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  • Building a formset dynamically

    - by vorpyg
    I initially wrote code to build a form dynamically, based on data from the DB, similar to what I described in my previous SO post. As SO user Daniel Roseman points out, he would use a formset for this, and now I've come to the realization that he must be completely right. :) My approach works, basically, but I can't seem to get validation across the entire form to be working properly (I believe it's possible, but it's getting quite complex, and there has to be a smarter way of doing it = Formsets!). So now my question is: How can I build a formset dynamically? Not in an AJAX way, I want each form's label to be populated with an FK value (team) from the DB. As I have a need for passing parameters to the form, I've used this technique from a previous SO post. With the former approach, my view code is (form code in previous link): def render_form(request): teams = Team.objects.filter(game=game) form_collection = [] for team in teams: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, team=team, user=request.user) form_collection.append(f) Now I want to do something like: def render_form(request): teams = Team.objects.filter(game=game) from django.utils.functional import curry from django.forms.formsets import formset_factory formset = formset_factory(SuggestionForm) for team in teams: formset.form.append(staticmethod(curry(SuggestionForm, request.POST or None, team=team, user=request.user))) But the append bit doesn't work. What's the proper way of doing this? Thanks!

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  • Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

    - by Jay Stevens
    We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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  • why won't Eclipse use the compiler I specify for my project?

    - by codeman73
    I'm using Eclipse 3.3. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 5.0 In the build path for the project. I've added the Java 1.5 JDK in the Installed JREs section and am referencing that System Library in my project build path. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 5.0, it instead uses Java 6. Any ideas why? I wrote a similar question earlier, here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2540548/how-do-i-get-eclipse-to-use-a-different-compiler-version-for-java I know how you're supposed to choose a different compiler but it seems Eclipse isn't taking it. It seems to be defaulting to Java 6, even though I have deleted all Java 6 JDKs and JREs that I could find. I've also updated the -vm option in my eclipse.ini to point to the Java5 JDK.

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • How do i make a allocation table?

    - by david
    I have build a grid of div's as playground for some visual experiments. In order to use that grid, i need to know the x and y coordinates of each div. That's why i want to create a table with the X and Y position of each div. X:0 & Y:0 = div:eq(0), X:0 Y:1 = div:eq(1), X:0 Y:2 = div:eq(2), X:0 Y:3 = div:eq(3), X:1 Y:0 = div:eq(4) etc.. What is the best way to do a table like that? Creating a OBJECT like this: { 00: 0, 01: 1, 02: 2, etc.. } or is it better to create a array? position[0][0] = 0 the thing is i need to use the table in multiple way's.. for example the user clicked the div nb: 13 what are the coordinates of this div or what is the eq of the div x: 12 y: 5. Thats how i do it right now: var row = 0 var col = 0 var eq = 0 c.find('div').each(function(i){ // c = $('div#stage') if (i !=0 && $(this).offset().top != $(this).prev().offset().top){ row++ col = 0 } $(this).attr({'row': row, 'col': col }) col++ }) I think it would be faster to build a table with the coordinates, instead of adding them as attr or data to the DOM. but i cant figure out how to do this technically. How would you solve this problem width JS / jQuery?

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  • How to create a JAX-RS service where the sub-resource @Path doesn't have a leading slash

    - by Matt
    I've created a JAX-RS service (MyService) that has a number of sub resources, each of which is a subclass of MySubResource. The sub resource class being chosen is picked based on the parameters given in the MyService path, for example: @Path("/") @Provides({"text/html", "text/xml"}) public class MyResource { @Path("people/{id}") public MySubResource getPeople(@PathParam("id") String id) { return new MyPeopleSubResource(id); } @Path("places/{id}") public MySubResource getPlaces(@PathParam("id") String id) { return new MyPlacesSubResource(id); } } where MyPlacesSubResource and MyPeopleSubResource are both sub-classes of MySubResource. MySubResource is defined as: public abstract class MySubResource { protected abstract Results getResults(); @GET public Results get() { return getResults(); } @GET @Path("xml") public Response getXml() { return Response.ok(getResults(), MediaType.TEXT_XML_TYPE).build(); } @GET @Path("html") public Response getHtml() { return Response.ok(getResults(), MediaType.TEXT_HTML_TYPE).build(); } } Results is processed by corresponding MessageBodyWriters depending on the mimetype of the response. While this works it results in paths like /people/Bob/html or /people/Bob/xml where what I really want is /people/Bob.html or /people/Bob.xml Does anybody know how to accomplish what I want to do?

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  • Error trying to use rand from std library cstdlib with g++

    - by Matt
    I was trying to use the random function in Ubuntu compiling with g++ on a larger program and for some reason rand just gave weird compile errors. For testing purposes I made the simplest program I could and it still gives errors. Program: #include <iostream> using std::cout; using std::endl; #include <cstdlib> int main() { cout << "Random number " << rand(); return 0; } Error when compiling with the terminal sudo g++ chapter_3/tester.cpp ./test ./test: In function _start': /build/buildd/eglibc-2.10.1/csu/../sysdeps/i386/elf/start.S:65: multiple definition of_start' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o:/build/buildd/eglibc-2.10.1/csu/../sysdeps/i386/elf/start.S:65: first defined here ./test:(.rodata+0x0): multiple definition of _fp_hw' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o:(.rodata+0x0): first defined here ./test: In function_fini': (.fini+0x0): multiple definition of _fini' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crti.o:(.fini+0x0): first defined here ./test:(.rodata+0x4): multiple definition of_IO_stdin_used' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o:(.rodata.cst4+0x0): first defined here ./test: In function __data_start': (.data+0x0): multiple definition ofdata_start' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o:(.data+0x0): first defined here ./test: In function __data_start': (.data+0x4): multiple definition of__dso_handle' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/crtbegin.o:(.data+0x0): first defined here ./test: In function main': (.text+0xb4): multiple definition ofmain' /tmp/cceF0x0p.o:tester.cpp:(.text+0x0): first defined here ./test: In function _init': (.init+0x0): multiple definition ofinit' /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crti.o:(.init+0x0): first defined here /usr/lib/gcc/i486-linux-gnu/4.4.1/crtend.o:(.dtors+0x0): multiple definition of `_DTOR_END' ./test:(.dtors+0x4): first defined here /usr/bin/ld: error in ./test(.eh_frame); no .eh_frame_hdr table will be created. collect2: ld returned 1 exit status

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  • Need simple advice for graph solving problem

    - by sap
    Hi there, a collegue of mine proposed to me an exercise from an online judge website, which is basically a graph solving problem of an evacuation plan on a small town. i dont need the answer (nor do i want it) i just need an advice on which is the best approach to solving it since im kinda new to these kind of problems. the problem consists of town buildings with workers and fallout shelters in case of a nuclear attack. i have to build an algorithm that will assign the workers of each building to one or more fallout shelters but in a way that some shelters wont became too overcrowded while others remain almost empty (else i would just make the workers go to the nearest one). the problem is this: http://acm.timus.ru/problem.aspx?space=1&num=1237 in case its offline heres the google cached version of it: http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:t2EPCzezs7AJ:acm.timus.ru/problem.aspx%3Fspace%3D1%26num%3D1237+vladimir+kotov+evacuation+problem&cd=1&hl=pt-PT&ct=clnk&gl=pt what i've done so far is for each building get the nearest shelter and move the number of workers from that build equal to the shelter capacity. then move to the next building. but sometimes the number of workers is greater than the shelter capacity, in that case after i iterate through every building, ill just iterate then again apllying the same algorithm until every building has 0 workers in it, problem is this is hardly the best way to solve it. any tip is welcome, please dont feel like im asking for the answer, i just want an advice in the right direction of solving it. thanks in advance.

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  • What is optimal hardware configuration for heavy load LAMP application

    - by Piotr Kochanski
    I need to run Linux-Apache-PHP-MySQL application (Moodle e-learning platform) for a large number of concurrent users - I am aiming 5000 users. By concurrent I mean that 5000 people should be able to work with the application at the same time. "Work" means not only do database reads but writes as well. The application is not very typical, since it is doing a lot of inserts/updates on the database, so caching techniques are not helping to much. We are using InnoDB storage engine. In addition application is not written with performance in mind. For instance one Apache thread usually occupies about 30-50 MB of RAM. I would be greatful for information what hardware is needed to build scalable configuration that is able to handle this kind of load. We are using right now two HP DLG 380 with two 4 core processors which are able to handle much lower load (typically 300-500 concurrent users). Is it reasonable to invest in this kind of boxes and build cluster using them or is it better to go with some more high-end hardware? I am particularly curious how many and how powerful servers are needed (number of processors/cores, size of RAM) what network equipment should be used (what kind of switches, network cards) any other hardware, like particular disc storage solutions, etc, that are needed Another thing is how to put together everything, that is what is the most optimal architecture. Clustering with MySQL is rather hard (people are complaining about MySQL Cluster, even here on Stackoverflow).

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  • Finding Common Phrases in MS SQL TEXT Column

    - by regex
    Hello All, Short Desc: I'm curious to see if I can use SQL Analysis services or some other MS SQL service to mine some data for me that will show commonalities between SQL TEXT fields in a dataset. Long Desc I am looking at a subset of data that consists of about 10,000 rows of TEXT blobs which are used as a notes column in a issue tracking (ticketing) software. I would like to use something out of the box (without having to build something) that might be able to parse through all of the rows and find commonly used byte sequences in the "Notes" column. In other words, I want to find commonly used phrases (two to three word phrases, so 9 - 20 character sections of the TEXT blob). This will help me better determine if associate's notes contain similar phrases (troubleshooting techniques) that we could standardize in our troubleshooting process flow. Closing Note I'd really rather not build an application to do this as my method will probably not be the most efficient way to do it. Hopefully all this makes sense. Please let me know in the comments if anything needs clarification. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Moving .NET assemblies away from the application base directory?

    - by RasmusKL
    I have a WinForms application with a bunch of third party references. This makes the output folder quite messy. I'd like to place the compiled / referenced dlls into a common subdirectory in the output folder, bin / lib - whatever - and just have the executables (+ needed configs etc) reside in the output folder. After some searching I ran into assembly probing (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/4191fzwb.aspx) - and verified that if I set this up and manually move the assemblies my application will still work if they are stored in the designated subdirectory like so: <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> However, this doesn't solve the build part - is there any way to specify where referenced assemblies and compiled library assemblies go? Only solutions I can think of off the top of my head is either post-build actions or dropping the idea and using ILMerge or something. There has got to be a better way of defining the structure :-)

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  • Installing RestEasy documentation is not clear--does maven install resteasy?

    - by user798719
    3.1. Standalone Resteasy If you are using resteasy outside of JBoss AS 6, you will need to do a few manual steps to install and configure resteasy. RESTeasy is deployed as a WAR archive and thus depends on a Servlet container. We strongly suggest that you use Maven to build your WAR files as RESTEasy is split into a bunch of different modules. You can see an example Maven project in one of the examples in the examples/ directory Also, when you download RESTeasy and unzip it you will see a lib/ directory that contains the libraries needed by resteasy. Copy these into your /WEB-INF/lib directory. Place your JAX-RS annotated class resources and providers within one or more jars within /WEB-INF/lib or your raw class files within /WEB-INF/classes. Hi, is my confusion justified? I am using JBoss 5 unfortunately. Do I need to download RESTeasy and unzip it IF I am using Maven, as the documentation recommends? Maven grabs all the dependencies that are needed to build a project, including the RESTEasy fraemwork, right? So why the contradiction here? Wish that the documentation would anticipate common questions and be written more clearly.

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  • How to suppress/control logging of Wagon-FTP Maven extension?

    - by Vincenzo
    I'm deploying Maven site by FTP, using Wagon-FTP. Works fine, but output is full of FTP connection/authentication details, which effectively expose logins and passwords to everybody (especially if the project is open source and its CI protocols are publicly accessible): [...] [INFO] [INFO] --- maven-site-plugin:3.0-beta-3:deploy (default-deploy) @ rempl --- Reply received: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. 220-Local time is now 09:08. Server port: 21. 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command sent: USER **** Reply received: 331 User **** OK. Password required Command sent: PASS ******** Reply received: 230-User **** has group access to: *** 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / [...] Is it possible to suppress this logging? Or configure it... This is a section of my pom.xml, where Wagon-FTP is used: [...] <build> <extensions> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-7</version> </extension> </extensions> [...] </build> [...]

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  • Different ways to use properties file in j2ee app

    - by Omnipresent
    I have a j2ee app using Struts2. I have a gloabl properties file which is declared in struts.properties which resides in WEB-INF/classes. It has the following setting: struts.custom.i18n.resources=mypropertyfile mypropertyfile also resides in WEB-INF/classes Say for example it contains the following: pdf.test.title=PDF Test then on jsp I use the following to make use of the property file <s:text name="pdf.test.title"/> This setup was working on Sun App server 8.2 but is not working on GlassFish App Server (I see pdf.test.title on the browser rather than PDF Test). I do not have access to GlassFish App server to try and tweak the setting to make it work. So I want to make changes to the code and see if that will help. My question is: What are some other ways to use properties file in a J2EE app? (using Struts2 or not). I'm also open to ways suggested to make changes on glassfish to make this work? Build/version #'s GlassFish = 9.1_02 (build b04-fcs) Struts2 = 2.0.6 JRE6

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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  • Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

    - by David Gutierrez
    Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • How to get current datetime on windows command line, in a suitable format for using in a filename?

    - by Rory
    What's a windows command line statement(s) I can use to get the current datetime in a format that I can put into a filename? I want to have a .bat file that zips up a directory into an archive with the current date & time as part of the name, eg "Code_2008-10-14_2257.zip". Is there any easy way I can do this, independent of the regional settings of the machine? I don't really mind about the date format, ideally it'd be yyyy-mm-dd but anything simple is fine. So far I've got this, which on my machine gives me "Tue_10_14_2008_230050_91" rem Get the datetime in a format that can go in a filename. set _my_datetime=%date%_%time% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime: =_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime::=% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:/=_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:.=_% rem now use the timestamp by in a new zip file name "d:\Program Files\7-Zip\7z.exe" a -r Code_%_my_datetime%.zip Code I can live with this but it seems a bit clunky. Ideally it'd be briefer and have the format mentioned earlier. I'm using Windows Server 2003 and Win XP Pro. I don't want to install additional utilities to achieve this (although I realise there are some that will do nice date formatting).

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  • eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

    - by DragonFax
    example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

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  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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  • How do I use the sed command to remove all lines between 2 phrases (including the phrases themselves

    - by fzkl
    I am generating a log from which I want to remove X startup output which looks like this: X.Org X Server 1.7.6 Release Date: 2010-03-17 X Protocol Version 11, Revision 0 Build Operating System: Linux 2.6.31-607-imx51 armv7l Ubuntu Current Operating System: Linux nvidia 2.6.33.2 #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon May 31 21:38:29 PDT 2010 armv7l Kernel command line: mem=448M@0M nvmem=64M@448M mem=512M@512M chipuid=097c81c6425f70d7 vmalloc=320M video=tegrafb console=ttyS0,57600n8 usbcore.old_scheme_first=1 tegraboot=nand root=/dev/nfs ip=:::::usb0:on rw tegra_ehci_probe_delay=5000 smp dvfs tegrapart=recovery:1b80:a00:800,boot:2680:1000:800,environment:3780:40:800,system:38c0:2bc00:800,cache:2f5c0:4000:800,userdata:336c0:c840:800 envsector=3080 Build Date: 23 April 2010 05:19:26PM xorg-server 2:1.7.6-2ubuntu7 (Bryce Harrington <[email protected]>) Current version of pixman: 0.16.4 Before reporting problems, check http://wiki.x.org to make sure that you have the latest version. Markers: (--) probed, (**) from config file, (==) default setting, (++) from command line, (!!) notice, (II) informational, (WW) warning, (EE) error, (NI) not implemented, (??) unknown. (==) Log file: "/var/log/Xorg.0.log", Time: Wed Jun 16 19:52:00 2010 (==) Using config file: "/etc/X11/xorg.conf" (==) Using config directory: "/usr/lib/X11/xorg.conf.d" Is there any way to do this without manually checking pattern for each line?

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  • In browser trusted application Silverlight 5

    - by Philippe
    With the new Silverlight 5, we can now have a In-Browser elevated-trust application. However, I'm experiencing some problems to deploy the application. When I am testing the application from Visual Studio, everything works fine because it automatically gives every right if the website is hosted on the local machine (localhost, 127.0.0.1). I saw on MSDN that I have to follow 3 steps to make it work on any website: Signed the XAP - I did it following the Microsoft tutorial Install the Trusted publishers certificate store - I did it too following the Microsoft Tutorial Adding a Registry key with the value : AllowElevatedTrustAppsInBrowser. The third step is the one I am the most unsure about. Do we need to add this registry key on the local machine or on the server ? Is there any automatic function in silverlight to add this key or its better to make a batchfile? Even with those 3 steps, the application is still not working when called from another url than localhost. Does anybody has successfully implemented a In-browser elevated-trust application? Do you see what I'm doing wrong? Thank you very much! Philippe, Sources: - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg192793(v=VS.96).aspx - http://pitorque.de/MisterGoodcat/post/Silverlight-5-Tidbits-Trusted-applications.aspx

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  • How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

    - by Bounded
    Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

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  • java annotations - problem with calling a locator class from a Vaadin Project

    - by George
    Hello, I'm not sure how to explain this without writing several pages so I hope the actual code is more expressive. I've made a jar containing multiple annotation declaration similar to the following: @Target(ElementType.PACKAGE) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MarkedPackage { } then I have made a test jar containing several classes in several packages and marked just one package with the above annotation (with package-info.java) like below: @myPackage.MarkedPackage package package.test.jar; this jar had in its build path the jar containing the annotations. then I made a static class that has a method (LoadPlugins) that retrieves a list with all the jars of a directory. Then it searches through the jars for the 'package-info' class and checks if that classes package contains the MarkedPackage annotation. by calling this: if (checkPackageAnnotation(thisClass.getPackage())) where thisClass is the package-info class retrieved via a classloader. and: public static boolean checkPackageAnnotation(AnnotatedElement elem) { System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); if (elem == null || !elem.isAnnotationPresent(MarkedPackage.class)) return false; return true; } the elem.getAnnotatios().length is there for debug purposes. And the problem appears when I call the method from the static class: if I call it from a main function: public class MyMain { public static void main(String[] args){ PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } } everything works perfectly it displays '1' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); But if I call it from a button from my Vaadin project: header.addComponent(new Button("CallThat", new Button.ClickListener() { public void buttonClick(ClickEvent event) { PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } })); It displays '0' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); Also I should mention that I created the main inside my Vaadin project so it would have the exact same build path and resources. Is there a problem with web applications and that "@Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME)" ? hope I was clear enough... Hope someone has a solution for me... If you need more information - let me know. Thank you.

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  • How do I get save (no exclamation point) semantics in an ActiveRecord transaction?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have two models: Person and Address which I'd like to create in a transaction. That is, I want to try to create the Person and, if that succeeds, create the related Address. I would like to use save semantics (return true or false) rather than save! semantics (raise an ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid or not). This doesn't work because the user.save doesn't trigger a rollback on the transaction: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do self.save address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save end end end (Changing the self.save call to an if self.save block around the rest doesn't help, because the Person save still succeeds even when the Address one fails.) And this doesn't work because it raises the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid exception out of the transaction block without triggering an ActiveRecord::Rollback: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do save! address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save! end end end The Rails documentation specifically warns against catching the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid inside the transaction block. I guess my first question is: why isn't this transaction block... transacting on both saves?

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