Search Results

Search found 21524 results on 861 pages for 'multiple matches'.

Page 509/861 | < Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >

  • Using HTML5 Today part 3&ndash; Using Polyfills

    - by Steve Albers
    Shims helps when adding semantic tags to older IE browsers, but there is a huge range of other new HTML5 features that having varying support on browsers.  Polyfills are JavaScript code and/or browser plug-ins that can provide older or less featured browsers with API support.  The best polyfills will detect the whether the current browser has native support, and only adds the functionality if necessary.  The Douglas Crockford JSON2.js library is an example of this approach: if the browser already supports the JSON object, nothing changes.  If JSON is not available, the library adds a JSON property in the global object. This approach provides some big benefits: It lets you add great new HTML5 features to your web sites sooner. It lets the developer focus on writing to the up-and-coming standard rather than proprietary APIs. Where most one-off legacy code fixes tends to break down over time, well done polyfills will stop executing over time (as customer browsers natively support the feature) meaning polyfill code may not need to be tested against new browsers since they will execute the native methods instead. Your should also remember that Polyfills represent an entirely separate code path (and sometimes plug-in) that requires testing for support.  Also Polyfills tend to run on older browsers, which often have slower JavaScript performance.  As a result you might find that performance on older browsers is not comparable. When looking for Polyfills you can start by checking the Modernizr GitHub wiki or the HTML5 Please site. For an example of a polyfill consider a page that writes a few geometric shapes on a <canvas> <script src="jquery-1.7.1.min.js"><script> <script> $(document).ready(function () { drawCanvas(); }); function drawCanvas() { var context = $("canvas")[0].getContext('2d'); //background context.fillStyle = "#8B0000"; context.fillRect(5, 5, 300, 100); // emptybox context.strokeStyle = "#B0C4DE"; context.lineWidth = 4; context.strokeRect(20, 15, 80, 80); // circle context.arc(160, 55, 40, 0, Math.PI * 2, false); context.fillStyle = "#4B0082"; context.fill(); </script>   The result is a simple static canvas with a box & a circle:   …to enable this functionality on a pre-canvas browser we can find a polyfill.  A check on html5please.com references  FlashCanvas.  Pull down the zip and extract the files (flashcanvas.js, flash10canvas.swf, etc) to a directory on your site.  Then based on the documentation you need to add a single line to your original HTML file: <!--[if lt IE 9]><script src="flashcanvas.js"></script><![endif]—> …and you have canvas functionality!  The IE conditional comments ensure that the library is only loaded in browsers where it is useful, improving page load & processing time. Like all Polyfills, you should test to verify the functionality matches your expectations across browsers you need to support.  For instance the Flash Canvas home page advertises 70% support of HTML5 Canvas spec tests.

    Read the article

  • Apache 2.2 and FastCGI stops responding, warnings, crashes

    - by Brett
    I've seen this question posted a few times using a Google search, with no real answers. I have a multi-threaded FastCGI application running with Apache 2.2 on FreeBSD 7.2. There are a few issues with it, and I am unable to really figure out the source of the problem even after poking through a bunch of the mod_fastcgi source code. My FastCGI application gets anywhere from 2 to 15 or so hits per second, and mostly services a back-end API (the majority of web server usage is for this, and not actually serving content). Everything seems to work ok under normal conditions, but recently this problem has been becoming worse. It starts out with the FastCGI process manager apparently trying to close unneeded processes, sending them a SIGTERM signal. I catch the signal, clean up some stuff, and exit (by calling exit()) with status code 0. This process seems to result in three log messages in my httpd error log: [Tue Jun 01 14:03:31 2010] [warn] FastCGI: (dynamic) server "/home/program/wwwroot/domains/www.mydomain.com/cgi-bin/program.cgi" (pid 98182) termination signaled [Tue Jun 01 14:03:31 2010] [warn] FastCGI: (dynamic) server "/home/program/wwwroot/domains/www.mydomain.com/cgi-bin/program.cgi" (pid 98182) terminated by calling exit with status '0' [Tue Jun 01 14:03:31 2010] [warn] FastCGI: (dynamic) server "/home/program/wwwroot/domains/www.mydomain.com/cgi-bin/program.cgi" restarted (pid 98294) I am not sure why it says it is restarting the process, but in any case no core dump is ever generated so I do believe it is the FastCGI process manager doing it's thing. This makes sense because it begins to happen after the initial load increase from restarting Apache. Since it's down for a few seconds, it gets hit with a couple of hundred requests over the first few seconds it's running again (sometimes even hitting the upper limit of MAXCLIENTS in Apache), and this seems to be the process manager doing the work of spawning more processes to handle the increased load. So this all seems fine, but here is where things get weird. There are really two problems that I see. First, my multithreaded FastCGI process spawns 25 worker threads, and all seem to be used according to my internal log files (multiple processes are clearly using multiple threads to do work). However it seems that 3 or 4 FastCGI processes is not enough to handle the 5 to 15 hit per second load, even though the requests take about .02s or so to process internally. In order to be at all responsive, it seems I need 50 or more FastCGI processes, leading me to believe that FastCGI does not realize that my program is multithreaded. I've read the documentation at http://www.fastcgi.com/mod_fastcgi/docs/mod_fastcgi.html and do not see any option pertaining to multithreaded-ness, and my internal code is more or less set up just like the examples provided by the FastCGI library. The second problem I am having is that once process termination has happened a bunch of times as above (and seemingly at random), I begin getting a lot of these messages in my error log: [Tue Jun 01 14:06:22 2010] [warn] (32)Broken pipe: FastCGI: write() to PM failed (ignore if a restart or shutdown is pending) The messages occur for about half the hits I get to the server, and it completely kills the responsiveness of my application - it seems FastCGI will look for a working "pipe" until it finds one, and fail to realize that whatever application it is trying to contact is dead. It does still work though, it's just incredibly unresponsive - sometimes taking up to 40 or so seconds to process a request. I recompiled mod_fastcgi with some extra debugging around the point of the error message, and it appears that the error happens when it tries to write() to the application. The call to write() fails with a -1 return code, and sets errno to EPIPE. I am noticing that the issue happens mostly when either a crash occurs in one of the FastCGI processes, or a bunch of them are seemingly terminated by the process manager. I haven't had any core dumps though, except for one, where the backtrace outputted by gdb is just a single call to free() at address 0x0000000000000000 with nothing else in the stack trace, so I don't really know what to make of that. I'm thinking it happens sometime after the SIGTERM signal is caught, maybe some global variable not being cleaned up properly or something.

    Read the article

  • Apache outputs all urls of a second domain as a subfolder of the primary domain name

    - by s_rathbone
    Hi all, would anyone be able to possibly give me some guidance.. Basically, i have a 'shared hosting' account with a large internet hosting provider, and my account lets me have multiple seperate domains within this folder structure.(note: not aliased domains and not sub domains). so, my goal is to have 2 domains set up. i have already purchased the two domain names i need: The first domain is the 'primary' domain name for the root folder(eg. www.example1.com) and the second domain name is set for one of its sub folders(eg. www.example2.com is set to the folder www.example1.com/sites/music). The problem is that when apache returns a page of the second domain back to the browser, apache writes the hyperlinks as if it's a sub folder of the first domain ( eg. www.example2.com/index.html. comes out as http://www.example1.com/sites/music/index.html). Now, I have done some reading on this, looking though "Apache: the definitive guide"(o'reilly), and although it was useful, couldn't really find the answer. i'm guessing this issue is most likely an apache setup issue in http.conf, rather than an issue with the hosting company itself (which is why im posting it here) and I have also been to the official documentation for apache site, and i am guessing i might need to use something like the rewritebase directive in htaccess files.. but im really not sure, im more of a java programmer guy, and have been struggling with this for a couple of days. Any guidance would be REALLY appreciated. If it helps, my hosting company is godaddy, and my sites are hosted on linux. My problem was originally with wordpress which i reinstalled a number of times in various ways to correct the problem, but ive just done a test with a very simple static html, and it still has the same issue with relative urls like this: <html> <head></head><body><a href="images/dog.html">Pictures of Dogs</a></body> </html> However, it is fine if i hardcode the urls like this: <html> <head></head><body><a href="http://www.example2.com/images/dog.html">Pictures of Dogs</a></body> </html> Thanks heaps, Steve R NOW FIXED Ok, the problem has now been fixed, and i didn't need to modify any .conf or .htaccess files. The problem was, that when I went to install the second application into a second domain from the godaddy site, one of the setup questions is that it asks you which site you want it installed to. after that it asks for the desired folder path. However, the problem was that the second domain name was already pointing to the correct subfolder of the primary domain. So when I started installing wordpress again and came to the menu to select which site it was for, and it listed only the primary domain as an option, i assumed that this was like a label of "which hosting account?", or "which primary domain will your application will be installed under?" because I already knew that in the next step i was specifiying the folder. In order to correct this, you must make sure that your second domain is added to your domain list so that it will be listed as an option during the installation process. For further details please read tystips.com/archives/52/how2-save-money-host-multiple-wordpress-blogs-on-a-single-godaddy-hosting-account/

    Read the article

  • disk-to-disk backup without costly backup redundancy?

    - by AaronLS
    A good backup strategy involves a combination of 1) disconnected backups/snapshots that will not be affected by bugs, viruses, and/or security breaches 2) geographically distributed backups to protect against local disasters 3) testing backups to ensure that they can be restored as needed Generally I take an onsite backup daily, and an offsite backup weekly, and do test restores periodically. In the rare circumstance that I need to restore files, I do some from the local backup. Should a catastrophic event destroy the servers and local backups, then the offsite weekly tape backup would be used to restore the files. I don't need multiple offsite backups with redundancy. I ALREADY HAVE REDUNDANCY THROUGH THE USE OF BOTH LOCAL AND REMOTE BACKUPS. I have recovery blocks and par files with the backups, so I already have protection against a small percentage of corrupt bits. I perform test restores to ensure the backups function properly. Should the remote backups experience a dataloss, I can replace them with one of the local backups. There are historical offsite backups as well, so if a dataloss was not noticed for a few weeks(such as a bug/security breach/virus), the data could be restored from an older backup. By doing this, the only scenario that poses a risk to complete data loss would be one where both the local, remote, and servers all experienced a data loss in the same time period. I'm willing to risk that happening since the odds of that trifecta negligibly small, and the data isn't THAT valuable to me. So I hope I have emphasized that I don't need redundancy in my offsite backups because I have covered all the bases. I know this exact technique is employed by numerous businesses. Of course there are some that take multiple offsite backups, because the data is so incredibly valuable that they don't even want to risk that trifecta disaster, but in the majority of cases the trifecta disaster is an accepted risk. I HAD TO COVER ALL THIS BECAUSE SOME PEOPLE DON'T READ!!! I think I have justified my backup strategy and the majority of businesses who use offsite tape backups do not have any additional redundancy beyond what is mentioned above(recovery blocks, par files, historical snapshots). Now I would like to eliminate the use of tapes for offsite backups, and instead use a backup service. Most however are extremely costly for $/gb/month storage. I don't mind paying for transfer bandwidth, but the cost of storage is way to high. All of them advertise that they maintain backups of the data, and I imagine they use RAID as well. Obviously if you were using them to host servers this would all be necessary, but for my scenario, I am simply replacing my offsite backups with such a service. So there is no need for RAID, and absolutely no value in another layer of backups of backups. My one and only question: "Are there online data-storage/backup services that do not use redundancy or offer backups(backups of my backups) as part of their packages, and thus are more reasonably priced?" NOT my question: "Is this a flawed strategy?" I don't care if you think this is a good strategy or not. I know it pretty standard. Very few people make an extra copy of their offsite backups. They already have local backups that they can use to replace the remote backups if something catastrophic happens at the remote site. Please limit your responses to the question posed. Sorry if I seem a little abrasive, but I had some trolls in my last post who didn't read my requirements nor my question, and were trying to go off answering a totally different question. I made it pretty clear, but didn't try to justify my strategy, because I didn't ask about whether my strategy was justifyable. So I apologize if this was lengthy, as it really didn't need to be, but since there are so many trolls here who try to sidetrack questions by responding without addressing the question at hand.

    Read the article

  • httpd.conf configuration - for internal/external access

    - by tom smith
    hey. after a lot of trail/error/research, i've decided to post here in the hopes that i can get clarification on what i've screwed up... i've got a situation where i have multiple servers behind a router/firewall. i want to be able to access the sites i have from an internal and external url/address, and get the same site. i have to use portforwarding on the router, so i need to be able to use proxyreverse to redirect the user to the approriate server, running the apache/web app... my setup the external urls joomla.gotdns.com forge.gotdns.com both of these point to my router's external ip address (67.168.2.2) (not really) the router forwards port 80 to my server lserver6 192.168.1.56 lserver6 - 192.168.1.56 lserver9 - 192.168.1.59 lserver6 - joomla app lserver9 - forge app i want to be able to have the httpd process (httpd.conf) configured on lserver6 to be able to allow external users accessing the system (foo.gotdns.com) be able to access the joomla app on lserver6 and the same for the forge app running on lserver9 at the same time, i would also like to be able to access the apps from the internal servers, so i'd need to be able to somehow configure the vhost setup/proxyreverse setup to handle the internal access... i've tried setting up multiple vhosts with no luck.. i've looked at the different examples online.. so there must be something subtle that i'm missing... the section of my httpd.conf file that deals with the vhost is below... if there's something else that's needed, let me know and i can post it as well.. thanks -tom ##joomla - file /etc/httpd/conf.d/joomla.conf Alias /joomla /var/www/html/joomla <Directory /var/www/html/joomla> </Directory> # Use name-based virtual hosting. #NameVirtualHost *:80 # NOTE: NameVirtualHost cannot be used without a port specifier # (e.g. :80) if mod_ssl is being used, due to the nature of the # SSL protocol. # VirtualHost example: # Almost any Apache directive may go into a VirtualHost container. # The first VirtualHost section is used for requests without a known # server name. #<VirtualHost *:80> # ServerAdmin [email protected] # DocumentRoot /www/docs/dummy-host.example.com # ServerName dummy-host.example.com # ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log # CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common #</VirtualHost> NameVirtualHost 192.168.1.56:80 <VirtualHost 192.168.1.56:80> #ServerAdmin [email protected] #DocumentRoot /var/www/html #ServerName lserver6.tmesa.com #ServerName fforge.tmesa.com ServerName fforge.gotdns.com:80 #ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log #CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common #ProxyRequests Off ProxyPass / http://192.168.1.81:80/ ProxyPassReverse / http://192.168.1.81:80/ </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.1.56:80> #ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/html/joomla #ServerName lserver6.tmesa.com #ServerName fforge.tmesa.com ServerName 192.168.1.56:80 #ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log #CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common #ProxyRequests Off </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • Network Restructure Method for Double-NAT network

    - by Adrian
    Due to a series of poor network design decisions (mostly) made many years ago in order to save a few bucks here and there, I have a network that is decidedly sub-optimally architected. I'm looking for suggestions to improve this less-than-pleasant situation. We're a non-profit with a Linux-based IT department and a limited budget. (Note: None of the Windows equipment we have runs does anything that talks to the Internet nor do we have any Windows admins on staff.) Key points: We have a main office and about 12 remote sites that essentially double NAT their subnets with physically-segregated switches. (No VLANing and limited ability to do so with current switches) These locations have a "DMZ" subnet that are NAT'd on an identically assigned 10.0.0/24 subnet at each site. These subnets cannot talk to DMZs at any other location because we don't route them anywhere except between server and adjacent "firewall". Some of these locations have multiple ISP connections (T1, Cable, and/or DSLs) that we manually route using IP Tools in Linux. These firewalls all run on the (10.0.0/24) network and are mostly "pro-sumer" grade firewalls (Linksys, Netgear, etc.) or ISP-provided DSL modems. Connecting these firewalls (via simple unmanaged switches) is one or more servers that must be publically-accessible. Connected to the main office's 10.0.0/24 subnet are servers for email, tele-commuter VPN, remote office VPN server, primary router to the internal 192.168/24 subnets. These have to be access from specific ISP connections based on traffic type and connection source. All our routing is done manually or with OpenVPN route statements Inter-office traffic goes through the OpenVPN service in the main 'Router' server which has it's own NAT'ing involved. Remote sites only have one server installed at each site and cannot afford multiple servers due to budget constraints. These servers are all LTSP servers several 5-20 terminals. The 192.168.2/24 and 192.168.3/24 subnets are mostly but NOT entirely on Cisco 2960 switches that can do VLAN. The remainder are DLink DGS-1248 switches that I am not sure I trust well enough to use with VLANs. There is also some remaining internal concern about VLANs since only the senior networking staff person understands how it works. All regular internet traffic goes through the CentOS 5 router server which in turns NATs the 192.168/24 subnets to the 10.0.0.0/24 subnets according to the manually-configured routing rules that we use to point outbound traffic to the proper internet connection based on '-host' routing statements. I want to simplify this and ready All Of The Things for ESXi virtualization, including these public-facing services. Is there a no- or low-cost solution that would get rid of the Double-NAT and restore a little sanity to this mess so that my future replacement doesn't hunt me down? Basic Diagram for the main office: These are my goals: Public-facing Servers with interfaces on that middle 10.0.0/24 network to be moved in to 192.168.2/24 subnet on ESXi servers. Get rid of the double NAT and get our entire network on one single subnet. My understanding is that this is something we'll need to do under IPv6 anyway, but I think this mess is standing in the way.

    Read the article

  • Windows 7: How to place SuperFetch cache on an SSD?

    - by Ian Boyd
    I'm thinking of adding a solid state drive (SSD) to my existing Windows 7 installation. I know I can (and should) move my paging file to the SSD: Should the pagefile be placed on SSDs? Yes. Most pagefile operations are small random reads or larger sequential writes, both of which are types of operations that SSDs handle well. In looking at telemetry data from thousands of traces and focusing on pagefile reads and writes, we find that Pagefile.sys reads outnumber pagefile.sys writes by about 40 to 1, Pagefile.sys read sizes are typically quite small, with 67% less than or equal to 4 KB, and 88% less than 16 KB. Pagefile.sys writes are relatively large, with 62% greater than or equal to 128 KB and 45% being exactly 1 MB in size. In fact, given typical pagefile reference patterns and the favorable performance characteristics SSDs have on those patterns, there are few files better than the pagefile to place on an SSD. What I don't know is if I even can put a SuperFetch cache (i.e. ReadyBoost cache) on the solid state drive. I want to get the benefit of Windows being able to cache gigabytes of frequently accessed data on a relativly small (e.g. 30GB) solid state drive. This is exactly what SuperFetch+ReadyBoost (or SuperFetch+ReadyDrive) was designed for. Will Windows offer (or let) me place a ReadyBoost cache on a solid state flash drive connected via SATA? A problem with the ReadyBoost cache over the ReadyDrive cache is that the ReadyBoost cache does not survive between reboots. The cache is encrypted with a per-session key, making its existing contents unusable during boot and SuperFetch pre-fetching during login. Update One I know that Windows Vista limited you to only one ReadyBoost.sfcache file (I do not know if Windows 7 removed that limitation): Q: Can use use multiple devices for EMDs? A: Nope. We've limited Vista to one ReadyBoost per machine Q: Why just one device? A: Time and quality. Since this is the first revision of the feature, we decided to focus on making the single device exceptional, without the difficulties of managing multiple caches. We like the idea, though, and it's under consideration for future versions. I also know that the 4GB limit on the cache file was a limitation of the FAT filesystem used on most USB sticks - an SSD drive would be formatted with NTFS: Q: What's the largest amount of flash that I can use for ReadyBoost? A: You can use up to 4GB of flash for ReadyBoost (which turns out to be 8GB of cache w/ the compression) Q: Why can't I use more than 4GB of flash? A: The FAT32 filesystem limits our ReadyBoost.sfcache file to 4GB Can a ReadyBoost cache on an NTFS volume be larger than 4GB? Update Two The ReadyBoost cache is encrypted with a per-boot session key. This means that the cache has to be re-built after each boot, and cannot be used to help speed boot times, or latency from login to usable. Windows ReadyDrive technology takes advantage of non-volatile (NV) memory (i.e. flash) that is incorporated with some hybrid hard drives. This flash cache can be used to help Windows boot, or resume from hibernate faster. Will Windows 7 use an internal SSD drive as a ReadyBoost/*ReadyDrive*/SuperFetch cache? Is it possible to make Windows store a SuperFetch cache (i.e. ReadyBoost) on a non-removable SSD? Is it possible to not encrypt the ReadyBoost cache, and if so will Windows 7 use the cache at boot time? See also SuperUser.com: ReadyBoost + SSD = ? Windows 7 - ReadyBoost & SSD drives? Support and Q&A for Solid-State Drives Using SDD as a cache for HDD, is there a solution? Performance increase using SSD for paging/fetch/cache or ReadyBoost? (Win7) Windows 7 To Boost SSD Performance How to Disable Nonvolatile Caching

    Read the article

  • Does this prove a network bandwidth bottleneck?

    - by Yuji Tomita
    I've incorrectly assumed that my internal AB testing means my server can handle 1k concurrency @3k hits per second. My theory at at the moment is that the network is the bottleneck. The server can't send enough data fast enough. External testing from blitz.io at 1k concurrency shows my hits/s capping off at 180, with pages taking longer and longer to respond as the server is only able to return 180 per second. I've served a blank file from nginx and benched it: it scales 1:1 with concurrency. Now to rule out IO / memcached bottlenecks (nginx normally pulls from memcached), I serve up a static version of the cached page from the filesystem. The results are very similar to my original test; I'm capped at around 180 RPS. Splitting the HTML page in half gives me double the RPS, so it's definitely limited by the size of the page. If I internally ApacheBench from the local server, I get consistent results of around 4k RPS on both the Full Page and the Half Page, at high transfer rates. Transfer rate: 62586.14 [Kbytes/sec] received If I AB from an external server, I get around 180RPS - same as the blitz.io results. How do I know it's not intentional throttling? If I benchmark from multiple external servers, all results become poor which leads me to believe the problem is in MY servers outbound traffic, not a download speed issue with my benchmarking servers / blitz.io. So I'm back to my conclusion that my server can't send data fast enough. Am I right? Are there other ways to interpret this data? Is the solution/optimization to set up multiple servers + load balancing that can each serve 180 hits per second? I'm quite new to server optimization, so I'd appreciate any confirmation interpreting this data. Outbound traffic Here's more information about the outbound bandwidth: The network graph shows a maximum output of 16 Mb/s: 16 megabits per second. Doesn't sound like much at all. Due to a suggestion about throttling, I looked into this and found that linode has a 50mbps cap (which I'm not even close to hitting, apparently). I had it raised to 100mbps. Since linode caps my traffic, and I'm not even hitting it, does this mean that my server should indeed be capable of outputting up to 100mbps but is limited by some other internal bottleneck? I just don't understand how networks at this large of a scale work; can they literally send data as fast as they can read from the HDD? Is the network pipe that big? In conclusion 1: Based on the above, I'm thinking I can definitely raise my 180RPS by adding an nginx load balancer on top of a multi nginx server setup at exactly 180RPS per server behind the LB. 2: If linode has a 50/100mbit limit that I'm not hitting at all, there must be something I can do to hit that limit with my single server setup. If I can read / transmit data fast enough locally, and linode even bothers to have a 50mbit/100mbit cap, there must be an internal bottleneck that's not allowing me to hit those caps that I'm not sure how to detect. Correct? I realize the question is huge and vague now, but I'm not sure how to condense it. Any input is appreciated on any conclusion I've made.

    Read the article

  • How to place SuperFetch cache on an SSD?

    - by Ian Boyd
    I'm thinking of adding a solid state drive (SSD) to my existing Windows 7 installation. I know I can (and should) move my paging file to the SSD: Should the pagefile be placed on SSDs? Yes. Most pagefile operations are small random reads or larger sequential writes, both of which are types of operations that SSDs handle well. In looking at telemetry data from thousands of traces and focusing on pagefile reads and writes, we find that Pagefile.sys reads outnumber pagefile.sys writes by about 40 to 1, Pagefile.sys read sizes are typically quite small, with 67% less than or equal to 4 KB, and 88% less than 16 KB. Pagefile.sys writes are relatively large, with 62% greater than or equal to 128 KB and 45% being exactly 1 MB in size. In fact, given typical pagefile reference patterns and the favorable performance characteristics SSDs have on those patterns, there are few files better than the pagefile to place on an SSD. What I don't know is if I even can put a SuperFetch cache (i.e. ReadyBoost cache) on the solid state drive. I want to get the benefit of Windows being able to cache gigabytes of frequently accessed data on a relativly small (e.g. 30GB) solid state drive. This is exactly what SuperFetch+ReadyBoost (or SuperFetch+ReadyDrive) was designed for. Will Windows offer (or let) me place a ReadyBoost cache on a solid state flash drive connected via SATA? A problem with the ReadyBoost cache over the ReadyDrive cache is that the ReadyBoost cache does not survive between reboots. The cache is encrypted with a per-session key, making its existing contents unusable during boot and SuperFetch pre-fetching during login. Update One I know that Windows Vista limited you to only one ReadyBoost.sfcache file (I do not know if Windows 7 removed that limitation): Q: Can use use multiple devices for EMDs? A: Nope. We've limited Vista to one ReadyBoost per machine Q: Why just one device? A: Time and quality. Since this is the first revision of the feature, we decided to focus on making the single device exceptional, without the difficulties of managing multiple caches. We like the idea, though, and it's under consideration for future versions. I also know that the 4GB limit on the cache file was a limitation of the FAT filesystem used on most USB sticks - an SSD drive would be formatted with NTFS: Q: What's the largest amount of flash that I can use for ReadyBoost? A: You can use up to 4GB of flash for ReadyBoost (which turns out to be 8GB of cache w/ the compression) Q: Why can't I use more than 4GB of flash? A: The FAT32 filesystem limits our ReadyBoost.sfcache file to 4GB Can a ReadyBoost cache on an NTFS volume be larger than 4GB? Update Two The ReadyBoost cache is encrypted with a per-boot session key. This means that the cache has to be re-built after each boot, and cannot be used to help speed boot times, or latency from login to usable. Windows ReadyDrive technology takes advantage of non-volatile (NV) memory (i.e. flash) that is incorporated with some hybrid hard drives. This flash cache can be used to help Windows boot, or resume from hibernate faster. Will Windows 7 use an internal SSD drive as a ReadyBoost/*ReadyDrive*/SuperFetch cache? Is it possible to make Windows store a SuperFetch cache (i.e. ReadyBoost) on a non-removable SSD? Is it possible to not encrypt the ReadyBoost cache, and if so will Windows 7 use the cache at boot time? See also SuperUser.com: ReadyBoost + SSD = ? Windows 7 - ReadyBoost & SSD drives? Support and Q&A for Solid-State Drives Using SDD as a cache for HDD, is there a solution? Performance increase using SSD for paging/fetch/cache or ReadyBoost? (Win7) Windows 7 To Boost SSD Performance How to Disable Nonvolatile Caching

    Read the article

  • Backup a hosted Sharepoint

    - by David Mackintosh
    One of my customers has outsourced their Sharepoint and Exchange services to a hosted services provider. I believe it is a Sharepoint 2007 service. It is a shared hosting solution, so we do not have any kind of access to the server itself; we only have user-level and sharepoint-administrator-level access to the Sharepoint application. They have come to the point where they would like to have a copy of everything that is on the Sharepoint server. I have downloaded the Office Sharepoint Designer 2007, and it features three (!) ways to backup a Sharepoint server, none (!) of which work for me: File-Export-Personal Web Package: When selecting everything, it calculates a negative size. Barfs with No "content-type" in CGI environment error. File-Export-Sharepoint Template: barfs with a A World Wide Web browser, such as Windows Internet Explorer, is required to use this feature error. Site-Administration-Backup Web Site: wants to create the backup .cmp file on the sharepoint server itself. I don't have access to any servers on the same network so I can't redirect it to any form of the suggested \\server\place. Barfs with a The Web application at $URL could not be found. [...] error. Possibly moot because Google tells me that bad things happen using OSD to back up sites larger than 24MB (which this site is most definitely). So I called the helpdesk of the outsource provider, and got told that they recommend using OSD, but no they don't actually provide any application support for OSD (not that I blame them for that), but they could do a stsadm.exe backup and provide us with that, and OSD should be able to read the resulting cmp file. Then for authorization reasons they had my customer call them directly (since I can't authorize such an operation), and they told him that he didn't want a stsadm.exe backup, he wanted to get into an 'explorer view' and deal with things that way (they were vague). Google hasn't been much help in figuring out what an 'explorer view' is, let alone how I bring one up. The end goal of this operation is to have a backup of the site as it exists (hopefully today, but shortly anyways) in such a format that we don't need another sharepoint server to restore it to. Ie we'd like to be able to pick individual content directly out of this backup. We are not excessively concerned with things like formatting. We just want the documents. This is a fairly complex site with multiple subsites and multiple folders per subsite, so sitting there and manually downloading each file isn't really going to happen if there is a better easier way. So, my questions: Is the stsadm.exe backup what I want? If not, what do I want? If I manage to convince them that I do want the stsadm.exe backup, can I pick files out of the resulting backup file with OSD? If OSD isn't going to let me extract individual files, is there a tool I can use that can?

    Read the article

  • How to delete files and folders that cannot be deleted?

    - by glenneroo
    I have a backup copy of a previous Windows' Documents and Settings folder which only contains my original user and within 2 more directories: Favorites and Local Settings. When I try to delete Local Settings I get this error: When I try to delete Favorites, I get this error: I ran this in a cmd shell: attrib *.* -r -a -s -h /s ...but it did not help, nor did it return any errors/warnings. I used Unlocker v1.8.5 and LockHunter repeatedly at multiple levels to see if any files are in use, but both always say: No Files Locked. Update #1: I was able to rename the directory, which now gives me this warning before (trying to) delete: If I press Yes (or Yes to All) then I get this error: Update #2: I let chkdsk /f run which required a reboot since it's on my primary system partition. During Stage 2 scanning, I received about 40 of these: Deleting an index entry from index $0 of file 25. ...followed by: Deleting index entry cookies in index $I30 of file 37576. ...but I still get the first error dialog above when trying to delete. I ran chkdsk again, this time: chkdsk /f /r. Produced no messages. Same result when deleting. Update #3: Digging deeper, the 99 is the name of one of many directories located deep in here: C:\Documents and Settings.OLD\User\Local Settings\Application Data\Microsoft\Messenger\[email protected]\SharingMetadata\[email protected]\DFSR\Staging\CS{D4E4AE55-B5E2-F03B-5189-6C4DA6E41788}\ Inside each of those directories were files with names such as: 2300-{C93D01AC-0739-4FD9-88C7-13D2F21A208E}-v2300-{C93D01AC-0739-4FD9-88C7-13D2F21A208E}-v2300-Downloaded.frx I noticed that, unlike all the directories, I couldn't rename any of these files. I also noticed that the file + dir names were extremely long: Original directory = 194 characters Filenames = 100+ characters Together the length exceeds the 255-char limit which is bad and would explain the error message I posted in Update #1. Partial Solution: Rename all directories until the total path length is less than 100. Afterwards I was able to rename the .frx files, not to mention delete everything inside the Local Settings directory. This is only a partial solution because these (empty) directories are still not deleteable, C:\1\2\Favorites\Wien\What To Do.. C:\1\2\Favorites\Photography\FIRE Same error as above: Here is what Explorer properties shows for both folders: Update #4 (another partial solution): Using harrymc's answer combined with thoroughly reading through this amazing MS-KB article which contains nearly everyone's idea and then some, inconspicuously titled: You cannot delete a file or a folder on an NTFS file system volume. I was able to delete the 2nd folder C:\1\2\Favorites\Photography\FIRE - the problem being that there was an invisible trailing space at the end. I got lucky when I did an auto-complete whilst playing around with the del "\\?\<path>" command which he suggested. NOTE: A normal del did NOT work, nor did deleting from explorer. Now all that is left is the first directory C:\1\2\Favorites\Wien\What To Do.. (yes I tried endlessly with multiple combinations of the above solution ;) Keep 'em coming! =)

    Read the article

  • Windows 7, HTTPS WebDav: Asks for password twice and fails. Any workarounds?

    - by AutoDMC
    Howdy. I have a Dav server running with PHP SabreDav (code.google.com/p/sabredav/wiki/Windows) on Cherokee at an HTTPS secured URL. It's set to use https, and uses Digest Authentication. I can log in with multiple browsers and a few third party clients (BitKinex and Java AnyClient can connect and browse as well, caveats below). However, when attempting to log in with Windows 7 (surprise, surprise), it asks for my password twice, then tells me that my folder is invalid. I have verified that the server is using Digest authentication. I've verified multiple times that third party software can connect. I even went out and bought a GoDaddy SSL certificate so my SSL wouldn't be self signed anymore. I've applied the registry hacks here: support.microsoft.com/kb/943280 (Note that the article says the "fix" already exists for Windows 7, I just need magical registry hax to get it to work) I've applied the registry hacks here: support.microsoft.com/kb/941050 I've applied the registry hacks here: support.microsoft.com/kb/841215 (Supposedly allows Basic Auth, which shouldn't apply, but why not?) All to no avail; Windows continues to ask for my password twice, then state that "The folder you entered does not appear to be valid. Please choose another." Try the command line? Sure: I've attempted to access with NET USE "https://dav.example.com/" password /USER:me (System error 59) I've attempted to access with NET USE "https://dav.example.com/" (System error 1790) I've attempted to access with NET USE "https://dav.example.com/subdir/" password /USER:me (System error 59) I've attempted to access with NET USE "https://dav.example.com/subdir/" (System error 1790) For good luck: ping dav.example.com ... works. And again, web browsers can access the share just fine, so can third party tools. Best I can tell at this point is "HAHA, NO WEBDAV FOR YOU ON WINDOWS 7" which would be fine except everyone who will be using this application... uses Windows 7. And most are not as persistent or pugnacious as I am. I feel like I've burned through every random suggestion I've found anywhere in the first 10 pages of Google on every search term I can think of. Any ideas? I need it to be Webdav, I need it to be over HTTPS, and I really do need a method to access it from Windows 7. EXTRA DETAIL: However, the "third party" programs I've tried have either been buggy, incomplete, or have silly ... "glitches." For example, BitKinex seems to fixate on any http error codes sent, so if there's a glitch reading a directory, BAM, that directory is always listed empty. Long directory listings also show up as blank, even though the transfer panel shows that directory listing is still taking place. In any case, BitKinex is useless for development purposes for the reasons above. And besides, I'm building this for people other than myself, people who will want to get this dav share working "the regular way."

    Read the article

  • Bind9 Debian Not responding

    - by Marc
    Im trying to set up a webserver with Bind9, apache2 on Debian 6. I am trying to learn to do it manualy so I do not have any control panels or anything just the command line. I have a domain name lets call it www.example.com I want a virtual host setup so that I can have multiple websites with different names on my server. I have ns1.example.com and ns2.example.com registered at my servers IP (123.456.789.12). Below is my Bind9 named.conf.options options { directory "/var/cache/bind"; // If there is a firewall between you and nameservers you want // to talk to, you may need to fix the firewall to allow multiple // ports to talk. See http://www.kb.cert.org/vuls/id/800113 // If your ISP provided one or more IP addresses for stable // nameservers, you probably want to use them as forwarders. // Uncomment the following block, and insert the addresses replacing // the all-0's placeholder. // forwarders { // 0.0.0.0; // }; auth-nxdomain no; # conform to RFC1035 listen-on-v6 { any; }; }; This is the default I'm not sure if i was supposed to edit it. I didn't. Here is my named.conf.default-zones: // prime the server with knowledge of the root servers zone "." { type hint; file "/etc/bind/db.root"; }; // be authoritative for the localhost forward and reverse zones, and for // broadcast zones as per RFC 1912 zone "localhost" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.local"; }; zone "127.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.127"; }; zone "0.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.0"; }; zone "255.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.255"; }; zone "example.com.com" { type master; file "etc/bind/example.com.db"; }; named.conf.local Is an empty file with a comment saying to do local configuration here. example.com.db looks like this: ; BIND data file for mywebsite.com ; $ORIGIN example.com. $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA ns1.example.com. [email protected]. ( 2009120101 ; Serial 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL ; IN NS ns1.example.com. IN NS ns2.example.com. IN MX 10 mail.example.com. localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 example.com. IN A 123.456.789.12 ns1 IN A 123.456.789.12 ns2 IN A 123.456.789.12 www IN A 123.456.789.12 ftp IN A 123.456.789.12 mail IN A 123.456.789.12 boards IN CNAME www These are all settings I've found from various tutorials. Now when i go to intodns I get: You should already know that your NS records at your nameservers are missing, so here it is again: ns1.example.com ns2.example.com Can someone help me? I'm not sure what Im doing wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to use Public IP in case of two ISP when two differs from each other

    - by user1471995
    Please bare with my long explanation but this is important to explain the actual problem. Please also pardon my knowledge with PFsense as i am new to this. I have single PFSense box with 3 Ethernet adapter. Before moving to configuration for these, i want to let you know i have two Ethernet based Internet Leased Line Connectivity let's call them ISP A and ISP B. Then last inetrface is LAN which is connected to network switch. Typical network diagram ISP A ----- PFSense ----> Switch ---- > Servers ISP B ----- ISP A (Initially Purchased) WAN IP:- 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway IP :- 113.193.X.A and other 4 usable public IP in same subnet(So the gateway for those IP are also same). ISP B (Recently Purchased) WAN IP:- 115.115.X.X /30 Gateway IP :- 115.115.X.B and other 5 usable public IP in different subnet(So the gateway for those IP is different), for example if 115.119.X.X2 is one of the IP from that list then the gateway for this IP is 115.119.X.X1. Configuration for 3 Interfaces Interface : WAN Network Port : nfe0 Type : Static IP Address : 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway : 113.193.X.A Interface : LAN Network Port : vr0 Type : Static IP Address : 192.168.1.1 /24 Gateway : None Interface : RELWAN Network Port : rl0 Type : Static IP Address : 115.115.X.X /30 (I am not sure of the subnet) Gateway : 115.115.X.B To use Public IP from ISP A i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 53 (DNS) 192.168.1.5 53 (DNS) WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.5 80 (HTTP) WAN TCP * * 113.193.X.X2 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.7 80 (HTTP) etc., c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the WAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at WAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * Block private networks * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * To use Public IP from ISP B i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- RELWAN TCP/UDP * * 115.119.116.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.11 80 (HTTP) c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the RELWAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at RELWAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * Last thing before my actual query is to make you aware that to have multiple Wan setup i have done following steps a) Under System: Gateways at Groups Tab i have created new group as following MultipleGateway WANGW, RELWAN Tier 2,Tier 1 Multiple Gateway Test b) Then Under Firewall: Rules at LAN tab i have created a rule for internal traffic as follows * LAN net * * * MultipleGateway none c) This setup works if unplug first ISP traffic start routing using ISP 2 and vice-versa. Now my main query and problem is i am not able to use public IP address allocated by ISP B, i have tried many small tweaks but not successful in anyone. The notable difference between the two ISP is a) In case of ISP A there Public usable IP address are on same subnet so the gateway used for the WAN ip is same for the other public IP address. b) In case of ISP B there public usable IP address are on different subnet so the obvious the gateway IP for them is different from WAN gateway's IP. Please let me know how to use ISP B public usable IP address, in future also i am going to rely for more IPs from ISP B only.

    Read the article

  • How to use iptables to forward all data from an IP to a Virtual Machine

    - by jro
    OK, in an attempt to get some response, a TL;DR version. I know that the following command: iptables -A PREROUTING -t nat -i eth0 --dport 80 --source 1.1.1.1 -j REDIRECT --to-port 8080 ... will redirect all traffic from port 80 to port 8080. The problem is that I have to do this for every port that is to be redirected. To be future-proof, I want all ports for an IP to be redirected to a different (internal) IP, so that if one might decide to enable SSH, they can directly connect without worrying about iptables. What is needed to reliable forward all traffic from an external IP, to an internal IP, and vice versa? Extended version I've scoured the internet for this, but I never got a solid answer. What I have is one physical server (HOST), with several virtual machines (VM) that need traffic redirected to them. Just getting it to work with a single machine is enough for now. The VM's run under VirtualBox, and are set to use a host-only adapter (vboxnet0). Everything seems to work, but it is greatly lagging. Both the host (CentOS 5.6) and the guest (Ubuntu 10.04) machine are running Linux. What I did was the following: Configure the VM to have a static IP in the network of the vboxnet0 adapter. Add an IP alias to the host, registering to the dedicated (outside) IP. Setup iptables to allow traffic to come through (via sysctl). Configure iptables to DNAT and SNAT data from a given IP address to the internal address. iptables commands: sudo iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT sudo iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE iptables -t nat -I PREROUTING -d $OUT_IP -I eth0 -j DNAT --to-destination $IN_IP iptables -t nat -I POSTROUTING -s $IN_IP -o eth0 -j SNAT --to-source $OUT_IP Now the site works, but is really, really slow. I'm hoping I missed something simple, but I'm out of ideas for now. Some background info: before this, the site was working with basic port forwarding. E.g. port 80 was mapped to port 8080 using iptables. In VirtualBox (having the network adapter configured as NAT), a port forwarding the other way around made things work beautifully. The problem was twofold: first, multiple ports needed to be forwarded (for admin interfaces, https, ssh, etc). Second, it only allowed one IP address to use port 80. To resolve things, multiple external IP addresses are used for different (sub)domains. Likewise, the "VirtualBox" network will contain the virtual machines: DNS Ext. IP Adapter VM "VirtalBox" IP ------------------------------------------------------------------ a.example.com 1.1.1.1 eth0:1 vm_guest_1 192.168.56.1 b.example.com 2.2.2.2 eth0:2 vm_guest_2 192.168.56.2 c.example.com 3.3.3.3 eth0:3 vm_guest_3 192.168.56.3 And so on. Put simply, the goal is to channel all traffic from a.example.com to vm_guest_1 (of put differently, from 1.1.1.1 to 192.168.56.1). And achieve this with an acceptable speed :).

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 SignTool.exe not found

    - by Maslow
    I can't publish in 2008, I was previously using 2005 and it published just fine. Error 2 An error occurred while signing: SignTool.exe not found. I know there are tons of hits for a search on signtool.exe on google. The ones I've found involve copying the file to X,Y,Z locations and ensuring signtool matches up with your VS command prompt path. When I run my start- program files - visual studio 2008 - Visual Studio Tools - Visual Studio Command prompt. and type signtool.exe it finds the file just fine. I have Visual Studio 2005 professional edition, Visual studio 2008 profession edition, Visual studio 2005 SDK February 2007, just installed Visial Studio 2008 SDK1.1 to see if that would fix it, no luck. I have copied signtool.exe to lots of places that were suggested on the google searches, it is now located at all of the following: C:\Program Files\Visual Studio 2005 SDK\2007.02 C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\Tools C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VB\Bin C:\WINNT\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5 C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bin C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\Common7\Tools\Bin C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\SDK\v2.0\Bin C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\SDK\v3.5\Bin C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VB\Bin\1033 C:\Program Files\Visual Studio 2005 SDK\2007.02\VisualStudioIntegration\Tools\Bin I'm on windows XP 2009-06-12 update I can only publish if I copy signtool.exe to the project folder I'm publishing now.

    Read the article

  • NSString variable out of scope in sub-class (iPhone/Obj-C)

    - by Rich
    I am following along with an example in a book with the code exactly as it is in the example code as well as from the book, and I'm getting an error at runtime. I'll try to describe the life cycle of this variable as good as I can. I have a controller class with a nested array that is populated with string literals (NSArray of NSArrays, the nested NSArrays initialized with arrayWithObjects: where the objects are all string literals - @"some string"). I access these strings with a helper method added via a category on NSArray (to pull strings out of a nested array). My controller gets a reference to this string and assigns it to a NSString property on a child controller using dot notation. The code looks like this (nestedObjectAtIndexPath is my helper method): NSString *rowKey = [rowKeys nestedObjectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; controller.keypath = rowKey; keypath is a synthesized nonatomic, retain property defined in a based class. When I hit a breakpoint in the controller at the above code, the NSString's value is as expected. When I hit the next breakpoint inside the child controller, the object id of the keypath property is the same as before, but instead of showing me the value of the NSString, XCode says that the variable is "out of scope" which is also the error I see in the console. This also happens in another sub-class of the same parent. I tried googling, and I saw slightly similar cases where people were suggesting this had to do with retain counts. I was under the impression that by using dot notation on a synthesized property, my class would be using an "auto generated accessor" that would be increasing my retain count for me so that I wouldn't have this problem. Could there be any implications because I'm accessing it in a sub-class and the prop is defined in the parent? I don't see anything in the book's errata about this, but the book is relatively new (Apress - More iPhone 3 Dev). I also have double checked that my code matches the example 100 times.

    Read the article

  • Web application development platform recommendation

    - by TK.Maxi
    Hi all I did a year's worth of Pascal, Visual Basic and C++ 15 years ago, so suffice it to say that I'm a complete n00b & lamer when it comes to this. I really do hope that this question doesn't canned, but if it does, please be so kind as to point me in the direction of where it should be posted. I have an idea, like so many others, for a web app. I don't necessarily have the capital to outsource the development of the app right now, and I probably wouldn't want to, since non-disclosure agreements can be expensive to enforce, especially in this day and age of intercontinental outsourcing. I need the app to be usable on any mobile device (eventually), primarily on the major mobile platforms at first, on the web, (pc/mac/*ix) obviously, on mobile web browsers like opera mobile, etc. I envisage the app interacting with the major social networks like fb, orkut, msn im, twitter, et al in a way where friend's are messaged and/or wall posted, a message is posted to the users wall. Geo-location functionality is a plus, considering the service/app can be location sensitive in two ways, 1, the immediate location of the user, 2. the desired location of the user. I'd like to incorporate OpenID sign on, and the flip-side, the service will require that people (service providers) list their specialities/specialisations/interests/areas of expertise, so that matches to user requests can be made by the service, while users' requests are posted into the web universe. I've probably described a glut of apps out there, but I'd appreciate feedback on the sort of platform that I should look at using, be it hosted on something like Google's app engine, or written in android friendly code, or whatever. I'm a firm believer in herd mentality, especially at the start of a project that I have very little experience in. The more opinions, the merrier! I can't get very much more specific, since that would give the idea away. Thanks for your time and I look forward to hearing from wise and experienced and the fresh and innovative alike. Thanks

    Read the article

  • unable to get "ItemValue" of selected item using f:selectitems tag in ace:autocompleteEntry

    - by user1641976
    i want to get the Value of selectItem (ItemValue which is an Integer and the Item Label is String) in my backing bean using autocompleteentry tag of icefaces 3.1.0 but i get error: here is the code: <tr> <td>Current City</td> <td> <ace:autoCompleteEntry value="#{service.cityId}" styleClass="select-field" rows="10" width="400" filterMatchMode="" > <f:selectItems value="#{service.cities}" ></f:selectItems> </ace:autoCompleteEntry> </td> </tr> Bean is : public class Service{ private Integer cityId; public Integer getCityId() { return cityId; } public void setCityId(Integer cityId) { this.cityId= cityId; } private <SelectItem> cities; public List<SelectItem> getCities() { return cities=Dao.getCityList(); } public void setCities(List<SelectItem> cities) { this.cities= cities; } } the cities has itemvalue as a number and itemLabel as String stored in it. I do get autocomplete fine and shows list of matches if i store value in some String property of backing bean but if storing in integer property of bean, gives this error as soon i write something in autocomplete. INFO: WARNING: FacesMessage(s) have been enqueued, but may not have been displayed. sourceId=frmmaster:j_idt205:txtcity[severity=(ERROR 2), summary=(frmmaster:j_idt205:txtcity: 'a' must be a number consisting of one or more digits.), detail=(frmmaster:j_idt205:txtcity: 'a' must be a number between -2147483648 and 2147483647 Example: 9346)] Kindly reply any person i need to solve this issue as soon as possible.

    Read the article

  • How to detect the character encoding of a text file?

    - by Cédric Boivin
    I try to detect which character encoding is used in my file. I try with this code to get the standard encoding public static Encoding GetFileEncoding(string srcFile) { // *** Use Default of Encoding.Default (Ansi CodePage) Encoding enc = Encoding.Default; // *** Detect byte order mark if any - otherwise assume default byte[] buffer = new byte[5]; FileStream file = new FileStream(srcFile, FileMode.Open); file.Read(buffer, 0, 5); file.Close(); if (buffer[0] == 0xef && buffer[1] == 0xbb && buffer[2] == 0xbf) enc = Encoding.UTF8; else if (buffer[0] == 0xfe && buffer[1] == 0xff) enc = Encoding.Unicode; else if (buffer[0] == 0 && buffer[1] == 0 && buffer[2] == 0xfe && buffer[3] == 0xff) enc = Encoding.UTF32; else if (buffer[0] == 0x2b && buffer[1] == 0x2f && buffer[2] == 0x76) enc = Encoding.UTF7; else if (buffer[0] == 0xFE && buffer[1] == 0xFF) // 1201 unicodeFFFE Unicode (Big-Endian) enc = Encoding.GetEncoding(1201); else if (buffer[0] == 0xFF && buffer[1] == 0xFE) // 1200 utf-16 Unicode enc = Encoding.GetEncoding(1200); return enc; } My five first byte are 60, 118, 56, 46 and 49. Is there a chart that shows which encoding matches those five first bytes?

    Read the article

  • How to prevent duplicate records being inserted with SqlBulkCopy when there is no primary key

    - by kscott
    I receive a daily XML file that contains thousands of records, each being a business transaction that I need to store in an internal database for use in reporting and billing. I was under the impression that each day's file contained only unique records, but have discovered that my definition of unique is not exactly the same as the provider's. The current application that imports this data is a C#.Net 3.5 console application, it does so using SqlBulkCopy into a MS SQL Server 2008 database table where the columns exactly match the structure of the XML records. Each record has just over 100 fields, and there is no natural key in the data, or rather the fields I can come up with making sense as a composite key end up also having to allow nulls. Currently the table has several indexes, but no primary key. Basically the entire row needs to be unique. If one field is different, it is valid enough to be inserted. I looked at creating an MD5 hash of the entire row, inserting that into the database and using a constraint to prevent SqlBulkCopy from inserting the row,but I don't see how to get the MD5 Hash into the BulkCopy operation and I'm not sure if the whole operation would fail and roll back if any one record failed, or if it would continue. The file contains a very large number of records, going row by row in the XML, querying the database for a record that matches all fields, and then deciding to insert is really the only way I can see being able to do this. I was just hoping not to have to rewrite the application entirely, and the bulk copy operation is so much faster. Does anyone know of a way to use SqlBulkCopy while preventing duplicate rows, without a primary key? Or any suggestion for a different way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Modify python USB device driver to only use vendor_id and product_id, excluding BCD

    - by Tony
    I'm trying to modify the Android device driver for calibre (an e-book management program) so that it identifies devices by only vendor id and product id, and excludes BCD. The driver is a fairly simply python plugin, and is currently set up to use all three numbers, but apparently, when Android devices use custom Android builds (ie CyanogenMod for the Nexus One), it changes the BCD so calibre stops recognizing it. The current code looks like this, with a simple list of vendor id's, that then have allowed product id's and BCD's with them: VENDOR_ID = { 0x0bb4 : { 0x0c02 : [0x100], 0x0c01 : [0x100]}, 0x22b8 : { 0x41d9 : [0x216]}, 0x18d1 : { 0x4e11 : [0x0100], 0x4e12: [0x0100]}, 0x04e8 : { 0x681d : [0x0222]}, } The line I'm specifically trying to change is: 0x18d1 : { 0x4e11 : [0x0100], 0x4e12: [0x0100]}, Which is, the line for identifying a Nexus One. My N1, running CyanogenMod 5.0.5, has the BCD 0x0226, and rather than just adding it to the list, I'd prefer to eliminate the BCD from the recognition process, so that any device with vendor id 0x18d1 and product id 0x4e11 or 0x4e12 would be recognized. The custom Android rom doesn't change enough for the specifics to matter. The syntax seems to require the BCD in brackets. How can I edit this so that it matches anything in that field?

    Read the article

  • NSPredicates, scopes and SearchDisplayController

    - by Bryan Veloso
    Building a search with some custom objects and three scopes: All, Active, and Former. Got it working with the below code: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString *)scope { [[self filteredArtists] removeAllObjects]; for (HPArtist *artist in [self artistList]) { if ([scope isEqualToString:@"All"] || [[artist status] isEqualToString:scope]) { NSComparisonResult result = [[artist displayName] compare:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch) range:NSMakeRange(0, [searchText length])]; if (result == NSOrderedSame) { [[self filteredArtists] addObject:artist]; } } } } This works fine and takes scope into account. Since I wanted to search four fields at at time, this question helped me come up with the below code: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString *)scope { [[self filteredArtists] removeAllObjects]; NSPredicate *resultPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"familyName CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR familyKanji CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR givenName CONTAINS[cd] %@ OR givenKanji CONTAINS[cd] %@", searchText, searchText, searchText, searchText]; [[self filteredArtists] addObjectsFromArray:[[self artistList] filteredArrayUsingPredicate:resultPredicate]]; } However it no longer takes scope into account. I have been playing around with if statements, adding AND scope == 'Active', etc. to the end of the statement and using NSCompoundPredicates to no avail. Whenever I activate a scope, I'm not getting any matches for it. Just a note that I've seen approaches like this one that take scope into account, however they only search inside one property.

    Read the article

  • Kohana 3: How to find the active item in a dynamic menu

    - by Svish
    Maybe not the best explanation, but hear me out. Say I have the following in a config file called menu.php: // Default controller is 'home' and default action is 'index' return array( 'items' => array( 'Home' => '', 'News' => 'news', 'Resources' => 'resources', ), ); I now want to print this out as a menu, which is pretty simple: foreach(Kohana::config('menu.items') as $title => $uri) { echo '<li>' . HTML::anchor($uri, $title) . '</li>'; } However, I want to find the $uri that matches the current controller and action. And if the action is the default one or not. What I want to end up with is that menu item should have id="active-item" if it is the linking to the current controller, but the default action. And id="active-subitem if it is linking to the current controller and the action is not the default one. Hope that made sense... Anyone able to help me out here? Both in how to do this in Kohana 3 and also how it should be done in Kohana 3. I'm sure there are lots of ways, but yeah... any help is welcome :) Examples: domain.com -- Home should be active-item since it is the default controller domain.com/home -- Home should be active-item domain.com/home/index -- Home should be active-item since index is the default action domain.com/resources -- Resources should be active-item domain.com/resources/get/7 -- Resources should be active-subitem since get is not the default action

    Read the article

  • Convert Javascript Regular Expression to PHP (PCRE) Expression

    - by Matt
    Hi all, I am up to my neck in regular expressions, and I have this regular expression that works in javascript (and flash) that I just can't get working in PHP Here it is: var number = '(?:-?\\b(?:0|[1-9][0-9]*)(?:\\.[0-9]+)?(?:[eE][+-]?[0-9]+)?\\b)'; var oneChar = '(?:[^\\0-\\x08\\x0a-\\x1f\"\\\\]' + '|\\\\(?:[\"/\\\\bfnrt]|u[0-9A-Fa-f]{4}))'; var str = '(?:\"' + oneChar + '*\")'; var varName = '\\$(?:' + oneChar + '[^ ,]*)'; var func = '(?:{[ ]*' + oneChar + '[^ ]*)'; // Will match a value in a well-formed JSON file. // If the input is not well-formed, may match strangely, but not in an unsafe // way. // Since this only matches value tokens, it does not match whitespace, colons, // or commas. var jsonToken = new RegExp( '(?:false|true|null' +'|[\\}]' + '|' + varName + '|' + func + '|' + number + '|' + str + ')', 'g'); If you want it fully assembled here it is: /(?:false|true|null|[\}]|\$(?:(?:[^\0-\x08\x0a-\x1f"\\]|\\(?:["/\\bfnrt]|u[0-9A-Fa-f]{4}))[^ ,]*)|(?:{[ ]*(?:[^\0-\x08\x0a-\x1f"\\]|\\(?:["/\\bfnrt]|u[0-9A-Fa-f]{4}))[^ ]*)|(?:-?\b(?:0|[1-9][0-9]*)(?:\.[0-9]+)?(?:[eE][+-]?[0-9]+)?\b)|(?:"(?:[^\0-\x08\x0a-\x1f"\\]|\\(?:["/\\bfnrt]|u[0-9A-Fa-f]{4}))*"))/g Interestingly enough, its very similar to JSON. I need this regular expression to work in PHP... Here's what I have in PHP: $number = '(?:-?\\b(?:0|[1-9][0-9]*)(?:\\.[0-9]+)?(?:[eE][+-]?[0-9]+)?\\b)'; $oneChar = '(?:[^\\0-\\x08\\x0a-\\x1f\"\\\\]|\\\\(?:[\"/\\\\bfnrt]|u[0-9A-Fa-f]{4}))'; $string = '(?:\"'.$oneChar.'*\")'; $varName = '\\$(?:'.$oneChar.'[^ ,]*)'; $func = '(?:{[ ]*'.$oneChar.'[^ ]*)'; $jsonToken = '(?:false|true|null' .'|[\\}]' .'|'.$varName .'|'.$func .'|'.$number .'|'.$string .')'; echo $jsonToken; preg_match_all($jsonToken, $content, $out); return $out; Here's what happens if I try using preg_match_all(): Warning: preg_match_all() [function.preg-match-all]: Compilation failed: nothing to repeat at offset 0 in /Users/Matt/Sites/Templating/json/Jeeves.php on line 88 Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >