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  • Silverlight data binding to parent user control's properties with using MVVM in both controls

    - by MagicMax
    Hello! I have two UserControls ("UserControlParentView" and "UserControlChildView") with MVVM pattern implemented in both controls. Parent control is a container for Child control and child control's property should be updated by data binding from Parent control in order to show/hide some check box inside Child control. Parent Control Description UserControlParentViewModel has property: private bool isShowCheckbox = false; public bool IsShowCheckbox { get { return isShowCheckbox; } set { isShowCheckbox = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("IsShowCheckbox"); } } UserControlParentViewModel - how I set DataContext of Parent control: public UserControlParentView() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new UserControlParentViewModel(); } UserControlParentView contains toggle button (in XAML), bound to UserControlParentViewModel's property IsShowCheckbox <ToggleButton Grid.Column="1" IsChecked="{Binding IsShowCheckbox, Mode=TwoWay}"></ToggleButton> Also Parent control contains instance of child element (somewhere in XAML) <local:UserControlChildView IsCheckBoxVisible="{Binding IsShowCheckbox}" ></local:UserControlChildView> so property in child control should be updated when user togggle/untoggle button. Child control contains Boolean property to be updated from parent control, but nothing happened! Breakpoint never fired! Property in UserControlChildView that should be updated from Parent control (here I plan to make chechBox visible/hidden in code behind): public bool IsCheckBoxVisible { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty); } set { SetValue(IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for IsCheckBoxVisible. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsCheckBoxVisible", typeof(bool), typeof(TopMenuButton), new PropertyMetadata(false)); So the question is - what I'm doing wrong? Why child's property is never updated? BTW - there is no any binding error warnings in Output window...

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  • Mixing AJAX requests with Flash scope objects not working

    - by AlanObject
    I have a JSF page that displays a table from an object called TableQuery that supports stateful pagination, sorting, etc. The bean that accesses the object is a RequestScoped object, and it attempts to preserve the TableQuery by storing it the flash map. The accessor method looks like this: public TableQuery<SysLog> getQuery() { if (query != null) return query; Flash flash = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(). getExternalContext().getFlash(); query = (TableQuery) flash.get("Query"); if (query != null) System.out.println("TableSysLog.getQuery() Got query from flash!"); if (query == null) { query = slc.getNewTableQuery(); System.out.println("TableSysLog.getQuery() Created new query"); } flash.put("Query", query); return query; } The Links to go between pages are implemented with *p:commandLInk*s. I use Primefaces command link in AJAX mode so just the link gets processed when it is clicked. The action listener looks like this: public void doNextPage(ActionEvent evt) { getQuery().doNextPage(); } When it doesn't work I get the error message: WARNING: JSF1095: The response was already committed by the time we tried to set the outgoing cookie for the flash. Any values stored to the flash will not be available on the next request. I found this thread when looking up this problem. When I turned of HTTP chunking as the article suggests, the error message went away but the problem remained. Does anyone know what is going on and how this might be fixed?

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  • Deploy ASP.NET MVC 2 to IIS 7.5 targeting .NET 3.5

    - by Agent_9191
    I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 application in Visual Studio 2008. I set the release build to go through the ASP.NET compiler to precompile all the views, minify Javascript and CSS, clean up the web.config, etc. Since the production deployment is going to an IIS6 server, I set up my pseudo-production deployment on my Windows 7 machine to have the application pool run in classic mode targeting the 2.0 runtime. I set up the extensionless handler in the web.config that's necessary and everything worked great. The problem came when I upgraded the solution to Visual Studio 2010. I'm still targeting the 3.5 framework, but now I'm using MSBuild 4.0 since that's what Visual Studio 2010 uses. Everything still compiles correctly because it runs fine under Cassini, but when I deploy it to the same location (same application pool, identity, etc) it now behaves differently. I still have the extensionless handler in the web.config, but now when I navigate to the root of the application it does directory browsing, and any routes that it had previously handled now come back as 404 errors being handled by the StaticFile handler in IIS. I'm at a loss for what changed and is causing the break. I have looked at this question, but I have already verified that all the prerequisite components are installed.

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  • Flash AS3: (VideoEvent.COMPLETE, completePlay) - listener is triggered before video is completed

    - by Tevi
    Hello, I have a flash video using the standard FLV Playback component that comes with Flash. I'm using ActionScript 3 to modify the appearance and set up an event listener. I've set it up to go to a new URL using "externalInterface" when the video completes play. The URL is set in a variable using SWFObject. On only a few instances (3 people out of 50 - tested using Amazon Turk), people reported being taken directly to the new url, before the video even started playing. It's difficult to repeat the issue, but it did happen to me once. It doesn't have anything to do with cache, since it has been reported on people going to the url for the first time. Here's the url to the video: http://www.partstown.com/is-bin/INTERSHOP.enfinity/WFS/Reedy-PartsTown-Site/en_US/-/USD/ViewStaticPage-UnFramed?page=tourthetown Here's the code: import flash.external.*; import fl.video.*; var myVideo:FLVPlayback = new FLVPlayback(); var theUrl:String = this.loaderInfo.parameters.urlName; var theScript:String = this.loaderInfo.parameters.scriptName; myVideo.source = this.loaderInfo.parameters.videoPath;//"partstown.flv"; myVideo.skin = this.loaderInfo.parameters.skinPath;//"SkinUnderPlayStopSeekMuteVol.swf" myVideo.skinBackgroundColor = 0xAEBEFB; myVideo.skinBackgroundAlpha = 0.5; myVideo.width = 939; myVideo.height = 660; myVideo.addEventListener(VideoEvent.COMPLETE, completePlay); function completePlay(e:VideoEvent):void { myVideo.alpha=0.2; ExternalInterface.call(theScript); } addChild(myVideo); Why would the listener be triggered before the event complete? How can I fix it? Thanks!

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  • new ActiveXObject('Word.Application') creates new winword.exe process when IE security does not allo

    - by Mark Ott
    We are using MS Word as a spell checker for a few fields on a private company web site, and when IE security settings are correct it works well. (Zone for the site set to Trusted, and trusted zone modified to allow control to run without prompting.) The script we are using creates a word object and closes it afterward. While the object exists, a winword.exe process runs, but it is destroyed when the word object is closed. If our site is not set in the trusted zone (Internet zone with default security level) the call that creates the word object fails as expected, but the winword.exe process is still created. I do not have any way to interact with this process in the script, so the process stays around until the user logs off (users have no way to manually destroy the process, and it wouldn't be a good solution even if they did.) The call that attempts to create the object is... try { oWordApplication = new ActiveXObject('Word.Application'); } catch(error) { // irrelevant code removed, described in comments.. // notify user spell check cannot be used // disable spell check option } So every time the page is loaded this code may be run again, creating yet another orphan winword.exe process. oWordApplication is, of course, undefined in the catch block. I would like to be able to detect the browser security settings beforehand, but I have done some searching on this and do not think that it is possible. Management here is happy with it as it is. As long as IE security is set correctly it works, and it works well for our purposes. (We may eventually look at other options for spell check functionality, but this was quick, inexpensive, and does everything we need it to do.) This last problem bugs me and I'd like to do something about it, but I'm out of ideas and I have other things that are more in need of my attention. Before I put it aside, I thought I'd ask for suggestions here...

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  • Getting warning about sensitive information that could be disclosed to 3rd parties - Asp.net MVC 2.0

    - by chobo2
    Hi I never gotten this message before I started to use asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery 1.4. <title>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</title> <span><H1>Server Error in '/' Application.<hr width=100% size=1 color=silver></H1> <h2> <i>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</i> </h2></span> <font face="Arial, Helvetica, Geneva, SunSans-Regular, sans-serif "> <b> Description: </b>An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. <br><br> <b> Exception Details: </b>System.InvalidOperationException: This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.<br><br> So it makes me wondering what sensitive data could be disclosed and if so how to get around this? What I was trying to send back was a rendered string of a partial view(http://www.klopfenstein.net/lorenz.aspx/render-partial-view-to-string-in-asp-net-mvc) and a success msg.

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  • Problem with TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime: missed the Daylight Saving switch.

    - by SirMoreno
    My web app runs on .Net 3.5, all of the dates are saved on the DB in UTC time (not in user time). When I want to display a date I convert it to user date (from UTC) //Get the current datetime of the user exp: GMT TO ISRAEL +2 public static DateTime GetUserDateTime(DateTime dateUTC) { string userTzId = "Israel Standard Time"; TimeZoneInfo userTZ = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(userTzId); dateUTC = DateTime.SpecifyKind(dateUTC, DateTimeKind.Utc); DateTime ret = TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime(dateUTC, TimeZoneInfo.Utc, userTZ); return ret; } Until now it worked fine but I have users from Israel (GMT +2), and Israel switched to Daylight saving time on 26/3/10 so now it's (GMT +3). For some reason the TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime don't know the Daylight saving time switch is on 26/3/10 so it still converts to GMT +2. The strange thing is that on localhost it works fine, I set up a test page: DateTime userdate = GetUserDateTime(DateTime.UtcNow); string str2 = "UserDateTime = " + userdate.ToString("dd/MM/yy") + " " + userdate.ToString("HH:mm"); On the Server (windows 2003 set to UTC time) it shows the wrong time (+2): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 21:38 On localhost (windows XP set to Israel Time) it shows the correct time (+3): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 22:38 How can I update the TimeZoneInfo that the Daylight saving time switch in Israel was on the 26/3/10? Thanks.

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  • How to use multiple DisplayName attribute using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

    - by Picflight
    Depending on where I use my Class, I want to be able to show a different DisplayName. I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

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  • ListView setOnItemClickListener and setOnItemSelectedListener to store the Selected Item Index

    - by Christophe
    Hi all, I have read on this site that it is necessary to customize the setOnItemSelectedListener and setOnItemClickListener of a ListView if we want to know the Index of the SelectedItem (.getSelectedItemPosition()). So that is what I do but it does not stores the position of the SekectedItem, instead i have always -1... What I want to do is just to give the user a way to delete items from a list by selected and Item and Clicking a button. See the code below : listViewPeople.setOnItemClickListener(new ListView.OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int i, long l) { try { // Remembers the selected Index listViewPeopleId = listViewPeople.getSelectedItemPosition(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot get the selected index"); } } }); listViewPeople.setOnItemSelectedListener(new ListView.OnItemSelectedListener() { @Override public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int i, long l) { try { // Remembers the selected Index listViewPeopleId = listViewPeople.getSelectedItemPosition(); System.out.println("Yay, set the selected index " + listViewPeopleId); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot get the selected index " + listViewPeopleId); } } @Override public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0) { try { // Remembers nothing selected listViewPeopleId = -1; System.out.println("Yay, set that nothing is selected " + listViewPeopleId); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot set that nothing is selected " + listViewPeopleId); } } }); What's wrong?? Thank you for your help! Christophe

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  • Silverlight 4 Overriding the DataForm Autogenerate to insert Combo Boxes bound to Converters.

    - by kmacmahon
    I've been working towards a solution for some time and could use a little help. I know I've seen an example of this before, but tonight I cannot find anything close to what I need. I have a service that provides me all my DropDownLists, either from Cache or from the DomainService. They are presented as IEnumerable, and are requested from the a repository with GetLookup(LookupId). I have created a custom attribute that I have decorated my MetaDataClass that looks something like this: [Lookup(Lookup.Products)] public Guid ProductId I have created a custom Data Form that is set to AutoGenerateFields and I am intercepting the autogenerate fields. I am checking for my CustomAttribute and that works. Given this code in my CustomDataForm (standard comments removed for brevity), what is the next step to override the field generation and place a bound combobox in its place? public class CustomDataForm : DataForm { private Dictionary<string, DataField> fields = new Dictionary<string, DataField>(); public Dictionary<string, DataField> Fields { get { return this.fields; } } protected override void OnAutoGeneratingField(DataFormAutoGeneratingFieldEventArgs e) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = this.CurrentItem.GetType().GetProperty(e.PropertyName); foreach (Attribute attribute in propertyInfo.GetCustomAttributes(true)) { LookupFieldAttribute lookupFieldAttribute = attribute as LookupFieldAttribute; if (lookupFieldAttribute != null) { // Create a combo box. // Bind it to my Lookup IEnumerable // Set the selected item to my Field's Value // Set the binding two way } } this.fields[e.PropertyName] = e.Field; base.OnAutoGeneratingField(e); } } Any cited working examples for SL4/VS2010 would be appreciated. Thanks

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  • Linq The specified type 'string' is not a valid provider type.

    - by Joe Pitz
    Using Linq to call a stored procedure that passes a single string, The stored procedure returns a data set row that contains a string and an int. Code: PESQLDataContext pe = new PESQLDataContext(strConnStr); pe.ObjectTrackingEnabled = false; gvUnitsPassed.DataSource = pe.PassedInspection(Line); gvUnitsPassed.DataBind(); pe.dispose(); When the code runs an exception gets called below: The exception is thrown at the IExecuteResult result = statement: Enclosed is my result class in the designer.cs file. [Function(Name = "dbo.PassedInspection")] public ISingleResult<PassedInspectionResult> PassedInspection([Parameter(Name = "Model", DbType = "VarChar(4)")] string model) { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall(this, ((MethodInfo)(MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod())), model); return ((ISingleResult<PassedInspectionResult>)(result.ReturnValue)); } public partial class PassedInspectionResult { private string _Date; private int _Passed; public PassedInspectionResult() { } [Column(Storage = "_Date", DbType = "string NULL")] public string Date { get { return this._Date; } set { if ((this._Date != value)) { this._Date = value; } } } [Column(Storage = "_Passed", DbType = "Int NULL")] public int Passed { get { return this._Passed; } set { if ((this._Passed != value)) { this._Passed = value; } } } } } I have other stored procedures with similar arguments that run just fine. Thanks

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  • SSRS 2005 - Cascading parameters and default value update problem

    - by sHr0oMaN
    I have a report with cascading parameters. The first parameter is Finanical Period Type, being either Month or Week. The second parameter is a list of either financial months or weeks depending on what was selected for the first parameter. This all works well and selecting a series of different Financial Period Types in sequence correctly updates the second parameter's values. However I now wish to add a default value for the second parameter, which is once again dependent on the first parameter. So I've added an additional field to the dataset populating the second parameter called DefaultPeriod and set the second parameter's default value to be retrieved from the above field. The first time I select the Financial Period Type, the default is correctly set. However changing the Financial Period Type results in an updated list for the second parameter, but the default is incorrect. It remains set to the original default value, even thought the dataset has been refresh and the DefaultPeriod field is correct. This is both an issue in the IDE and on the Report Manager site.

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  • $facebook->getSession() returns null in the example code. is that ok?

    - by Toto
    Running the example code for the Facebook API I get a null session object, and I should get a non-null object giving the comment in the code. What am I doing wrong? In other words, in my index.php this fragment from the example code shows "no session" when I go to http://apps.facebook.com/my_app in my browser: <?php require './facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '...', // actual value replaced by '...' for this post 'secret' => '...', // actual value replaced by '...' for the post 'cookie' => true, )); // We may or may not have this data based on a $_GET or $_COOKIE based session. // // If we get a session here, it means we found a correctly signed session using // the Application Secret only Facebook and the Application know. We dont know // if it is still valid until we make an API call using the session. A session // can become invalid if it has already expired (should not be getting the // session back in this case) or if the user logged out of Facebook. $session = $facebook->getSession(); if ($session) { echo "session ok"; } else { echo "no session"; } ?> Note: in my server index.php and facebook.php are in the same folder.

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  • VS 2010 debugger not loading symbols when attaching to NUnit

    - by Dave Hanna
    (I just posted this in the NUnit discussion group on groups.google.com) Under VS 2008, I would run my tests under NUnit, and, if I needed to debug, I would attach the VS2008 debugger to the running Nunit process (Debug - Attach to Process), and set any breakpoints on code I wanted to examine. When I hit the Run buttion in NUnit, it would hit the breakpoint. (BTW, if it matters, this was running NUnit 2.5.2). I just upgraded to NUnit 2.5.4 and VS 2010. When I set a breakpoint, then attach to NUnit, I get a little warning symbol on the breakpoint dot, and hovering over it gives the tooltip "Breakpoint will not be hit. No symbols are currently loaded". Going to the Debug - Windows - Modules window shows a whole bunch of Windows and NUnit modules loaded, with the Symbol Status of "Skipped loading symbols", and then 1 module with a funny name that changes each time (r1euhmh5 right now), and Symbol Status of "No symbols loaded". (There is no trace of a module with a name remotely like my DLL under test). Right clicking the funny filename (assuming that to be some mapping from my DLL under test), and clicking Load Symbols From - Symbol Path, and navigating to the bin\debug folder, then clicking the pdb file of my DLL under test, I get the message "A matching symbol was not found in this folder". (The top of the Open dialog box has a line that says "Original location: r1euhmh5.pdb") So what's changed? And how do I go about debugging/breakpointing under VS 2010/NUnit 2.5.4 (Or is it possible I screwed something up when I decided to go through my VS2010 options and set some of them to more advanced levels than I knew what I was doing?) I appreciate any help.

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  • Sharing a session between vBulletin forum and status.net microblogging platform

    - by jaz
    Hello, I need to integrate vBulletin 4.0.3 Publishing Suite with status.net microblogging platform. The first thing I need to do is make these 2 to share 1 session so a user logged in vBulletin forums will also be logged in to status.net and vice versa. I have installed different vBulletin components under different subdomains: forums.sample.com - vBulletin forums blogs.sample.com - vBulletin blogs sample.com - vBulletin content management All of these point to the same place (.../public_html/index.php) which includes the respective php file (content.php for sample.com | blog.php for blogs.sample.com | forum.php for forums.sample.com) depending on the $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] I have configured vBulletin to use a single cookie.domain (.sample.com) for all of these 3 domains so visiting different domains doesn't break the session. I also have status.sample.com, which is the subdomain where status.net is installed. The subdomain configuration is different so the document_root is actually a subfolder (.../public_html/status/) in sample.com Now, can you please give me some pointers on how to make all these subdomains share a single session? I'm not sure if it helps, but as I understand, status.net does no custom session handling by default, but it is possible to turn it on so it will start storing session data in a database table called "session". Any tips will be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Reducing WPF binding boilerplate with styles - updating the bindings themselves via styling?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

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  • Spring security custom ldap authentication provider

    - by wuntee
    I currently have my ldap authentication context set up like this: <ldap-server url="ldap://host/dn" manager-dn="cn=someuser" manager-password="somepass" /> <authentication-manager> <ldap-authentication-provider user-search-filter="(samaccountname={0})"/> </authentication-manager> Now, I need to be able to set up a custom authorities mapper (it uses a different ldap server) - so I am assuming I need to set up my ldap-server similar to (http://static.springsource.org/spring-security/site/docs/2.0.x/reference/ldap.html): <bean id="ldapAuthProvider" class="org.springframework.security.providers.ldap.LdapAuthenticationProvider"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="org.springframework.security.providers.ldap.authenticator.BindAuthenticator"> <constructor-arg ref="contextSource"/> <property name="userDnPatterns"> <list><value>uid={0},ou=people</value></list> </property> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg> <bean class="org.springframework.security.ldap.populator.DefaultLdapAuthoritiesPopulator"> <constructor-arg ref="contextSource"/> <constructor-arg value="ou=groups"/> <property name="groupRoleAttribute" value="ou"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> But, how do I reference that 'ldapAuthProvider' to the ldap-server in the security context? I am also using spring-security 3, so '' does not exist...

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  • JavaMail: Could not connect to SMPT server.

    - by javacode
    Hi The following code causes an error. Please help me understand what's wrong. import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import java.util.*; public class SendMail { public static void main(String [] args)throws MessagingException { SendMail sm=new SendMail(); sm.postMail(new String[]{"[email protected]"},"hi","hello","[email protected]"); } public void postMail( String recipients[ ], String subject, String message , String from) throws MessagingException { boolean debug = false; //Set the host smtp address Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "webmail.emailmyname.com"); // create some properties and get the default Session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); session.setDebug(debug); // create a message Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); // set the from and to address InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(from); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[recipients.length]; for (int i = 0; i < recipients.length; i++) { addressTo[i] = new InternetAddress(recipients[i]); } msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); // Optional : You can also set your custom headers in the Email if you Want msg.addHeader("MyHeaderName", "myHeaderValue"); // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg); } } Exception: Exception in thread "main" javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: webmail.emailmyname.com, port: 25, response: 421 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1694) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:525) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:291) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:172) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:121) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:190) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:120) at SendMail.postMail(SendMail.java:45) at SendMail.main(SendMail.java:9)

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  • NHibernate SubclassMap gives DuplicateMappingException

    - by stiank81
    I'm using NHibernate to handle my database - with Fluent configuration. I'm not using Automappings. All mappings are written explicitly, and everything is working just fine. Now I wanted to add my first mapping to a subclass, using the SubclassMap, and I run into problems. With the simplest possible setup an Nhibernate DuplicateMappingException is thrown, saying that the subclass is mapped more than once: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping MyNamespace.SubPerson I get this with my simple classes written for testing: public class Person { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class SubPerson : Person { public string Foo { get; set; } } With the following mappings: public class PersonMapping : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.Id); Map(c => c.Name); } } public class SubPersonMapping : SubclassMap<SubPerson> { public SubPersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Map(m => m.Foo); } } Any idea why this is happening? If there were automappings involved I guess it might have been caused by the automappings adding a mapping too, but there should be no automapping. I create my database specifying a fluent mapping: private static ISession CreateSession() { var cfg = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().UsingFile("unit_test.db")). Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<SomeClassInTheAssemblyContainingAllMappings>()); var sessionSource = new SessionSource(cfg.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new TestModel()); var session = sessionSource.CreateSession(); _sessionSource.BuildSchema(session); return session; } Again; note that this only happens with SubclassMap. ClassMap's are working just fine!

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  • XmlSerializer Deserialize failures

    - by smvlad
    I have wsdl from third party server. Method that i'm interested in returns XmlNode. My thought was wrap web methods and use XmlSerializer to return strongly typed objects. Returned xml looks like this (i removed soap headers): <Response xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:type="ResponseExt" xmlns="http://www.thirdparty.com/lr/"> <Code>0</Code> <Message>SUCCESS</Message> <SessionId>session_token</SessionId> </Response> Looked simple. Created a class: [XmlRoot("Response")] public class MyClass { public string Code {get; set;} public string Message {get; set;} public string SessionId {get; set;} } Processing time: //XmlNode node = xml from above XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); XmlNodeReader reader = new XmlNodeReader(node); Myclass myclass = serializer.Deserialize(reader) as MyClass Last line is where it blows up with inner exception message: The specified type was not recognized: name='ResponseExt', namespace='http://www.thirdparty.com/lr/', at . I can't figure out how to make Serializer happy and what exactly these two mean xsi:type="ResponseExt" xmlns="http://www.thirdparty.com/lr/ As always any advice and pointer are appreciated

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  • Binding "Text-Property" of a derived textbox to another textbox doesn´t work

    - by Jehof
    Hello, i have a class 'MyTextBox' that derives from the default TextBox in Silverlight. This class currently contains no additional code. I set up a binding in xaml to bind the Text-Property of MyTextbox to another Textbox to reflect the input made in the Textbox. The effect is that MyTextBox doesn´t update and not display the text of the other Textbox. Additional i made an equal binding for a normal Textbox. And this works. Here´s the XAML for the bindings. <UserControl x:Class="Silverlight.Sample.Dummy" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:Sample" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="400"> <StackPanel x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <TextBox Height="23" x:Name="textBox2" Width="120" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ElementName=textBox2, Path=Text, Mode=TwoWay}" Width="120" /> <my:NumberTextBox Width="120" Text="{Binding ElementName=textBox2, Path=Text, Mode=OneWay}" /> </StackPanel> Is there something special to set for binding, when i derive from a control. PS: I tried a binding to a dummy object with INotifyPropertyChanged and set it as DataContext for the existing Textboxes. This test works as expected and my derived textbox gets updated.

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  • ASP.NET MVC in a subfolder (only) on godaddy

    - by Anthony Potts
    Okay, I have read many of the routing posts concerning putting asp.net mvc on godaddy. However, I have not come to a solution to my current problem. I am trying to publish an ASP.NET MVC application to a subfolder on godaddy. I have upgraded the account to use IIS 7 and I have included the MVC dlls in \bin\ deployment method. However, I suspect that my route is not correct. Currently, my routes are set up with the standard out of the box route: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I have a subdomain set up so that it looks like office.domain.com. The subdomain is pointing at a folder "/office/" which is right off the root folder. (There is not an MVC application installed in the root folder). All of my application has been placed in this 'office' folder. When I hover over the links however, the 'office' portion shows up in the link as well. e.g. Hovering over a link to the customer controller, index action yields "office.domain.com/office/Customer" as the target. This link then gets a 404 when I attempt to go to it. What should my route be to fix this? Is there something I have neglected in setting up the subdomain in godaddy? Is this something I just can't do in godaddy's domain management "tool". Do I need to set up a virtual directory for this instead of just a directory? Update: I changed the IIS settings in godaddy to use integrated pipeline mode, per this discussion and I am no longer getting 404 errors. The application worked just fine as suggested it would.

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  • Cant insert row with auto-increment key via FluentNhibernate

    - by Jeff Shattock
    I'm getting started with Fluent NHibernate, and NHibernate in general. I'm trying to do something that I feel is pretty basic, but I cant quite get it to work. I'm trying to add a new entry to a simple table. Here's the Entity class. public class Product { public Product() { id = 0; } public virtual int id {get; set;} public virtual string description { get; set; } } Here's its mapping. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(p => p.id).GeneratedBy.Identity().UnsavedValue(0); Map(p => p.description); } } I've tried that with and without the additional calls after Id(). And the insert code: var p = new Product() { description = "Apples" }; using (var s = _sf.CreateSession()) { s.Save(new_product); s.Flush(); } where _sf is a properly configured SessionSource. When I execute this code, I get: NHibernate.AssertionFailure : null identifier, which makes sense based on the SQL that NHibernate is executing: INSERT INTO "Product" (description) VALUES (@p0);@p0 = 'Apples' It doesnt seem to be trying to set the Id field, which seems ok (on its face) since the DB should generate that. But its not, I think. The DB schema is autogenerated by FNH: var config = Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().ConnectionString(@"Data Source=Database1.sdf")); var SessionSource = new SessionSource(config.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new ModelMappings()); var Session = SessionSource.CreateSession(); SessionSource.BuildSchema(Session); CreateInitialData(Session); Session.Flush(); Session.Clear(); I'm sure to be doing tons of things wrong, but whats the one thats causing this error?

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  • WPF Richtextbox XamlWriter behaviour

    - by Krishna
    I am trying to save some c# source code into the database. Basically I have a RichTextBox that users can type their code and save that to the database. When I copy and paste from the visual studio environment, I would like to preserve the formating etc. So I have chosen to save the FlowDocuments Xaml to the database and set this back to the RichTextBox.Document. My below two function serialise and deserialise the RTB's contents. private string GetXaml(FlowDocument document) { if (document == null) return String.Empty; else{ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); XmlWriter xw = XmlWriter.Create(sb); XamlDesignerSerializationManager sm = new XamlDesignerSerializationManager(xw); sm.XamlWriterMode = XamlWriterMode.Expression; XamlWriter.Save(document, sm ); return sb.ToString(); } } private FlowDocument GetFlowDocument(string xamlText) { var flowDocument = new FlowDocument(); if (xamlText != null) flowDocument = (FlowDocument)XamlReader.Parse(xamlText); // Set return value return flowDocument; } However when I try to serialise and deserialise the following code, I am noticing this incorrect(?) behaviour using System; public class TestCSScript : MarshalByRefObject { } Serialised XAML is using System; public class TestCSScript : MarshalByRefObject {}{ } Notice the the new set of "{}" What am I doing wrong here... Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • WPF: Is it possible to add or modify bindings via styles or something similar?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Alternatively, is it possible to add the binding in the style itself? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

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