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  • jQuery $(document).ready and UpdatePanels?

    - by Herb Caudill
    I'm using jQuery to wire up some mouseover effects on elements that are inside an UpdatePanel. The events are bound in $(document).ready . For example: $(function() { $('div._Foo').bind("mouseover", function(e) { // Do something exciting }); }); Of course, this works fine the first time the page is loaded, but when the UpdatePanel does a partial page update, it's not run and the mouseover effects don't work any more inside the UpdatePanel. What's the recommended approach for wiring stuff up in jQuery not only on the first page load, but every time an UpdatePanel fires a partial page update? Should I be using the ASP.NET ajax lifecycle instead of $(document).ready?

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  • Using *.html extension in dynamic URL's for SEO

    - by lostaman
    Hi all My situation is. I have a project planned to be built on ASP.NET MVC 2. And one of the major requirements is SEO optimization. A customer wants to use static-like URLs that end up with .html extension for this project that make URLs more SEO friendly. E.g. "mysite.com/about.html " or "mysite.com/items/getitem/5.html" etc. I wonder is there any benefit from SEO perspective to use .html extension in dynamic URLs? Are Google and other search engines rank work better with such URLs?

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  • c# how to add smtp hotmail account to send mail

    - by leventkalayz
    I wrote some codes so as to send e mail but I can only send mail from gmail account to gmail account also, I want to use hotmail accounts how can i do it? thanks It is SmtpClient SmtpServer = new SmtpClient("smtp.gmail.com"); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Test Mail - 1"; mail.IsBodyHtml = true; string htmlBody; htmlBody = "Write some HTML code here"; mail.Body = htmlBody; SmtpServer.Port = 587; SmtpServer.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "mypassword"); SmtpServer.EnableSsl = true; SmtpServer.Send(mail);

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  • Web service URL being overwritten with localhost

    - by Jay Heavner
    I have a reference to a web service on a remote server like such... http://10.5.1.121/PersonifyWebServicePPROD/UniversalWebService/default.wsdl The moment I invoke the web service and view its URL property it looks like... http://localhost/PersonifyWebServicePPROD/UniversalWebService/default.asmx Can anyone tell me why it's overwriting the remote server with localhost? The vendor that provided the web service said I have to reference the wsdl and not the asmx in order for it to work. I've tried running it both within IIS and as a web app on the filesystem and neither scenario work. This is on the .Net 3.5 framework.

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  • User.Identity.Name returning NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE i want Domain\USER

    - by Jalvemo
    in my asp.net MVC project i have an database connection with connectionstring: Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=dbname;Integrated Security=True All users can execute Stored Procedures on that connection and i want to log those users. so after each execution I store "User.Identity.Name" to another database. This work great on my development machine but after deployment, to access the site i have to go through a VPN-connention and then remote desktop to the same server that the IIS is running on and use a web-browser there. Then i get User.Identity.Name: "NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE". i would expect it to be the credentials i entered in remote desktop that have access to the database. any idea how i can get this to work? iis6 authentication: "windows authentication: enabled" web.config:

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  • Errors not being redirected to an Http handler if redirectMode="ResponseRewrite"

    - by Luk
    I see similar questions, but it looks like there were due to an unrelated issue. in 3.5, I have a custom error handler that logs errors and redirects users. My web.config is set up as such: <httpHandlers> <add path="error.ashx" type="MySite.Tools.WebErrorLogger, MySite.Tools" verb="*"/> </httpHandlers> <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="error.ashx" redirectMode="ResponseRewrite"> </customErrors> When redirectMode is set to "ResponseRedirect", everything works fine (but Server.GetLastError() being null but that seems to be intended) However, when using ResponseRewrite, my handler is not called and I see ASP.Net default error pages. Any idea on how I could do this? (I unfortunately can't use either an aspx page or do my error handling in global.asax due to other constraints)

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  • Using Lambda Statements for Event Handlers

    - by lush
    I currently have a page which is declared as follows: public partial class MyPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //snip MyButton.Click += (o, i) => { //snip } } } I've only recently moved to .NET 3.5 from 1.1, so I'm used to writing event handlers outside of the Page_Load. My question is; are there any performance drawbacks or pitfalls I should watch out for when using the lambda method for this? I prefer it, as it's certainly more concise, but I do not want to sacrifice performance to use it. Thanks.

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  • Possible to have empty values with Html For Helpers such as Html.TextBoxFor()?

    - by chobo2
    Hi Is it possible to have to make a html for helper in asp.net mvc 2.0 have a default value of "empty string" Like if I do this Html.TextBoxFor( u => u.ProductName) would render to <input id ="ProductName" name="ProdcutName" type="text" value="Jim" /> Now I don't want the textbox to display jim. I want it to display nothing. <input id ="ProductName" name="ProdcutName" type="text" value="" /> I tried to do this Html.TextBoxFor( u => u.ProductName, new { @value = " "}) but that seems to do nothing. So how can I do this. I hope you can do something like this otherwise I think these new helpers have a great flaw since now I need to use like javascript to remove them since I hardly ever want a default value in the textbox especially when I have a label right beside the textbox saying what it is.

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  • How would I initialize these two lists so that modifying one doesn't modify the other?

    - by Brandon
    I'm aware of why this is happening, but is there any way to do this without having to implement ICloneable or a Copy() method? Preferably .net 2.0, but 3.5 is fine if it is necessary. Essentially I'm trying to implement an undo method. In most cases I can just perform the reverse action in the Undo(), but for others that is not possible. So I want to keep two lists. One for the list of items that I will be modifying, and one for the original, unmodified list of items. This way if I need to do an undo, I just delete the modified items and replace them with the originals. Most of the ways I've tried to assign the _originalItems variable doesn't work, so what would I need to do? public MyClass(List<SelectedItems> selectedItems) { _selectedItems = new List<SelectedItems>(selectedItems); _originalItems = ?? }

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  • Best strategy for HTML parcial rendering based on multiple dropdown values

    - by pv2008
    I have a View that renders something like this: "Item 1" and "Item 2" are <tr> elements from a table. After the user change "Value 1" or "Value 2" I would like to call a Controller and put the result (some HTML snippet) in the div marked as "Result of...". I have some vague notions of JQuery. I know how to bind to the onchage event of the Select element, and call the $.ajax() function, for example. But I wonder if this can be achieved in a more efficient way in ASP.NET MVC2.

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  • MVC way of handling data input

    - by korki
    I have a data input module where I add the information of my product and its sub information like: product basic info product price info product price details price info and price details are related to product and are lists In my web forms approach I would store my main product object on the view state and I would populate it's pricing info and details while doing ajax postbacks. This way I can create a compact module that is very user friendly in terms of defining a lot of data from one place without the need to enter these data from seperate modules. And when I am done I would do one product.save() and that would persist all the data to the respective tables on db. Now I am building similar app on .net mvc framework and pondering on what would be the good way of handling this on mvc. I don't resonate towards storing all this on client side till I click save. And saving to the db after each action makes me remember the days I was coding on asp. Will appreciate your inputs on ways to approach this on mvc framework

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  • Can I run multiple websites under a single membership database?

    - by higgsy
    Hi all, I'm trying to plan a series of websites that all share many of the resources such as css/jscript/images/content etc. For this reason I wanted to run all of the websites under the same application and IIS profile, but depending on the URL being used change the masterpage and theme/skin. The ASP.NET membership database seems as if it was designed with this goal in mind because it allows you to setup multiple applications, however I believe the purpose for which this was built was to allow applications to be run under virtual directories/fodlers, not on seperate urls. Is it possible to map a url to a particular application? Thanks in advance Al

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  • CSS file not getting downloaded in Visual Studio 2008 SP?

    - by theraneman
    Hi guys, This might sound a little wierd, but all of a sudden the CSS and Javascript files referenced in my master page are not being downloaded while the page is being rendered. I am working on a ASP.NET MVC project and things were all fine like half an hour ago! Here is what I have in head section of the master page, <link href="/Content/MyCSS.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> I can see the CSS class intellisense while designing pages. But in the page source I do not see these files being added. I can see the css being applied in the VS designer. I have tried restarting VS, restarting my machine too. Anyone else faced this situation before. I might go crazy now.

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  • Is possible to set generic type by another class?

    - by Soul_Master
    I use ASP.NET MVC for serving web application and I want to create something like the following code. <% using(HTML.Form(Model)) { %> <% HTML.CreateTextBox('txt1', x => x.Property1); <% } From the above code, Form extension method will receive object that represent type of current Model object in current View page. Next, CreateTextBox method will receive type from Form method and I can bind textbox to some property of this model. Update 1 The following code is code of CreateTextBox method that will create instance of TextBox class. public static CreateTextBox(string value, Expression<Func<object>> bindedProperty) { // T should be receive from HTML.Form method or class return new TextBox<T>(value); } Is it possible to creating some code that doing something like the above code? Thanks,

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  • Viewstate seems to be hijacked inadvertently

    - by dvr
    Hi, we are using asp.net 2.x, we use session state stored in sql server, 2 web servers in loadbalance, iis6. our issue is that in the last 3 months we have had 2 cases where some one using our enquiry form has seen someone else's info e.g. first name and last name. We are not populating the form from objects in session so I have come to the conclusion that the second user has somehow received the viewstate from the first user, after that user has tried to submit and got an error e.g. has posted view state and returned the the same page and the other user has requested that page at the same time (must have been on the same server I am guessing if it is a viewstate issue). have any of you experienced this before? some questions mulling around in my head is how does the worker process know to retun view state to a unique request and how does it determine a unique request etc..

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  • Apply CSS class to invalid controls on web form

    - by user137639
    I need to apply a css class to invalid controls on a web form. I'd like to make it a resusable class. This is what I have so far: public class Validation { public static void ApplyInvalidClass(Page page, string className) { foreach (System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator bv in page.Validators) { if (!bv.IsValid) { Control ctrl = page.FindControl(bv.ControlToValidate); if (ctrl != null) { if (ctrl is TextBox) { TextBox txt = ctrl as TextBox; txt.CssClass = "invalid"; } if (ctrl is DropDownList) { DropDownList ddl = ctrl as DropDownList; ddl.CssClass = "invalid"; } if (ctrl is CheckBox) { CheckBox cb = ctrl as CheckBox; cb.CssClass = "invalid"; } if (ctrl is HtmlGenericControl) { HtmlGenericControl html = ctrl as HtmlGenericControl; html.Attributes.Add("class", className); } } } } } } The problem is what I call this on a .Net user control, I guess because I'm passing in Page, page.FindControl(bv.ControlToValidate) is always null. Is there a better way to do this?

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  • What would be the best approach for this?

    - by chobo
    I have a site which has an area that requires authentication. Right now I use the roles attribute on all the controllers in that area, and I run a query to retrieve that users ID, and all their settings. It seems like a code or design smell to me that I am retrieving the userid and settings each time a controller in that area loads up? I'm not sure if I should be using sessions, or if ASP.Net MVC 2.0 provides some unique way to handle this. Another concern is security. Overall, I don't really know which way to turn. Design wise I would like the userId and settings retrieved only once when the user logs into the area. Right now I grab the userId each time a controller loads up, and then if required, I query the database for their settings each time as well.

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  • Wrap Sub as Function for use in Lambda

    - by Luhmann
    I have a problem with VB and Moq. I need to call a verify on a Sub. Like so: logger.Verify(Function(x) x.Log, Times.AtLeastOnce) And my logger looks like this: Public Interface ILogger Sub Log() End Interface But with VB this is not possible, because the Log method is a Sub, and thereby does not produce a value. I don't want to change the method to be a function. Whats the cleanest way of working around this limitation and is there any way to wrap the Sub as a Function like the below? logger.Verify(Function(x) ToFunc(AddressOf x.Log)) I have tried this, but i get: Lambda Parameter not in scope

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  • Field annotated multiple times by the same attribute

    - by Jaroslaw Waliszko
    For my ASP.NET MVC application I've created custom validation attribute, and indicated that more than one instance of it can be specified for a single field or property: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true)] public sealed class SomeAttribute: ValidationAttribute I've created validator for such an attribute: public class SomeValidator : DataAnnotationsModelValidator<SomeAttribute> and wire up this in the Application_Start of Global.asax DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter( typeof (SomeAttribute), typeof (SomeValidator)); Finally, if I use my attribute in the desired way: [SomeAttribute(...)] //first [SomeAttribute(...)] //second public string SomeField { get; set; } when validation is executed by the framework, only first attribute instance is invoked. Second one seems to be dead. I've noticed that during each request only single validator instance is created (for the first annotation). How to solve this problem and fire all attributes?

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