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• Trying to write up a C daemon, but don't know enough C to continue

  - by JamesM-SiteGen

  Okay, so I want this daemon to run in the background with little to no interaction. I plan to have it work with Apache, lighttpd, etc to send the session & request information to allow C to generate a website from an object DB, saving will have to be an option so, you can start the daemon with an existing DB but will not save to it unless you login to the admin area and enable, and restart the daemon. Summary of the daemon: Load a database from file. Have a function to restart the daemon. Allow Apache, lighttpd, etc to get necessary data about the request and session. A varible to allow the database to be saved to the file, otherwise it will only be stored in ram. If it is set to save back to the file, then only have neccessary data in ram. Use sql-light for the database file. Build a webpage from some template files. $(myVar) for getting variables. Get templates from a directory. ./templates/01-test/{index.html,template.css,template.js} Live version of the code and more information: http://typewith.me/YbGB1h1g1p Also I am working on a website CMS in php, but I am tring to switch to C as it is faster than php. ( php is quite fast, but the fact that making a few mySQL requests for every webpage is quite unefficent and I'm sure that it can be far better, so an object that we can recall data from in C would have to be faster ) P.S I am using Arch-Linux not MS-Windows, with the package group base-devel for the common developer tools such as make and makepgk. Edit: Oupps, forgot the question ;) Okay, so the question is, how can I turn this basic C daemon into a base to what I am attempting to do here?

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• Efficiently Serving Dynamic Content in Google App Engine

  - by awegawef

  My app on google app engine returns content items (just text) and comments on them. It works like this (pseudo-ish code): query: get keys of latest content #query to datastore for each item in content if item_dict in memcache: use item_dict else: build_item_dict(item) #by fetching from datastore store item_dict in memcache send all item_dicts to template Sorry if the code isn't understandable. I get all of the content dictionaries and send them to the template, which uses them to create the webpage. My problem is that if the memcache has expired, for each item I want to display, I have to (1) lookup item in memcache, (2) since no memcache exists I must fetch item from the datastore, and (3) store the item in memcache. These calls build up quickly. I don't set an expire time for the entries to the memcache, so this really only happens once in the morning, but the webpage takes long enough to load (~1 sec) that the browser reports it as not existing. Regularly, my webpages take about 50ms to load. This approach works decently for frequent visits, but it has its flaws as shown above. How can I remedy this? The entries are dynamic enough that I don't think it would be in my best interest to cache my initial request. Thanks in advance

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• How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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• Webserver sending corrupt or corrupting served files

  - by NotIan

  EDIT: Looks like the problem was a rootkit that corrupted a bunch of low level linux commands, including top, ps, ifconfig, netstat and others. The problem was resolved by taking all web files off the server and wiping it. A dedicated server we operate is having a strange issue. Files are not be sent complete or are showing up with garbage data. Example: http://sustainablefitness.com/images/banner_bootcamps.jpg To make matters more confusing this corruption does NOT happen when the files are served as https, (I would post a link, but I don't have enough rep points, just add an 's' after http in the link above.) When I throw load at the server, I get dozens of (swapd)s in top this is the only thing that really jumps out. I can't post images but ( imgur.com / ZArSq.png ) is a screenshot of top. I have tried a lot of stuff so far, I am willing to try anything that I can. A dedicated server we operate is having a strange issue. Files are not be sent complete or are showing up with garbage data. Example: http://sustainablefitness.com/images/banner_bootcamps.jpg To make matters more confusing this corruption does NOT happen when the files are served as https, (I would post a link, but I don't have enough rep points, just add an 's' after http in the link above.) When I throw load at the server, I get dozens of (swapd)s in top this is the only thing that really jumps out. I can't post images but ( imgur.com / ZArSq.png ) is a screenshot of top. I have tried a lot of stuff so far, I am willing to try anything that I can.

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• How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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• CGGradient Not Displaying Correctly on iPad 1 and 2

  - by daveMac

  I have been experimenting with creating my own gradients for the UI in my iOS app. I first used a CAGradientLayer but I was disappointed with the "stepped" look so I have been trying out CGGradient. enter code here I am having an issue with the Gradient displaying correctly. I have three iPads—one for each generation. The gradient looks right on the iPad 3 but not on the iPad 1 or 2. This is really strange. I was going to take a screenshot and post the two differences but even more strange, the screenshot look the same (and yes, the brightness is the same on both). The colors seem really washed out on the older iPads. I know the iPad 3 is a retina display, but I think it must be something more than that. Here is the code I am using: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef currentContext = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGGradientRef skyGradient; CGColorSpaceRef rgbColorspace; size_t num_locations = 3; CGFloat locations[3] = { 0.0, .5, 1.0 }; CGFloat components[12] = { .106, .73, .93333, 1., 0.0, 0.0 , 1.0, 1., .106, .73, .93333, 1. }; rgbColorspace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); skyGradient = CGGradientCreateWithColorComponents(rgbColorspace, components, locations, num_locations); CGRect currentBounds = self.bounds; CGPoint topLeft = CGPointMake(0.0f, 0.0f); CGPoint bottomRight = CGPointMake(CGRectGetMaxX(currentBounds), CGRectGetMaxY(currentBounds)); CGContextDrawLinearGradient(currentContext, skyGradient, topLeft, bottomRight, 0); CGGradientRelease(skyGradient); CGColorSpaceRelease(rgbColorspace); }

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• How to put JFrame into existing JPanel in Java Swing?

  - by suud

  I have an open-source java swing application like this: http://i47.tinypic.com/dff4f7.jpg You can see in the screenshot, there is a JPanel divided into two area, left and right area. The left area has many text links. When I click the SLA Criteria link, it will pop-up the SLA Criteria window. The pop-up window is JFrame object. Now, I'm trying to put the pop-up window into right area of the JPanel, so that means no pop-up window anymore, i.e. when I click the SLA Criteria link, its contents will be displayed at the right area of the JPanel. The existing content of the right area of JPanel will not be used anymore. The example illustration (note: it's made and edited using image editor, this is not the real screenshot of working application) is like this: http://i48.tinypic.com/5vrxaa.jpg So, I would like to know is there a way to put JFrame into JPanel? I'm thinking of using JInternalFrame, is it possible? Or is there another way? UPDATE: Source code: http://pastebin.com/tiqRbWP8 (VTreePanel.java, this is the JPanel) http://pastebin.com/330z3yuT (CPanel.java, this is the super class of VTreePanel) http://pastebin.com/MkNsbtjh (AWindow.java, this is the JFrame, pop-up window) http://pastebin.com/2rsppQeE (CFrame.java, this is the super class of AWindow)

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• Problem with floating divs in IE8

  - by hivehicks

  I want to make two block stand side by side. In Opera, Chrome and Firefox I get the expected result with the code I use. But IE8 refuses to display it correctly. Here's IE8 screenshot: http://ipicture.ru/upload/100405/RCFnQI7yZo.png And Chrome screenshot (how it should look like): http://ipicture.ru/upload/100405/4x95HC33zK.png Here's my HTML: <div id="balance-container"> <div id="balance-info-container"> <p class="big" style="margin-bottom: 5px;"> <strong> <span style="color: #56666F;">??????:</span> <span style="color: #E12122;">-2312 ???</span> </strong> </p> <p class="small minor"><strong>????????? 1000 ???. ?? 1.05.10</strong></p> </div> <div id="balance-button-container"> <button id="pay-button" class="green-button">????????? ????</button> </div> </div> And CSS: #balance-container { margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; width: 390px; } #balance-info-container, #balance-button-container { float: left; } #balance-info-container { width: 250px; }

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• webBrower Button Click without element ID?

  - by Jeremy

  I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

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• How do I create a hyperlink in java?

  - by Justin984

  I'm going through the google app engine tutorials at https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/java/gettingstarted/usingusers I'm very new to google app engine, java and web programming in general. So my question is, at the bottom of the page it says to add a link to allow the user to log out. So far I've got this: public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if(user != null){ resp.setContentType("text/plain"); resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()); String logoutLink = String.format("<a href=\"%s\">Click here to log out.</a>", userService.createLogoutURL(req.getRequestURI())); resp.getWriter().println(logoutLink); }else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI())); } } However instead of a link, the full string is printed to the screen including the tags. When I look at the page source, I have no tags or any of the other stuff that goes with a webpage. I guess that makes sense considering I've done nothing to output any of that. Do I just do a bunch of resp.GetWriter().println() statements to output the rest of the webpage, or is there something else I don't know about? Thanks!

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• jquery lightbox multiple items to look like mac dashboard

  - by Don

  Hope the title says it all... I'm wondering if it's possible in any existing lightbox to pop up a look similar to the mac dashboard where multiple divs could be "on" in the front with the main webpage with a gray overlay. Basically something where a user clicks an icon on the main webpage to call, and then 4 separate content boxes are popped on top, but not in a window like a gallery. I'm thinking the top background used could be set to transparent and the individual items could be divs on the popped area, but before I reinvent the wheel, I thought I'd see if there's something like this that I just haven't found in my searches. UPDATE: 1/7/2011 I ended up using colorbox with a background behind my divs. It doesn't look like the mac with items having the bg behind them showing between them, but after talking to the designer I'm working with, that wasn't something they really needed anyhow. I think it MAY be possible changing some of the CSS though for the bg of the "popped" window. Colorbox seems to be pretty nice about making it clear what the CSS is doing and there are multiple example skins. Just my $0.02...

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• Check for child duplicates

  - by ebb

  My console app will loop through each User to get their Websites, so that it can take new screenshots of them. However, to prevent taking screenshot of the same website twice I have to check whether there already has been taken screenshot of the website, while looping through another users websites. My current solution is: Database: User |--> ID: 1 |--> FirstName: Joe |--> ID: 2 |--> FirstName: Stranger Websites |--> ID: 1 |--> UserID: 1 |--> URL: http://site.com |--> ID: 2 |--> UserID: 2 |--> URL: http://site.com Console app: static void RenewWebsiteThumbNails() { Console.WriteLine("Starting renewal process..."); using (_repository) { var websitesUpdated = new List<string>(); foreach (var user in _repository.GetAll()) { foreach (var website in user.Websites.Where(website => !websitesUpdated.Contains(website.URL))) { _repository.TakeScreenDumpAndSave(website.URL); websitesUpdated.Add(website.URL); Console.WriteLine(new string('-', 50)); Console.WriteLine("{0} has successfully been renewed", website.URL); } } } } However, it seems wrong to declare a List for such a scenario, just to check whether a specific URL already has been added... any suggestions for an alternative way?

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• Selenium Webdriver Java - looking for alternatives for Actions and Robot when performing drag-and-drop

  - by Ja-ke Alconcel

  I first tried Actions class and the drag-and-drop does work on different elements, however it was unable to locate the a specific draggable element on it's exact screen/webpage position. Here's the code I've used: Point loc = driver.findElement(By.id("thiselement")).getLocation(); System.out.println(loc); WebElement drag = driver.findElement(By.id("thiselement")); Actions test = new Actions(driver); test.dragAndDropBy(drag, 0, 60).build().perform(); I checked the element with it's pixel location and it prints (837, -52), which was somewhere on top of the webpage and was pixels away from the actual element. Then I tried using the Robot class and works perfectly fine on my script, but can only provide constant successful runs on a single test machine, running it with a different machine with different screen resolution and screen size will render the script to fail due to the dependency of Robot on the pixel location of the element. The sample code of the Robot script I'm using: Robot dragAndDrop = new Robot(); dragAndDrop.mouseMove(945, 166); //actual pixel location of the draggable element dragAndDrop.mousePress(InputEvent.BUTTON1_MASK); sleep(3000); dragAndDrop.mouseMove(945, 226); dragAndDrop.mouseRelease(InputEvent.BUTTON1_MASK); sleep(3000); Is there any alternative for Actions and Robot to automate drag-and-drop? Or maybe a help on working the script to work on Actions as I really can't use Robot. Thanks in advance.

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• Clever Next and Previous Buttons in jQuery

  - by matt

  I have created a webpage which when you press 'down' automatically scrolls down to the next ID (a section which isn't visible due to overflow: hidden) When you press 'up' it scrolls back up. At the moment each arrow simply tells the webpage to go to a specific div e.g. the 'down arrow' says <a class="tab" href="#page2">Down</a> This is ok for just two pages however as I will be having more pages what I would like is to be able to specify the amount of pages and for the arrows to automatically change which link it needs to go to next. For example, on page 1 the 'up arrow' is not visible and when you press the 'down arrow' it scrolls to #page2 whereupon the 'up arrow' is then visible. If you now press the down arrow again it will take you to #page3 whereupon it then becomes hidden as page 3 is the last page. I'm guessing I need to create a 'var' which specifies the amount of pages and that to make the arrows invisible it will change the css property 'display' to none yet I don't know how to do this nor to make the links work out which number to go to next! edit: Just botched together some code which hides the arrows based on the page number however still need to work out how to update the variables and change the links the arrows go to. (please exclude the coding, it's my first time trying to write script as opposed to just editing plugins!) var PageNumber = 1; var PageAmount = 2; function getPageNumber() { } function hideUpArrow() { if(PageNumber==1) { $("#up_arrow").css({ "display": "none" }); } } function hideDownArrow() { if(PageNumber==PageAmount) { $("#down_arrow").css({ "display": "none" }); } } $(document).ready(function(){ hideUpArrow(); });

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• Return lines in input code causing gaps/whitespace between elements in output?

  - by Jenny Zhang

  I am trying to put images next to each other on a webpage. Here is my HTML: <img class="pt" src="Yellow Tulip.jpg" title="Yellow Tulip" alt="Yellow Tulip" /> <img class="pt" src="Pink Tulip.jpg" title="Pink Tulip" alt="Pink Tulip" /> <img class="pt" src="Purple Tulip.jpg" title="Purple Tulip" alt="Purple Tulip" /> However, on my webpage, this shows a gap between each image. I've noticed that once I remove the return line that makes the elements separate and readable and instead just put all the elements on one line, the gaps go away. <img class="pt" src="Yellow Tulip.jpg" title="Yellow Tulip" alt="Yellow Tulip" /><img class="pt" src="Pink Tulip.jpg" title="Pink Tulip" alt="Pink Tulip" /><img class="pt" src="Purple Tulip.jpg" title="Purple Tulip" alt="Purple Tulip" /> Is there anyway I can achieve the output of the latter but still have the code/input look like the former? I really like the readability that the return lines (enter spaces) bring to the code, but I don't want the whitespace it creates on the actual page. If someone could explain why this is and/or how to fix it, I'd be really grateful! :)

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• Parsing URL error

  - by user577875

  It didn't seem like there was a post about this, so here goes. I've been working on a simple app to grab my time table from my school, and get it on my phone. Currently I'm working on the port on android but I've hit an issue. I get the error: java.io.IOException: -1 error loading URL urladress. Code: public void updateTimeTable(){ //Get UID and Birthday SharedPreferences prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(getBaseContext()); String uid = prefs.getString("uid", "000000"); String fods = prefs.getString("fodsdag", "000000"); //Set URL String url = "http://unv1.aalborg-stu.dk/cgi-bin/elevskema.pl?ugen=0&unavn=" + uid + "&fodsdag=" + fods; try { Document doc = Jsoup.connect(url).get(); Elements td = doc.getElementsByTag("td"); //ArrayList<String> tdArray = new ArrayList<String>(); // for (Element tds : td) { // String tdText = tds.text(); // tdArray.add(tdText); //} //String[] data = tdArray.toArray(new String[tdArray.size()]); } catch (IOException e ){ Log.e("Parser", "shite", e); } Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence text = url; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_SHORT; Toast toast = Toast.makeText(context, text, duration); toast.show(); } I've commented some lines out to identify where the issue is, and it seems it's at the actual parsing. Anywho, screenshot of the error I get: Screenshot I got about 4 days worth of Java experience so forgive me if it's something silly. Best Regards

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• Refresh page in browser without resubmitting form

  - by Michael

  I'm an ASP.NET developer, and I usually find myself leaving the webpage that I'm working on open in my browser (Chrome is my browser of choice, but this question is relevant for any browser). My workflow typically goes like this: I write code, I rebuild my project in Visual Studio, and then I flip back to my browser with Alt-Tab and hit F5 to refresh the page. This is fine and dandy if a form hasn't been submitted since the page was opened. But if I've been clicking around on ASP.NET form controls, the page has posted form data a number of times, so hitting F5 causes the browser to (sensibly) pop up a confirmation message, e.g., "Confirm Form Resubmission: The page that you're looking for used information that you entered...". Sometimes I do want to resubmit the form, but more often than not, I just want to start over with the page (rather than resubmit form data). The way I usually get around this is to simply add some query string data to the URL so that the browser sees it as a fresh page request, e.g.: page.aspx becomes page.aspx? (or vice-versa). My question is: Is there a better way to quickly request a fresh version of a webpage (and not submit form data) in any of the major browsers? It seems like a no-brainer to me for web development, but maybe I'm missing something. What I'd love to see is something like the last item in this list: F5: refresh page Ctrl-F5: refresh page (and force cache refresh) Alt-F5: request fresh copy of the page without resubmitting the form

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• JQuery click anywhere except certain divs and issues with dynamically added html

  - by jCuga

  I want this webpage to highlight certain elements when you click on one of them, but if you click anywhere else on the page, then all of these elements should no longer be highlighted. I accomplished this task by the following, and it works just fine except for one thing (described below): $(document).click(function() { // Do stuff when clicking anywhere but on elements of class suggestion_box $(".suggestion_box").css('background-color', '#FFFFFF'); }); $(".suggestion_box").click(function() { // means you clicked on an object belonging to class suggestion_box return false; }); // the code for handling onclicks for each element function clickSuggestion() { // remove all highlighting $(".suggestion_box").css('background-color', '#FFFFFF'); // then highlight only a specific item $("div[name=" + arguments[0] + "]").css('background-color', '#CCFFCC'); } This way of enforcing the highlighting of elements works fine until I add more html to the page without having a new page load. This is done by .append() and .prepend() What I suspected from debugging was that the page is not "aware" of the new elements that were added to the page dynamically. Despite the new, dynamically added elements having the appropriate class names/IDs/names/onclicks ect, they never get highlighted like the rest of the elements (which continue to work fine the entire time). I was wondering if a possible reason for why my approach does not work for the dynamically added content is that the page is not able to recognize the elements that were not present during the pageload. And if this is a possibility, then is there a way to reconcile this without a pageload? If this line of reasoning is wrong, then the code I have above is probably not enough to show what's wrong with my webpage. But I'm really just interested in whether or not this line of thought is a possibility.

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• Access problems with IIS 7 and a WCF service

  - by Steve

  I have a Silverlight app that calls a WCF service, the service calls some stored procedures in an SQL db using Visual Studio 2008's Link to SQL class and returns the information to whatever called it. I have set up the compiled project (website with embedded app and the WCF service) on an remote IIS 7 server. I recompiled my local copy to use the WCF service that is now hosted on the IIS box and not the one on the local dev server that Visual Studio provides, if I use the local version of the website (hosted on the dev server, and using the remote SCF service) it is able to make calls it needs and display the information. However, if I use the website that is being hosted by the remote IIS server, the app will not get the information it needs from the service. On the IIS server I have the application pool and the website running under my credentials, which have access to the database. Users connecting to the webpage use anonymous authentication. Any ideas as to why I can only access the service when running from the dev server and not through the remotely hosted webpage are appreciated. If anything needs clarification, please ask.

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• Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

  - by Jason Axelrod

  I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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• Custom authentication module inheriting IHttpModule issue.

  - by Chandan Khatwani

  LoginPage.aspx:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items["Username"] = txtUserId.Text; Context.Items["Password"] = txtPassword.Text; // FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, Context.Items["Username"].ToString(), DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(10), true, "users", FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // Encrypt the cookie using the machine key for secure transport string hash = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, // Name of auth cookie hash); // Hashed ticket // Set the cookie's expiration time to the tickets expiration time if (ticket.IsPersistent) cookie.Expires = ticket.Expiration; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } Global.asax file:- void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.User != null) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { FormsIdentity id = (FormsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = id.Ticket; // Get the stored user-data, in this case, our roles string userData = ticket.UserData; string[] roles = userData.Split(','); HttpContext.Current.User = new System.Security.Principal.GenericPrincipal(id, roles); Response.Write(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } } } } I get the following error after signing in This webpage has a redirect loop. The webpage at http://localhost:1067/Default.aspx has resulted in too many redirects. Clearing your cookies for this site or allowing third-party cookies may fix the problem. If not, it is possibly a server configuration issue and not a problem with your computer.

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• Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

  - by Christian

  Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

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• Determining if object is visible and clickable

  - by Alan Mendelevich

  I'm looking for ways to effectively determine if a control is actually visible and clickable. I mean beyond checking Visibility property of the object. I can check RenderSize and that would be [0,0] if any of the parent elements is collapsed. So this is simple too. I can also traverse up the visual tree and see if Opacity of all elements is set to 1. What I don't know how to check nicely are these scenarios: The object is obstructed by some other object. Obviously it's possible to use FindElementsInHostCoordinates() and do computations to find out how much these objects obstruct but this could be an overkill. I can also make a "screenshot" of the object in question and "screenshot" of the whole page and check if pixels where my object should be match the actual object pixels. That sounds like an overkill too. The object is obstructed by a transparent object that still "swallows" clicks (taps). The workarounds for the first problem could still fail in this scenario. Any better ideas? Do I miss something? Thanks!

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• How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

  - by doctordoder

  I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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• Need some help setting up subdomains for my site

  - by KarimSaNet

  I'm setting up my website and want to have it so all subdomain requests are rewritten to the appropriate subdirectory. For example http://projects.karimsa.net/ -> http://karimsa.net/projects/ But I want to use the Apache rewrite mod to do this so that the URL in the browser stays the same. Here is what my config looks like at the moment: ## rewrite subdomains RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(.*).karimsa.net RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.karimsa.net [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://karimsa.net/%1/$1 [R=301,L] And my CNAME records on 'projects.karimsa.net': Domain TTL Data Type projects.karimsa.net 14400 karimsa.net CNAME Theoretically, I feel this should work. But when I go to the URL, it gives me a server misconfiguration error, my provider's default webpage. What I should see is the index.php under /projects/. What am I doing wrong? Any help would be appreciated, thanks for reading. Addition: I realized I forgot to mention some of the problem. The domain 'karimsa.net' is parked at 'karimsa.x10.mx'. If I set up the same configuration on 'projects.karimsa.x10.mx', the rewrite and CNAME work. But on the parked domain I still get the default webpage.

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