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  • jQuery - Cancel form submit (using "return false"?)?

    - by Nike
    Hey there. I'm running into a bit of trouble while trying to cancel the submit of a form. I've been following this tutorial (even though i'm not making a login script), and it seems to be working for him. Here's my form: <form action="index.php" method="post" name="pForm"> <textarea name="comment" onclick="if(this.value == 'skriv här...') this.value='';" onblur="if(this.value.length == 0) this.value='skriv här...';">skriv här...</textarea> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Publicera!" name="submit" /> </form> And here's the jquery: $(document).ready(function() { $('form[name=pForm]').submit(function(){ return false; }); }); I've already imported jQuery in the header and i know it's working. My first thought was that it might be outdated, but it's actually "just" a year ago. So do anyone see what's wrong? Thanks in advance. EDIT: From what i've read the easiest and most appropriate way to abort the submit is to return false? But i can't seem to get it working. I've searched the forum and i've found several helpful threads but none of them actually works. I must be screwing something up.

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  • (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

    - by Eugene
    i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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  • Jquery cycle plugin containerResize option

    - by user1193385
    Im using jquery cycle on have a fade slideshow like so... $('.pics').cycle({ fx: 'fade', timeout:5000, random: 1, containerResize: false }); it was working fine before but since I added containerResize: false my images wont show up anymore...does anyone know what its doing this?...example at http://willruppelglass.com/index.php here is some other code, might help, never know.... .pics { padding: 0; margin: 0; } .pics img { background-color: #eee; height: 200px; text-align:center; top: 0; left: 0; } .contentImages{ border:1px solid #CCC; padding:10px; margin:20px auto 0; position:relative; width: 600px; overflow:hidden; } <div class="contentImages"> <div class="pics"> <img src="upload/<?php echo $array['image'] ?>" height="200" /> <img src="upload/<?php echo $array['image2'] ?>" height="200" /> <img src="upload/<?php echo $array['image3'] ?>" height="200" /> </div> </div>

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  • iphone navigation

    - by Rona
    function handleClickEvent(event) { var linkFrom = $(event.target); if (typeof linkFrom.attr("href") == 'undefined') { linkFrom = $(event.target).parent(); } var targetPage = linkFrom.attr("href"); if (linkFrom.hasClass('submit')) { handleSubmitEvent(event); // if we want to stop processing: return false; } if (linkFrom.hasClass('backbutton')) { targetPage = historyStack.pop(); if (historyStack.length == 0) { lastPage = "index.html"; } } else { historyStack.push(lastPage); } lastPage = targetPage; $(event.target).css({ 'background-color': '#194fdb', 'color': '#ffffff' }); loadingWindowON(); // Add new unique div prevPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; pageIdCounter = parseInt(pageIdCounter) + 1 nextPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; nextPageDiv = "<div id='" + nextPageId + "' class='nextpage' /></div>"; $("body").append(nextPageDiv); if (linkFrom.attr("target") != "_blank") { event.preventDefault(); document.getElementById(nextPageId).addEventListener('webkitAnimationEnd', function () { // remove prev div element = document.getElementById(prevPageId); if (element) { element.parentNode.removeChild(element); } // set next div as current document.getElementById(nextPageId).className = 'currentpage'; }, false); document.getElementById(nextPageId).className += ' slideleftIn'; document.getElementById(prevPageId).className += ' slideleftOut'; loadContent(targetPage, nextPageId); } I use this javascript with a twitter app I had to do and when I click a button, instead of sliding the new page from the side it adds it to the existing page at the bottom. It works fine when i open it on my computer using google chrome but when I try to open it with my iphone it doesn't work. Any ideas?

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  • Why am I unable to prevent the animation queue from stacking without breaking my code?

    - by user1888886
    I am attempting to use jquery and CSS to animate the buttons of a navigation sidebar I am using to signify which button is selected when the mouse is hovered over each. Currently, my code for the CSS appears as such: #navbutton {position:relative; width:178px; height:35px; border:1px #FFF solid; z-index:+3; font-family:'Capriola', sans-serif; font-size:18px; text-align:center;} #navbutton.button {color:#77D; background-color: #F0B0D0;} #navbutton.button_hover {color:#66C; background-color: #FCF; padding:10px;} And my jquery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#sidebar div").mouseenter(buttonHover) function buttonHover(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button','button_hover',500); } $("#sidebar div").mouseleave(button) function button(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button_hover','button',500); } }); </script> Before I added the .stop() to each part of the animation, the animation queue would stack up for each time the mouse was moved over each button and then removed. Now that the .stop() has been applied, however, if the mouse is moved away from a button during its animation, the button will freeze and remain in its mid-animation state, unable to be fixed by being hovered over until the page is reloaded, rather than reverting to its original mouseleave state. From everything I've read, this should not be the case. Might anyone be able to tell why my animation queue becomes broken once the .stop() is applied?

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  • Use a table as container or not?

    - by Camran
    I have created my entire website by using a main table, and having the content inside the table. Some ppl suggest this is wrong, and I would like to know what to do specifically in my situation. On my index.html I have a <table align="center"> and then all content in it. Now the content is in form of DIVS and they all have relative positioning, so they are relative to the table. For example: <table align="center"> <tr> <td> <div style="position:relative; left:14px; top:50px;"> CONTENT HERE... (Form, divs, images) </div> </td> </tr> </table> I have just gotten to the stage of browser compatibility. Without making any changes whatsoever, my website works perfect in FF, SAFARI, Chrome and Opera. Only trouble with IE. So for my Q, if you where me, would you change my layout and remove the tables, and instead use alot more css and alot more DIVS, or would you go with what I have? And please if you answer me, don't just provide me with the answer, but also a "why" that is... in other words, give me arguments and facts... Thanks

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  • Passing list of items from Controller/Model to a variable in javascript - autocomplete

    - by newbie_developer
    I've a method in a NamesModel which fetches all the names and returns a list of names: public static List<NamesModel> GetAllNames() { List<NamesModel> names = new List<NamesModel>(); // // code to fetch records // return names; } In my controller: public ActionResult Index() { NamesModel model = new NamesModel(); model.GetAllNames(); return View(model); } In the view, I've got a textbox: @Html.TextBox("search-name") Now in my javascript, I want to fetch all names into a variable either from a model (from method) or from controller, for example: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { var names = ........... $(document).ready(function () { $('#search-name').autocomplete({ source: names }); }); }); </script> If I use hardcoding then it works but I want to use the names stored in the db. Is it possible? hardcoding example: var names = ["abc", "xyz"];

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  • Convert JSON into array dataType

    - by Myhome Stories
    I have the following JSON string var json = {"result":[{"address":" Ardenham Court, Oxford Road ,AYLESBURY, BUCKINGHAMSHIRE ,UNITED KINGDOM","picture":"1.jpg","uniqueid":"8b54275a60088547d473d462763b4738","story":"I love my home. I feel safe, I am comfortable and I am loved. A home can't be a home without our parents and our loved ones. But sad to say, some are experiencing that eventhough their loved ones are in their houses, they are not loving each other. There is a big war. You can't call it a home."}]} I want to get address ,picture,story separately for accomplish this. I tried recent answers in stackoverflow, but I was not able to achieve it. Below is what I have tried, $.each(json.result.address, function (index, value) { // Get the items var items = this.address; // Here 'this' points to a 'group' in 'groups' // Iterate through items. $.each(items, function () { console.log(this.text); // Here 'this' points to an 'item' in 'items' }); });

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  • PHP - Use isset inside function not working..?

    - by pnichols
    I have a PHP script that when loaded, check first if it was loaded via a POST, if not if GET['id'] is a number. Now I know I could do this like this: if(isset($_GET['id']) AND isNum($_GET['id'])) { ... } function isNum($data) { $data = sanitize($data); if ( ctype_digit($data) ) { return true; } else { return false; } } But I would like to do it this way: if(isNum($_GET['id'])) { ... } function isNum($data) { if ( isset($data) ) { $data = sanitize($data); if ( ctype_digit($data) ) { return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } When I try it this way, if $_GET['id'] isn't set, I get a warning of undefined index: id... It's like as soon as I put my $_GET['id'] within my function call, it sends a warning... Even though my function will check if that var is set or not... Is there another way to do what I want to do, or am I forced to always check isset then add my other requirements..??

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • Target to a page inside an iframe

    - by Marcelo Srougi
    I will try to explain again: I have 3 images in my index.html that when clicked i'd like to point respectively to ourmission.html, ourvalues.html and ourvision.html. But this 3 pages are inside an iframe located in the page ourcompany.html as you can see below: <aside class="sidebar"> <h4>Our Company</h4> <ul class="nav nav-list primary pull-bottom"> <li><a href="contactus.html"target="conteudo">Contact Us</a></li> <li><a href="ourmission.html" target="conteudo">Our Mission</a></li> <li><a href="ourvalues.html" target="conteudo">Our Values</a></li> <li><a href="ourvision.html"target="conteudo">Our Vision</a></li> </ul> </aside> <iframe src="contactus.html" frameborder='0' name="conteudo" width="700" height="700"> </iframe> How do i to point them directly, so the page ourcompany.html will load with the specific iframe opened.

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  • Apache mod_rewrite : How to REWRITE (or whatever) child directories to parent?

    - by ????
    Actually i am trying to make a PHP MVC like application. A basic one. The current milestone i am reaching already includes: Basic RESTful Routing Means, if i type: www.example.com/items/book/8888 .. it properly just stays there as it is and i can already slice out the URL by slashes / and loads the responsible Controllers .... etc from the top single index.php file. I mean, so it is OK for the backend PHP. But the only problem is, it still CAN NOT process the REWRITES properly. For example, the CSS & JS are BROKEN as if i VIEW PAGE SOURCE of the page www.example.com/items/book/8888, the asset files are being called as: www.example.com/items/book/8888/css/main.css www.example.com/items/book/8888/js/jquery.js .. which really are PROBLEMS because in the code is like: <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" href="css/main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> So the question is: How can i use Apache REWRITE (or whatever approach) to make sure every ASSET FILES to be correctly being called from the DOCROOT. For example, if i am in the URL: www.example.com/items/book/8888 My ASSET FILES should still be called as: www.example.com/css/main.css www.example.com/js/jquery.js Or is there any other methods i need to follow? Please kindly help suggest. Thank you.

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  • Dependency Injection: How to pass DB around?

    - by Stephane
    Edit: This is a conceptual question first and foremost. I can make applications work without knowing this, but I'm trying to learn the concept. I've seen lots of videos with related classes and that makes sense, but when it comes to classes wrapping around other classes, I can't seem to grasp where things should be instantiated/passed around. =-=-=-=-=-=-= Question: Let's say I have a simple page that loads data from a table, manipulates the result and displays it. Simple. I'm going to use '=' for instantiating a class and '-' for passing a class in using constructor injection. It seems to me that the database has to be passed from one end of the application to the other which doesn't seem right. Here's how I would do it if I wanted to separate concerns: index =>Controller =>Model Layer =>Database =>DAO->Database I have this rule in my head that says I'm not supposed to create objects inside other objects. So what do I do with the Database? Or even the Model for that matter? I'm obviously missing something so basic about this. I would love a simplified example so that I can move forward in my code. I feel really hamstrung by this.

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  • How to save data of two for loops in one array?

    - by Homer_Simpson
    I have two for loops and I wanna save that data in one array. The first for loop will create 5 rectangles in the array. After that, the second for loop will create 5 rectangles and add them to the array. But something doesn't work. I get that "Index was outside the bounds of the array" error message in the last line of the code and I don't know what to change. int framewidth = texture.Width / sourceRects.Length; int frameheight = texture.Height; private void vorrück(Rectangle[] sourceRects, int framewidth, int frameheight) { int doublelenght = sourceRects.Length * 2; for (int i = 0; i < sourceRects.Length; i++) sourceRects[i] = new Rectangle(i * framewidth, 0, framewidth, frameheight); for (int normallenght = sourceRects.Length; normallenght < doublelenght; normallenght++) sourceRects[normallenght] = new Rectangle((sourceRects.Length - 1 - normallenght) * framewidth, 0, framewidth, frameheight); }

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  • Scientific Data processing (Graph comparison and interpretation)

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hi stackoverflow friends, I'm trying to write a program to automate one of my more boring and repetitive work tasks. I have some programming experience but none with processing or interpreting large volumes of data so I am seeking your advice (both suggestions of techniques to try and also things to read to learn more about doing this stuff). I have a piece of equipment that monitors an experiment by taking repeated samples and displays the readings on its screen as a graph. The input of experiment can be altered and one of these changes should produce a change in a section of the graph which I currently identify by eye and is what I'm looking for in the experiment. I want to automate it so that a computer looks at a set of results and spots the experiment input that causes the change. I can already extract the results from the machine. Currently they results for a run are in the form of an integer array with the index being the sample number and the corresponding value being the measurement. The overall shape of the graph will be similar for each experiment run. The change I'm looking for will be roughly the same and will occur in approximately the same place every time for the correct experiment input. Unfortunately there are a few gotchas that make this problem more difficult. There is some noise in the measuring process which mean there is some random variation in the measured values between different runs. Although the overall shape of the graph remains the same. The time the experiment takes varies slightly each run causing two effects. First, the a whole graph may be shifted slightly on the x axis relative to another run's graph. Second, individual features may appear slightly wider or narrower in different runs. In both these cases the variation isn't particularly large and you can assume that the only non random variation is caused by the correct input being found. Thank you for your time, Pinky

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  • java.awt -- when java outputs an image to my monitor (screen), where is the file that is output to the monitor card?

    - by user1405870
    Suppose that I am drawing a set of images using java graphics objects. Suppose that I java is outputting these images to my monitor. Where is the file or files that are sent to the monitor card (the graphical representation files). How can I take this file and save it to disk, or how can I take this file and write it to an array, or how can I take these files and combine the results of their output (to the monitor) into a single file for saving? I don't want to use a screen shot feature, I want to be able to redirect (xor capture also) the output to the monitor to some sort of byte-stream. I note that monitors are much better than semaphores, when you are talking about display capabilities; I don't need a counter example. I might not be asking the correct question. It might be that I want to capture the file while it is still in User Space, before it is put into 'Device Space'. I would like to try and capture the byte stream so that I can convert it to MPEG-4 format. I either need a streaming output from the MPEG-4 converter, coming from the streaming input, or else, I need to take static images at discrete times and convert the images. What format will the output from User Space be in? What format will the Device Space output be in? Try to keep speculation to a minimum. http://docs.oracle.com/javame/config/cdc/opt-pkgs/api/jsr927/index.html I guess that Java has made a means of displaying AWT objects on a television screen. Thank you. Ryan Zoerner

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  • Why is the operation address incremented by two?

    - by Gavin Jones
    I am looking at a Javascript emulator of a NES to try and understand how it works. On this line: addr = this.load(opaddr+2); The opcode is incremented by two. However, the documentation (see appendix E) I'm reading says: Zero page addressing uses a single operand which serves as a pointer to an address in zero page ($0000-$00FF) where the data to be operated on can be found. By using zero page addressing, only one byte is needed for the operand, so the instruction is shorter and, therefore, faster to execute than with addressing modes which take two operands. An example of a zero page instruction is AND $12. So if the operand's argument is only one byte, shouldn't it appear directly after it, and be + 1 instead of + 2? Why +2? This is how I think it works, which may be incorrect. Suppose our memory looks like: ------------------------- | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | <- index ------------------------- | a | b | c | d | e | f | <- memory ------------------------- ^ \ PC and our PC is 0, pointing to a. For this cycle, we say that the opcode: var pc= 0; //for example's sake var opcode= memory[pc]; //a So shouldn't the first operand be the next slot, i.e. b? var first_operand = memory[pc + 1]; //b

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  • Destroy? Delete? What's going on here? Rails 2.3.5

    - by Steve
    I am new to rails. My rails version is 2.3.5. I found usage like: In controller, a destroy method is defined and in view, you can use :action = "delete" to fire that method. Isn't the action name has to be the same as the method name? Why delete is mapped to destroy? Again, in my controller, I define a method called destroy to delete a record. In a view, I have <%= link_to "remove", :action = 'destroy', :id = myrecord %. But it never works in practice. Every time I press the remove link, it redirects me to the show view, showing the record's content. I am pretty sure that my destroy method is: def destroy @myobject = MyObject.find(params[:id]) @myobject.destroy @redirect_to :action = 'index' end If I change the method name from destroy to something like remove_me and change the action name to remove_me in the view, everything works as expected. In the above two wired problems, I am sure there is no tricky rountting set in my configuration. All in all, seems the destroy and delete are mysterious keywords in rails. Anyone can explain this to me? Thank you very much.

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  • seriouosly elusive for loop (racking my brains!)

    - by user1693359
    I've got a loop issue in Python 2.72 that's really frustrating me. Basically the loop is not iterating fast the first index (j), and I've tried all sorts of ways to fix it with no luck. def learn(dataSet): for i in dataSet.getNext(): recall = raw_input("Enter all members of %s you are able to recall >>> (separated by commas) " % (i.getName())) missed = i.getMembers() missedString = [] for a in missed: missedString.append(a.getName()) Here is the loop I can't get to iterate. The first for loop only goes through the first iteration of 'j' in the split string list, then removes it from 'missedString'. I would like for all members of the split-string 'recall' to be removed from 'missedString'. for j in string.split(recall, ','): if j in missedString: missedString.remove(j) continue for b in missed: if b.getName() not in missedString: missed.remove(b) print 'You missed %d. ' % (len(missed)) if (len(missed)) > 0: print 'Maybe a hint or two will help...' for miss in missed: remind(miss.getSecs(), i.getName(), missed) I really have no clue, help would be appreciated!

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  • How to add sub category on my codeigniter php application ?

    - by sagarmatha
    Hello friends I have a view echo "<label for='parent'>Category</label><br/> "; echo form_dropdown('category_id', $categories). "<p>"; controller function create(){ if($this->input->post('name')){ $this->MProducts->addProduct(); $this->session->set_flashdata('message', 'Products Created'); redirect('admin/products/index', 'refresh'); }else{ $data['title'] = "Create Product"; $data['main'] = 'admin_product_create'; $data['categories']= $this->MCats->getTopCategories(); $this->load->vars($data); $this->load->view('dashboard'); } } and the model is function getTopcategories(){ $data = array(); $data[0] = 'root'; $this->db->where('parentid',0); $Q = $this->db->get('categories'); if($Q->num_rows() > 0){ foreach($Q->result_array() as $row){ $data[$row['id']] = $row['name']; } } $Q->free_result(); return $data; } Basically, what i want is we get sub categories when we click categories and 'selected' subcategory id goes to database when we create products, So that we can list products by sub categories. Please help me how do we do that ?

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  • Run function in current element by get short code inside

    - by happi
    In stead of adding an ID (IdAddMore) to run script inside ID(widget1) like that : <div class="widget" id="widget1"> <div class="content"> <div id="IdAddMore"></div> <script type='text/javascript'> $("#IdAddMore").selectme({ Numpost:3, Postyle : "Enter your style", }); </script> </div> </div> (widget is added automatically when I add more new widget, It means I can have widget3, widget10, ....Index(3,10..) is any and is not sorted.) Widget is a HTML/JS widget. I want run selectme by short code instead of repeating script in each widget. <div class="widget" id="widget1"> <div class="content"> [3][mystyle] </div> </div> <div class="widget" id="widget50"> <div class="content"> [4][yourstyle] </div> </div> ........... How can I write only script to catch short code in current element is added : I write script below but it does not work. Check for me, thanks your help. <script type='text/javascript'> var getdata = document.getElementsByClassName(".content").innerText || document.getElementById(".content").textContent; var thevalue = []; getdata.replace(/\[(.*?)\]/g, function(g0,g1){thevalue.push(g1);}); $(".widget").selectme({ Numpost:thevalue[0], Postyle: ""+thevalue[1]+"", }); </script>

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  • Call to a member function ... on a non-object

    - by jayceekay
    i have an object which is instantiated in an initialize file, which is called with every request. the name is right, so why is it telling me that oourls isn't an object and that redirectLoggedIn isn't its method? a var dump on oourls says NULL. but it's instantiated, and the backtrace at the bottom shows that it goes through initialization and instantiates it. pretty small snippet of code, here's the relevant bit: if($email) { global $session; $session->grantLogin($email); global $oourls; $oourls->redirectLoggedIn(); } else { return false; } and here's the output of debug_print_backtrace i threw in above the oourls method call because i'm completely confused: #0 accounts::verifyEmailRegisterAccount(37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a) called at [\public\includes\default\verifyemail.php:16] #1 require_once(\public\includes\default\verifyemail.php) called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:48] #2 ObjectOrientedURLs->mhqqrVerifyemail(Array ([0] => 37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a)) #3 ReflectionMethod->invoke(ObjectOrientedURLs Object (), Array ([0] => 37a6274c8f4bfa5c537b40e8e04d634a)) called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:280] #4 ObjectOrientedURLs->parseAndInvokeURL() called at [\support\php\ObjectOrientedURLs.class.php:255] #5 ObjectOrientedURLs->__construct() called at [\support\php\initialize.php:76] #6 require_once(\support\php\initialize.php) called at [\public\index.php:2]

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  • Objective C : UIButton image with NSArray in a random order

    - by Sarah
    Brief Idea about the flow : I have say minimum 1 and maximum 18 records in my database with a text and an image from which I have to fetch images and place any 3 of the same randomly to 3 UIButtons among which one image should match with my question. i.e. 1 is the answer and other 2 are the distractors. For Example : Question is : where is Apple? Now among the bunch of images, I want to place any 3 images on the 3 UIButtons(1 answer i.e. An Apple and 2 distractors) in a random order and on selecting the UIButton it should prompt me if it's a right answer or not. I am implementing below code for placing the UIImages in a random order : -(void) placeImages { NSMutableArray *images = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:arrImg]; NSArray *buttons = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:btn1,btn2,btn3, nil]; for (UIButton *btn in buttons) { int randomIndex= random() % images.count; UIImage *img = [images objectAtIndex:randomIndex]; [btn setImage:img forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [images removeObjectAtIndex:randomIndex]; } } But I am stuck at a point that how should I get 1 UIButton image with an answer and other as distractors also that how should i maintain the index of the image from the NSArray? Kindly guide me. Thank you.

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  • jQuery: Sustain a hover over two elements

    - by wkdown
    I have an <img> that, once hovered over, animates and fades in the <div> of a larger version of the picture, along with text and a hyperlink. When mousing out, the <div> animates and fades away. This works fine, only my hover function only pertains to the <img> itself. As soon as either a) the <div> appears over the <img>, or b) one mouses off the <img> to get to the <div>, jQuery reads a mouseout and animates the <div> away. How do I re-write my jQuery to allow me to fix this? Thanks in advance ... Here is a portion of the HTML: <img runat="server" src="~/images/pc_blocks_navigation_spec1.gif" class="navigation_spec1" alt="" /> <div class="navigation_spec1_panel"> <p>filler <a href="#">test</a></p> </div> ... and the jQuery ... $('.navigation_spec1_panel').hide().css('opacity','0.0'); $('.navigation_spec1').hover(function() { $('.navigation_spec1_panel').animate({ width: '337px', height: '234px', opacity: 1.0 }, 1250 ); }, function() { $('.navigation_spec1_panel').animate({ width: '1px', height: '1px', opacity: 0.0 }, 1250); }); }); (Side comment: My animated <div> does not appear over / on top of other <div>s coded after this one in IE 6 or 7. The <div> appears behind them instead, regardless of z-index. Suggestions?)

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  • Is there a way to update the height of a single UITableViewCell, without recalculating the height for every cell?

    - by Chris Vasselli
    I have a UITableView with a few different sections. One section contains cells that will resize as a user types text into a UITextView. Another section contains cells that render HTML content, for which calculating the height is relatively expensive. Right now when the user types into the UITextView, in order to get the table view to update the height of the cell, I call [self.tableView beginUpdates]; [self.tableView endUpdates]; However, this causes the table to recalculate the height of every cell in the table, when I really only need to update the single cell that was typed into. Not only that, but instead of recalculating the estimated height using tableView:estimatedHeightForRowAtIndexPath:, it calls tableView:heightForRowAtIndexPath: for every cell, even those not being displayed. Is there any way to ask the table view to update just the height of a single cell, without doing all of this unnecessary work? Update I'm still looking for a solution to this. As suggested, I've tried using reloadRowsAtIndexPaths:, but it doesn't look like this will work. Calling reloadRowsAtIndexPaths: with even a single row will still cause heightForRowAtIndexPath: to be called for every row, even though cellForRowAtIndexPath: will only be called for the row you requested. In fact, it looks like any time a row is inserted, deleted, or reloaded, heightForRowAtIndexPath: is called for every row in the table cell. I've also tried putting code in willDisplayCell:forRowAtIndexPath: to calculate the height just before a cell is going to appear. In order for this to work, I would need to force the table view to re-request the height for the row after I do the calculation. Unfortunately, calling [self.tableView beginUpdates]; [self.tableView endUpdates]; from willDisplayCell:forRowAtIndexPath: causes an index out of bounds exception deep in UITableView's internal code. I guess they don't expect us to do this. I can't help but feel like it's a bug in the SDK that in response to [self.tableView endUpdates] it doesn't call estimatedHeightForRowAtIndexPath: for cells that aren't visible, but I'm still trying to find some kind of workaround. Any help is appreciated.

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