Search Results

Search found 16822 results on 673 pages for 'custom protocol'.

Page 509/673 | < Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >

  • Usage CursorLoader without ContentProvider

    - by sealskej
    Android SDK documentation says that startManagingCursor() method is depracated: This method is deprecated. Use the new CursorLoader class with LoaderManager instead; this is also available on older platforms through the Android compatibility package. This method allows the activity to take care of managing the given Cursor's lifecycle for you based on the activity's lifecycle. That is, when the activity is stopped it will automatically call deactivate() on the given Cursor, and when it is later restarted it will call requery() for you. When the activity is destroyed, all managed Cursors will be closed automatically. If you are targeting HONEYCOMB or later, consider instead using LoaderManager instead, available via getLoaderManager() So I would like to use CursorLoader. But how can I use it with custom CursorAdapter and without ContentProvider, when I needs URI in constructor of CursorLoader?

    Read the article

  • Rotation of ViewController in TabbarController

    - by hanno
    I have a custom UIViewController in a UITabbarController and want to respond to rotation events. When a rotation occurs, the tabbarcontroller and the viewcontroller get rotated. However, the view in the viewcontroller doesn't get redrawn properly: the layout doesn't autoresize and it is black on parts of the screen. The strange thing is that it works when I go to another tab and the back again to my original viewcontroller. What could possibly be wrong? I checked that didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation:fromInterfaceOrientation is being called. However, the view.frame.size values are still the old ones from before the rotation. That's probably not correct.

    Read the article

  • Javascript in chrome plugin has syntax error

    - by Cyclone
    chrome.tabs.executeScript(null, {code:"$.each(selectValues, function(key='" + timestamp + "', value='Custom') { $('#expire'). append($(\"<option></option>\"). attr(\"value\",key). text(value)); });"}); It says that the first line has a syntax error, and the WebKit inspector shows odd highlighting patterns. What's wrong with that? A friend thinks I need to escape some characters somewhere. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Porting a PowerBuilder Application to .NET

    - by Justin Ethier
    Does anyone have any advice for migrating a PowerBuilder 10 business application to .NET? My company is considering migrating a legacy PB application to .NET (C#) and I am just wondering if anyone has any experience - good or bad - that you would like to share. The application is rather large with 10 PBL libraries, some PFC as well as custom frameworks. There are a large number of DLL calls being made as well. Finally, it uses a Microsoft SQL Server database. We have discussed porting the "core" application code to .NET and then porting more advanced functionality across as-needed.

    Read the article

  • copy file from one location to another location in linux using java program

    - by Mouli
    Using JSP am trying to move customer logo into another location in linux but its not working. thanks in advance Here is my program String customerLogo = request.getParameter("uploadCustomerLogo").trim(); StringBuffer absoluteFolderPath = new StringBuffer(); absoluteFolderPath.append("/zoniac"); absoluteFolderPath.append("/Companies/"); absoluteFolderPath.append("companyCode/"); absoluteFolderPath.append("custom/"); String destination = absoluteFolderPath.toString(); File sourcefile = new File(customerLogo); File destfile = new File(destination+sourcefile.getName()); FileUtils.copyFile(sourcefile,destfile);

    Read the article

  • Problems set-up Single Sign-On using Kerberos authentication

    - by user1124133
    I need for Ruby on Rail application set authentication via Active Directory using Kerberos authentication. Some technical information: I are using Apache installed mod_auth_kerb In httpd.conf I added LoadModule auth_kerb_module modules/mod_auth_kerb.so In /etc/krb5.conf I added following configuration [logging] default = FILE:/var/log/krb5libs.log kdc = FILE:/var/log/krb5kdc.log admin_server = FILE:/var/log/kadmind.log [libdefaults] default_realm = EU.ORG.COM dns_lookup_realm = false dns_lookup_kdc = false ticket_lifetime = 24h forwardable = yes [realms] EU.ORG.COM = { kdc = eudc05.eu.org.com:88 admin_server = eudc05.eu.org.com:749 default_domain = eu.org.com } [domain_realm] .eu.org.com = EU.ORG.COM eu.org.com = EU.ORG.COM [appdefaults] pam = { debug = true ticket_lifetime = 36000 renew_lifetime = 36000 forwardable = true krb4_convert = false } When I test kinit validuser and enter password then authentication is successful. klist returns: Ticket cache: FILE:/tmp/krb5cc_600 Default principal: [email protected] Valid starting Expires Service principal 02/08/13 13:46:40 02/08/13 23:46:47 krbtgt/[email protected] renew until 02/09/13 13:46:40 Kerberos 4 ticket cache: /tmp/tkt600 klist: You have no tickets cached In application Apache configuration I added IfModule mod_auth_kerb.c> Location /winlogin> AuthType Kerberos AuthName "Kerberos Loginsss" KrbMethodNegotiate off KrbAuthoritative on KrbVerifyKDC off KrbAuthRealms EU.ORG.COM Krb5Keytab /home/crmdata/httpd/apache.keytab KrbSaveCredentials off Require valid-user </Location> </IfModule> I restarted apache Now some tests: When I try to access application from Win7, I got pop-up message box, with text: Warning: This server is requesting that your username and password be sent in an insecure manner (basic authentification without a secure connection) When I enter valid credentials then my application opens successfully, and all works fine. Questions: Is ok that for user pop-ups such windows? If I use NTLM authentication then there no such pop-up. I checked IE Internet Options and there 'Enable Integrated Windows Authentication' is checked. Why IE try to send username and password to application apache? If I correct to understand then Windows self must make authentication via Active Directory using Kerberos protocol. When I try to access application from Win7 and I enter incorrect credentials to pop-up message box Application say Authentication failed (this is OK) In apache error log I see: [error] [client 192.168.56.1] krb5_get_init_creds_password() failed: Client not found in Kerberos database But now I cannot get possibility to enter valid credentials, only when I restart IE I can get again pop-up box. What could be incorrect or missing in my Kerberos setup? I read in some blog post that probably something is needed to be done in Active Directory side. What exactly?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Session across subdomains

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, In my website i have implemented custom session values. In which, on log on i set the session value to some object. This object is used to extract user specific data from db. now the problem is If user logs in with : test1.somesite.com and logs off and again logs in with: test2.somesite.com that user is still receiving the data from object specific to test1.somesite.com. the point is whichever site user frist logs in with the second time if he logs in with anathor subdomain he is always getting the data from previous sub domain login. on log out from specific domain i cleared all the sessions(tried everything): by putting HttpContext.session["UserDetail"] = null;, HttpContext.Session.Abandon() and also HttpContext.Session.Clear(); but nothing seems to work any help please

    Read the article

  • Does the `Expires` HTTP header needs to be consistent across multiple cold-cache requests?

    - by chakrit
    I'm implementing a custom web server of a kind. And am looking into adding an Expires header support. However, I'm a little unsure of how exactly to implement it. If multiple cold-cache requests are being made to the same unchanged resource on the server and the server returned different Expires header (say it uses relative time to calculate the exact value of the Expires date e.g. +6 hours from the request time), does that invalidate the cache on all the proxy servers in-between as well? Or is it impossible to happen (per the spec)? Does the Expires HTTP header needs to be consistent across multiple cold-cache requests?

    Read the article

  • how is this jquery app validating the username? (3rd party script)

    - by SarmenHB
    The tutorial that I'm trying to figure out is this: http://www.position-absolute.com/articles/jquery-form-validator-because-form-validation-is-a-mess/ The username field looks like this: <input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> That <input> field has a class item named ajax[ajaxUser] which has its rules contained in this script (jquery.validationEngine-en.js). The snippet for that item looks like this: "ajaxUser":{ "file":"validateUser.php", "extraData":"name=eric", "alertTextOk":"* This user is available", "alertTextLoad":"* Loading, please wait", "alertText":"* This user is already taken"}, What I can't figure out at all is how its PHP page is working which is validateUser.php. Where are all those post fields coming from? I looked around and can't find a field with those names. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Turning a refresh ImageView into a ProgressBar

    - by Macarse
    I am doing a custom title for my android app and I want to have a refresh button like the Twitter app. I am using a RelativeLayout an my ImageView is defined by: <ImageView android:id="@+id/title_refresh" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" android:layout_alignParentRight="true"> </ImageView> In my Activity I have something like this: refreshView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.title_refresh); refreshView.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { /* Make the refreshView turn into a progress bar. */ startService(new Intent(MyActivity.this, MyService.class)); } } I would like the ImageView to turn into a ProgressBar while I wait for my service to finish processing. How is the correct way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Selective coloring on dynamic TextBlock content in WPF

    - by user326579
    For selective coloring of static content the following suggestion works fine : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435880/is-it-possible-to-seletively-color-a-wrapping-textblock-in-silverlight-wpf However my content will be generated at runtime. For ex. if the Content generated is : "A Quick Brown Fox" Then I need they string "Brown" to be in color Brown and "Fox" to be in color Red The Keyword-Color list is fixed and available to me at runtime. I have looked at the Advanced TextFormatting page on MSDN, but it is too complicated for me, also the sample in there does not compile :( I am looking at creating a custom control which can do this for me. Let me know if anyone has any idea regarding how to go about this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Better performance to Query the DB or Cache small result sets?

    - by user169867
    Say I need to populate 4 or 5 dropdowns w/ items from a database. Each drop down will have < 15 items in it. These items almost never change. Now I could query the DB each time the page is accessed or I could grab the values from a custom class that would check to see if they already exist in ASP.Net's cache and only if they don't query the DB to update the cache. It's trivial for me to write but I'm unsure if the performace would be better or not. I think it would be (although not likely anything huge). What do you think?

    Read the article

  • VB.Net List.Find. Pass values to predicate

    - by Beta033
    Having a bit of trouble using the List.Find with a custom predicate i have a function that does this private function test () Dim test As Integer = keys.Find(AddressOf FindByOldKeyAndName).NewKey here's the function for the predicate Private Shared Function FindByOldKeyAndName(ByVal k As KeyObj) As Boolean If k.OldKey = currentKey.OldKey And k.KeyName = currentKey.KeyName Then Return True Else Return False End If End Function by doing it this way means i have to have a shared "currentKey" object in the class, and i know there has to be a way to pass in the values i'm interested in of CurrentKey (namely, keyname, and oldkey) ideally i'd like to call it by something like keys.Find(AddressOf FindByOldKeyAndName(Name,OldVal)) however when i do this i get compiler errors. How do i call this method and pass in the values?

    Read the article

  • WPF Animate a Maxtrix using interpolation

    - by Mark
    Im having a issue with my application that is using touch gestures to scale, translate and rotate my scene. I was using a TransformGroup which contained TranslateTransform, ScaleTransform and a RotateTransform but I could not get the movement correct, it always jumps and skips, so I moved to a MaxtrixTransform which I was able to use much easier to get my scene to be zoomable, rotatable and panable nicely. However, what I later found out was that you cannot animate smoothly (using interpolation) the values of a Matrix, for what reason I have no idea, but its part of the MSDN doco and the properties of the Matrix are not dependency properties anyways... Has anyone had any luck animating a maxtrix to make it smooth? The only idea(s) I have had is to animate a few different, custom DP which all have callbacks that I update the Matrix from OR To convert the Maxtix to a set of Transform object that I then animate and then afterwords convert back. Is there a smarter way to do this?

    Read the article

  • 40k Event Log Errors an hour Unknown Username or bad password

    - by ErocM
    I am getting about 200k of these an hour: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: SYSTEM Account Name: TGSERVER$ Account Domain: WORKGROUP Logon ID: 0x3e7 Logon Type: 4 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: administrator Account Domain: TGSERVER Failure Information: Failure Reason: Unknown user name or bad password. Status: 0xc000006d Sub Status: 0xc0000064 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x334 Caller Process Name: C:\Windows\System32\svchost.exe Network Information: Workstation Name: TGSERVER Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: Advapi Authentication Package: Negotiate Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 This event is generated when a logon request fails. It is generated on the computer where access was attempted. The Subject fields indicate the account on the local system which requested the logon. This is most commonly a service such as the Server service, or a local process such as Winlogon.exe or Services.exe. The Logon Type field indicates the kind of logon that was requested. The most common types are 2 (interactive) and 3 (network). The Process Information fields indicate which account and process on the system requested the logon. The Network Information fields indicate where a remote logon request originated. Workstation name is not always available and may be left blank in some cases. The authentication information fields provide detailed information about this specific logon request. - Transited services indicate which intermediate services have participated in this logon request. - Package name indicates which sub-protocol was used among the NTLM protocols. - Key length indicates the length of the generated session key. This will be 0 if no session key was requested. On my server... I changed my adminstrative username to something else and since then I've been inidated with these messages. I found on http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc787567(v=WS.10).aspx that the 4 means "Batch logon type is used by batch servers, where processes may be executing on behalf of a user without their direct intervention." which really doesn't shed any light on it for me. I checked the services and they are all logging in as local system or network service. Nothing for administrator. Anyone have any idea how I tell where these are coming from? I would assume this is a program that is crapping out... Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • RIA Services - Two entity models share an entity name

    - by Alex
    I have two entity models hooked up to two different databases. However, the two databases both have a table named 'brand', for example. As such, there is a naming conflict in my models. Now, I've been able to add a namespace to each model, via Custom Tool Namespace in the model's properties, but the generated code in my Silverlight project will try to use both namespaces, and come up with this, Imports MyProject.ModelA Imports MyProject.ModelB Public ReadOnly Property brands() As EntitySet(Of brand) Get Return MyBase.EntityContainer.GetEntitySet(Of brand) End Get End Property giving me this exception: 'Error 1 'brand' is ambiguous, imported from the namespaces or types 'MyProject.ModelA,MyProject.ModelB'. Has anyone had experience with naming conflicts like this using RIA services? How did you solve it?

    Read the article

  • Approaches for Error Code/Message Management in .NET

    - by WayneC
    Looking for suggestions/best practices on managing error codes and messages in a multi-tiered applications. Specifically things like: Where should error codes be defined? Enum? Class? How are error messages or further details associated with the error codes? resource files? attributes on enum values, etc.? If you have a multi-tier application consisting of DAL, BLL, UI, and Common projects for example, should there be a single giant list of codes for all tiers, or are the codes extensible by project/tier? Update: Important to mention that I can't rely solely on Exceptions and custom Exception types for error reporting, as some clients for this application will be via web services (SOAP & REST) Any suggestions welcome!

    Read the article

  • Routing all data through an VPN tunnel with ppp

    - by Oliver
    I'm trying to create a VPN tunnel that forwards all data from the local machine to the VPN server. I'm using ppp-2.4.5 for this with the following configuration: pty "pptp <VPNServer> --nolaunchpppd" name <my login name> remotename PPTP usepeerdns require-mppe-128 file /etc/ppp/options.pptp persist maxfail 0 holdoff 5 I have a script in if-up.d with the following content: route del default eth0 route add default dev ppp0 Before starting the VPN tunnel my routing looks like: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 2 0 0 eth0 127.0.0.0 127.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 lo 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 After starting the tunnel (via pon) it looks like: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 ppp0 12.34.56.1 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 ppp0 127.0.0.0 127.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 lo 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 Now the problem is, that the VPN tunnel seems to be looped into itself. If I run ifconfig after a few seconds without any traffic: eth0: flags=4163<UP,BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST> mtu 1500 inet 192.168.0.10 netmask 255.255.0.0 broadcast 192.168.255.255 ether 00:01:2e:2f:ff:35 txqueuelen 1000 (Ethernet) RX packets 39931 bytes 6784614 (6.4 MiB) RX errors 0 dropped 90 overruns 0 frame 0 TX packets 34980 bytes 7633181 (7.2 MiB) TX errors 0 dropped 0 overruns 0 carrier 0 collisions 0 device interrupt 20 memory 0xfbdc0000-fbde0000 ppp0: flags=4305<UP,POINTOPOINT,RUNNING,NOARP,MULTICAST> mtu 1496 inet 12.34.56.78 netmask 255.255.255.255 destination 12.34.56.1 ppp txqueuelen 3 (Point-to-Point Protocol) RX packets 7 bytes 94 (94.0 B) RX errors 0 dropped 0 overruns 0 frame 0 TX packets 782863 bytes 349257986 (333.0 MiB) TX errors 0 dropped 0 overruns 0 carrier 0 collisions 0 It states that already over 300 MiB have been send, ppp0 is only online since a few seconds and the connection isn't working anyway. Can someone please help me to fix the routing table, so that the traffic from ppp0 is not send again through ppp0 but instead goes to the remote server?

    Read the article

  • How can I detect 'any' ajax request being completed using jQuery?

    - by Brian Scott
    I have a page where I can insert some javascript / jquery to manipulate the output. I don't have any other control over the page markup etc. I need to add an extra element via jquery after each present on the page. The issue is that the elements are generated via an asynchronous call on the existing page which occurs after $(document).ready is complete. Essentially, I need a way of calling my jquery after the page has loaded and the subsequent ajax calls have completed. Is there a way to detect the completion of any ajax call on the page and then call my own custom function to insert the additional elements after the newly created s ?

    Read the article

  • How can I modify input before model binding in asp.net mvc?

    - by David G
    How can I intercept submitted form input and modify it before it is bound to my model? For example, if I wanted to trim the whitespace from all text. I have tried creating a custom model binder like so: public class CustomBinder : DefaultModelBinder { protected override void SetProperty(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext, PropertyDescriptor propertyDescriptor, object value) { string newValue = ((string)value).Trim(); //example code to create new value but could be anything base.SetProperty(controllerContext, bindingContext, propertyDescriptor, newValue); } } but this doesn't seem to be invoked. Is there a better place to modify the input value? Note: I need to modify the value before it is bound and validated.

    Read the article

  • Can AutoMapper call a method on destination for each member of collection on source?

    - by YonahW
    I have two classes as below. public class Destination { public Destination() { _StringCollection = new List<String>(); } private ICollection<String> _StringCollection; public IEnumerable<String> StringCollection { get { return _StringCollection.AsEnumerable<String>(); } } public void AddString(string str) { _StringCollection.Add(str); } } public class Source { public List<String> StringCollection { get; set; } } I would like to map that for each member of source call AddString(member) on Destination. I thought that maybe I could do something with a custom resolver but can't seem to figure out how.

    Read the article

  • Mobile Safari Youtube opened via javascript

    - by Squeegy
    We have a youtube player embedded in a plage in Mobile Safari and it works great. But we need to be able to launch the youtube player by a means other than user tapping the video itself, for various reasons. So I am trying to figure out what event to trigger in javascript to make it happen with no luck. None of the following appear to work. var vid = document.getElementById('vid'); vid.click(); vid.onclick(); vid.ontouchend(); vid.ontouchstart(); vid.focus(); I tried to find an event handler added to the embedded object with this snippet, but didn't find anything. for (var key in vid) { if (typeof vid[key] == 'function') console.log(key +': '+ vid[key]); } Is this just so wrapped up in a custom plugin there is no way?

    Read the article

  • When not to use a Drupal node?

    - by stotastic
    I've recently created a very simple CRUD table where the user stores some data. For the data, I created a custom node. The functionality works great for creating, editing, and deleting data in the CRUD table using the basic node functionality (I'm actually amazed how fast and easy it was to program the basic functionality with proper access controls using only a tiny bit of code).... Since the data isn't meant to be treated the same way as 'content' such as a blog post (no title, no body, no commments, no revisions, shouldn't show up on ?q=node page, no previews, no teasers, etc)... I find that I'm spending most of my time 'turning off' and modifying the stuff that drupal does automatically for nodes. I know its a matter of taste, but where should one draw the line on what should be treated as a node and what shouldn't? In other words, would it be better to program this stuff from scratch without using nodes?

    Read the article

  • How can should I set up Flex 3 projects that reference common controls?

    - by Amy
    I'm not a flash developer, I'm having issues figuring out how I should set up these two projects that I have in Flex Builder. I've already created projA which has a .mxml that references several custom controls & skins from com.xxx.controls within projA I now have to build projB which also has a .mxml that will create a different .swf. I want to use some of the same controls from projA I currently build projA through the command line and nant and will need to do the same for projB. Should I create a new project to move all of the common controls into? How do I then use this library project in both the projects & compile via command? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • IconDownloader, problem with lazy downloading

    - by Junior B.
    My problem is simple to be described but it seems to be hard to solve. The problem is loading icons, with a custom class like IconDownloader.m provided by an official example from Apple, avoiding crashes if I release the view. I've added the IconDownloader class to my app, but it's clear that this approach is good only if the tableview is the root. The big problem is when the view is not the root one. F.e: if I start to scroll my second view (the app now load the icons) and, without leaving it the time to finish the download, I go back to root, the app crash because the view that have to be updated with new icons doesn't exist anymore. One possible solution could be implement an OperationQueue in the view, but with this approach I've to stop the queue when I change the view and restart it when I come back and the idea to have N queues don't make me enthusiastic. Anyone found a good solution for this problem?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >