a connection in the appdomain (hosted by the WindowsService so it can stay alive over multiple requests). I have the following concerns and would be oh so thankful for any input/thoughts/comments: Concurrent access - how does the WebServiceHost handle a bunch of concurrent requests. Are they queued and processes sequentially or are new instances of the contracts automagically created? WebServiceHost - WindowsService communication - I need some form of communication from the WebServiceHost to the hosting WindowsService for things like requesting a new session if one does not exist. Perhaps implementing a class which extends the WebServiceHost with events which the WindowsService subscribes to... (unless there is another way I can set off an event in the WindowsService when a request is made...) Multiple WebServiceHosts or Contracts - Would it give any real performance gain to be running multiple WebServiceHost instances in different threads (one per endpoint perhaps?) - A better understanding of the first point would probably help here. WSDL - I'm not sure why (probably just need to do more reading), but I'm not sure how to get the WebServiceHost base endpoint to respond with a WDSL document describing the available contract. Not required as all the operations will be done via GET requests which will not likely change, but it would be nice to have... That's about it for the moment ;) I've been reading a lot on WCF and wish I'd gotten into it long ago, but definitely still learning.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >