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• NMEA data received but empty. Is there any secret?

  - by Roland Bertolom

  I have a tablet "Futjitsu Stylistic Q550". It's running on Windows 7 (not Phone!). It has a built-in GPS-receiver "Sierra Wireless". I need to parse NMEA data from COM-port. I can do it but it's always empty! Like "$GPRMC,,V,,,,,,,,,,N*53". I've tried standing on open space a long time (so my Android device had located me via GPS for a long time) but NMEA data still empty. So I suppose that GPS is off. But I don't know how to figure it out. I've tried send to COM port $PARAM,START,0*61 but no changes. I've tried to insert SIM-card into the device, as it was suggested on one forum but result was the same. Well is it possible that GPS is idle or something or it's just not working? And if it is idle or off how can I enable it? And.. That looks strange but GSV enumerates satellites but everyone of them has still no data e.g.: $GPGSV,4,1,16,32,,,,11,,,,23,,,*78

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• CVS update doesn't fetch most recent commit

  - by mizipzor

  I just commited changes to a file (bringing it to revision 1.3). I then updated the file and to my surprise I got back revision 1.2 (how the file looked before my commit). Checking the history if the file shows that there is a revision 1.3 (most recent) and a 1.2 before that (which is identical to my local copy). Ive tried removing the file and updating the folder, causing the file to be downloaded again. Ive also tried fetching a clean copy of the file of HEAD. Clearing cache and fetching HEAD doesnt work. But forcing an update to revision 1.3 explicitly does. But doing a normal update after that causes it to go back to revision 1.2. This is on a Windows XP machine, server is also a Windows box. Im using TortoiseCVS. Does anyone know what could be causing this? (If you dont know how to fix it, I will award bonus points to anyone that can tell me why CVS broke and, hopefully, how horrible it will be to fix it. I want to add it to my list so that maybe some day I can convince my colleagues to finally give it up in favor of a more modern VCS.)

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• WPF binding to a boolean on a control

  - by Jose

  I'm wondering if someone has a simple succinct solution to binding to a dependency property that needs to be the converse of the property. Here's an example I have a textbox that is disabled based on a property in the datacontext e.g.: <TextBox IsEnabled={Binding CanEdit} Text={Binding MyText}/> The requirement changes and I want to make it ReadOnly instead of disabled, so without changing my ViewModel I could do this: In the UserControl resources: <UserControl.Resources> <m:NotConverter x:Key="NotConverter"/> </UserControl.Resources> And then change the TextBox to: <TextBox IsReadOnly={Binding CanEdit,Converter={StaticResource NotConverter}} Text={Binding MyText}/> Which I personally think is EXTREMELY verbose I would love to be able to just do this(notice the !): <TextBox IsReadOnly={Binding !CanEdit} Text={Binding MyText}/> But alas, that is not an option that I know of. I can think of two options. Create an attached property IsNotReadOnly to FrameworkElement(?) and bind to that property If I change my ViewModel then I could add a property CanEdit and another CannotEdit which I would be kind of embarrassed of because I believe it adds an irrelevant property to a class, which I don't think is a good practice. The main reason for the question is that in my project the above isn't just for one control, so trying to keep my project as DRY as possible and readable I am throwing this out to anyone feeling my pain and has come up with a solution :)

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• import csv file/excel into sql database asp.net

  - by kiev

  Hi everyone! I am starting a project with asp.net visual studio 2008 / SQL 2000 (2005 in future) using c#. The tricky part for me is that the existing DB schema changes often and the import files columns will all have to me matched up with the existing db schema since they may not be one to one match on column names. (There is a lookup table that provides the tables schema with column names I will use) I am exploring different ways to approach this, and need some expert advice. Is there any existing controls or frameworks that I can leverage to do any of this? So far I explored FileUpload .NET control, as well as some 3rd party upload controls to accomplish the upload such as SlickUpload but the files uploaded should be < 500mb Next part is reading of my csv /excel and parsing it for display to the user so they can match it with our db schema. I saw CSVReader and others but for excel its more difficult since I will need to support different versions. Essentially The user performing this import will insert and/or update several tables from this import file. There are other more advance requirements like record matching but and preview of the import records, but I wish to get through understanding how to do this first. Update: I ended up using csvReader with LumenWorks.Framework for uploading the csv files.

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• Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

  - by Denis

  I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

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• Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

  - by James Black

  I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

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• Inserting default "admin" user into database during Rails App startup

  - by gbc

  I'm building my first real rails application for a little in-house task. Most of the application tasks require authentication/authorization. The first time the app starts up (or starts with a wiped db), I'd like the process to be: User logs into the admin panel using "admin" & "admin" for authentication info. User navigates to admin credentials editing page and changes name and password to something safer so that "admin" & "admin" is no longer a valid login. To achieve this result, I'd like to stuff a default username & password combination into the database on if the application starts up and detects that there are no user credentials in the 'users' table. For example: if User.count == 0 User.create(:name => "admin", :password => "admin") end However, I'm unsure where to place that code. I tried adding an initializer script in the config/initializers, but the error I received appeared to indicate that the model classes weren't yet loaded into the application. So I'm curious to know at what point I can hook into the application startup cycle and insert data into the database through ActiveRecord before requests are dispatched.

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• Why is my Scala function returning type Unit and not whatever is the last line?

  - by Andy

  I am trying to figure out the issue, and tried different styles that I have read on Scala, but none of them work. My code is: .... val str = "(and x y)"; def stringParse ( exp: String, pos: Int, expreshHolder: ArrayBuffer[String], follow: Int ) var b = pos; //position of where in the expression String I am currently in val temp = expreshHolder; //holder of expressions without parens var arrayCounter = follow; //just counts to make sure an empty spot in the array is there to put in the strings if(exp(b) == '(') { b = b + 1; while(exp(b) == ' '){b = b + 1} //point of this is to just skip any spaces between paren and start of expression type if(exp(b) == 'a') { temp(arrayCounter) = exp(b).toString; b = b+1; temp(arrayCounter)+exp(b).toString; b = b+1; temp(arrayCounter) + exp(b).toString; arrayCounter+=1} temp; } } val hold: ArrayBuffer[String] = stringParse(str, 0, new ArrayBuffer[String], 0); for(test <- hold) println(test); My error is: Driver.scala:35: error: type mismatch; found : Unit required: scala.collection.mutable.ArrayBuffer[String] ho = stringParse(str, 0, ho, 0); ^one error found When I add an equals sign after the arguments in the method declaration, like so: def stringParse ( exp: String, pos: Int, expreshHolder: ArrayBuffer[String], follow: Int ) ={....} It changes it to "Any". I am confused on how this works. Any ideas? Much appreciated.

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• Travelling Visual Studio developers

  - by Graphain

  Hi, I am about to travel to Europe (I'm Australian but imagine this is a similar circumstance for US users and simply flipped for European users). However, there is the slim possibility I will need to do some Visual Studio work while I'm travelling. As I see it I have three options: Leave a desktop PC on at home, access remotely via net cafes. Carry a laptop with me on the trip, upload files as required using public wifi. Option 2 but instead buy cheap light netbook that is miraculously capable of running VS. Does anyone have any experience or advice to shed on any of these options? For reference, this existing post suggests that VS remotely for short distances is okay, but over longer distances could be more problematic. I've used VS via RDP to a US server before and it was pretty laggy but for small changes I could get by. Concerns I have that you may have some experience with: Weight of luggage (ideally like to travel light) Security of laptop (imagine it'll be too heavy to carry around all the time so have to leave it at hotel/hostel etc. and hope for the best) Security of data (don't want someone stealing RDP access to my home PC) Security of FTP (don't want someone stealing FTP passwords over wireless)

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• ASP.Net MVC DotNetOpenAuth Sample Issue on publish

  - by Roger D. Pharr

  I'm trying to use the MSDN Open ID project template for ASP.NET MVC C#. I've been able to configure a local copy to run well. But when I publish it to my hosting provider - it craps out. The error is "500 internal server error". Is there something I should know about publishing this template that I haven't noticed? Here are some more details (for diligence): Hosting provider is GoDaddy/SQL2005/IIS7. When I configure & publish the blank MVC template, it works. The local database publishes successfully, but I haven't been able to troubleshoot the connection in web.config yet. I expect there are connection string problems in the file. I tried disabling all of the references to log4net, as it seemed to be invoked several times on startup. But those changes did not seem to make a difference in either the local or published application performance. My IDE is Visual Studio 2010 Pro Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Google maps KM bounds box reapplying itself on map zoom

  - by creminsn

  I have a map in which I apply a custom overlay using KMbox overlay to signify where I think the users general point of interest lies. What I want is to display this map to the user and allow them to click on the map to give me an exact location match of their POI. This all works fine except for when the user clicks on the map and changes the zoom of the map. Here's my code to add the marker to the map. function addMarker(location) { if(KmOverlay) { KmOverlay.remove(); } if(last_marker) { last_marker.setMap(null); } marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map }); // Keep track for future unsetting... last_marker = marker; } And to show the map I have this function. function show_map(lt, ln, zoom, controls, marker) { var ltln = new google.maps.LatLng(lt, ln); var vars = { zoom: zoom, center: ltln, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: controls, navigationControlOptions: {style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.ZOOM_PAN} , mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, scrollwheel: false }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), vars); KmOverlay = new KmBox(map, new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lon), KmOpts); var totalBounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); totalBounds.union(KmOverlay.getBounds()); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { addMarker(event.latLng); }); } I have a working example at the following link here

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• DOMNode reference doesn't work anymore after appending it to another element twice

  - by Robbie Groenewoudt

  Hi, I'm using the a wrapper around the PHP5-class DOMDocument to generate my HTML. This makes it easy to modify the HTML by using the DOM. An example is creating element #1 and adding it to the element #2 and still be able to modify element #1 directly. A problem arises however with the following: Element #1 is added to element #2 Element #2 is added to element #3 Element #1 is modified but no changes are visible in the DOM of element #3 (which contains #1 and #2) A simplified sample code: <?php $doc1 = new DOMDocument(); $el1 = $doc1->createElement('h1', 'Hello'); $doc1->appendChild($el1); $doc2 = new DOMDocument(); $el2 = $doc2->createElement('h2', 'World'); $doc2->appendChild($el2); $doc3 = new DOMDocument(); $el3 = $doc3->createElement('h3', 'Today'); $doc3->appendChild($el3); // Import el1 into el2 $el1 = $doc2->importNode($el1, true); $el2->appendChild( $el1 ); $doc1 = $doc2; // Import el2 into el3 $el2 = $doc3->importNode($el2, true); //$el1 = $doc3->importNode($el1, true); Necessary? $el3->appendChild($el2); $doc2 = $doc3; // Modify el1 $el1->nodeValue = "Boo"; // This doesn't work? //$el2->nodeValue = "Boo"; // Changing element2 or 3 works... // Display result echo $doc3->saveHTML(); ?>` Any idea's on why modifying $el1 won't work? (While $el2 works fine) Or an easy way to set $el1 to the right element?

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• Exit and rollback everything in script on error

  - by Jan W.

  Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

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• InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

  - by Wallstreet Programmer

  I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

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• Mysterious Flickering Visual Artifact

  - by Axis

  A flashing bar of red appears at the top of the EAGLView that I have added as a subview in my iPhone app. It flickers on and off (i.e., one frame it's there, the next frame it's not, the next frame it's there again). I have removed a lot of code from my app until I'm essentially left with the stock OpenGL-ES project and a few changes: The glview is not fullscreen; it's a subview. I enabled the depth buffer. I'm not even trying to draw anything. If the glview is fullscreen, or if I disable the depth buffer, then there is no flicker and it works fine. But needless to say, this is a 3D view and I'd like to be able to display it within a larger UIKit view. I'm not sure what code would be useful to post, but here's how I add the glview to my main view: appDelegate.glView.frame = CGRectMake(245, 65, 215, 215); [self.view addSubview:appDelegate.glView]; [appDelegate.glView startAnimation]; Here's my render function: - (void) render { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, defaultFramebuffer); glViewport(0, 0, backingWidth, backingHeight); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; } It seems pretty obvious to me that the problem lies with the depth buffer somehow, but I'm not sure why. Also, it works fine in the simulator, but not on my iphone. I'm using iPhone OS 3.1. Any ideas on where to look for a problem?

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• regexp target last main li in list

  - by veilig

  I need to target the starting tag of the last top level LI in a list that may or may-not contain sublists in various positions - without using CSS or Javascript. Is there a simple/elegant regexp that can help with this? I'm no guru w/ them, but it appears the need for greedy/non-greedy selectors when I'm selecting all the middle text (.*) / (.+) changes as nested lists are added and moved around in the list - and this is throwing me off. $pattern = '/^(<ul>.*)<li>(.+<\/li><\/ul>)$/'; $replacement = '$1<li id="lastLi">$3'; Perhaps there is an easier approach?? converting to XML to target the LI and then convert back? ie: Single Element <ul> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Multiple Elements <ul> <li>foo</li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested Lists before end <ul> <li> foo <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> <li> <li>TARGET</li> </ul> Nested List at end <ul> <li>foo</li> <li> TARGET <ul> <li>bar</li> </ul> </li> </ul>

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• Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

  - by walkor

  Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

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• Can i change the view without changing the controller?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Pretend1 there is a place to type in a name:     Name: __________________ When the text box changes, the value is absorbed into the controller, who stores it in data model. Business rules require that a name be entered: if there is no text entered the TextBox should be colored something in the view to indicate baddness; otherwise it can be whatever color the view likes. The TextBox contains a String, the controller handles a String, and the model stores a String. Now lets say i want to improve the view. There is a new kind of text box2 that can be fed not only string-based keyboard input, but also an image. The view (currently) knows how to determine if the image is in the proper format to perform the processing required to extract text out of it. If there is text, then that text can be fed to the controller, who feeds it to the data model. But if the image is invalid, e.g.3 wrong file format invalid dimensions invalid bit depth unhandled or unknown encoding format missing or incorrectly located registration marks contents not recognizable the view can show something to the user that the image is bad. But the telling the user that something is bad is supposed to be the job of the controller. i'm, of course, not going to re-write the controller to handle Image based text-input (e.g. image based names). a. the code is binary locked inside a GUI widget4 b. there other views besides this one, i'm not going to impose a particular view onto the controller c. i just don't wanna. If i have to change things outside of this UI improvement, then i'll just leave the UI unimproved5 So what's the thinking on having different views for the same Model and Controller? Nitpicker's Corner 1 contrived hypothetical example 2 e.g. bar code, g-mask, ocr 3 contrived hypothetical reasons 4 or hardware of a USB bar-code scanner 5 forcing the user to continue to use a DateTimePicker rather than a TextBox

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• How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

  - by Chad Johnson

  Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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• Update Input Value With jQuery, Old Value Submitted to Form

  - by Tyler DeWitt

  I've got a form with an input with id/name league_id <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="/user" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="utf8" type="hidden" value="?"><input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="bb92urX83ivxOZZJzWLJMcr5ZSuamowO9O9Sxh5gqKo="></div> <input id="league_id" name="league_id" type="text" value="11"> <select class="sport_selector" id="sport_type_id" name="sport_type_id"><option value="5" selected="selected">Football</option> <option value="25">Women's Soccer</option> <option value="30">Volleyball</option> <option value="10">Men's Soccer</option></select> <input name="commit" type="submit" value="Save changes"> </form> In another part of my page, I have a drop down that, when changed, clears the value of league_id $("#sport_type_id").change -> $("#league_id").val(null) $(this).parents('form:first').submit() If I debug this page, I can see the value get wiped from the text box, but when the form is submitted, my controller always gets the old value. I tried changing the name of the input and got the same results.

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• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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• Does XAML work with file links in Visual Studio?

  - by Tim

  I'm adding a new WPF project to an existing Visual Studio solution and would like to reuse a bunch of code (C# and xaml) from an existing project within the solution. I've created the new project and added existing files as follows: Right click project Add - Add Existing Item Find the file to reuse, use the arrow next to "Add" and "Add as Link" I now have a nice project set up with all the proper links. However, XAML chokes on these links. For example: <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\TextBox\TextBox.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> The files "Buttons.xaml" and "TextBox.xaml" exist as links in my new project. The project builds, but when I run, I get the following XamlParseException: 'Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml' value cannot be assigned to property 'Source' of object 'System.Windows.ResourceDictionary'. Cannot locate resource 'resources/elements/buttons/buttons.xaml'. It seems like the XAML parser is requiring an actual copy of these XAML files to exist in my new project, instead of links. This is exactly what I'm trying to avoid. I want my project to share these files so that any changes get transferred to the other project without hunting and copying. Any insight is appreciated!

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• error while updating a database in ASP.NET

  - by Viredae

  I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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• asp.net mvc 2 - return JavaScript with View

  - by Tomaszewski

  Hi, using ASP.NET MVC 2 I have a navigation menu inside my Master Page. In the navigation menu, I am trying add a class to the that the current page relates to (i.e., home page will add class="active" to the Home button). I'm trying to consider scalability and the fact that I don't want to change individual pages if the navigation changes later. The only way I can think of doing this is: Add JavaScript to each individual View that will add the class when the DOM is ready Return JavaScript when return View() occurs on point (2), I am unsure how to do. Thusfar I have been doing the following in my controller: public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["messege"] = JavaScript("<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'> $(document).ready(function () { console.log('hi hi hi'); }); </script>"); return View(); } but in my view, when I call: <%: ViewData["messege"] %> I get: System.Web.Mvc.JavaScriptResult as the result Would you guys have any ideas on How to solve the navigation menu probelem, other than the solutions I've listed return JavaScript along with your view from the Controller Thanks, in advanced!

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• Patterns / Solutions to complicated Feature Management

  - by yclian

  Hi all, My company develops CDN / Web-Hosting solution. We have a middleware that's served as a business logic layer and exposes web service for the front-end. I would like to seek for a clean solution to feature management - there're uncertainties and ugly workarounds/solutions in the software that the dev would say "when it happens or is broken, we will fix it". For example, here're the following features that a web publisher can have: Sites limit Bandwidth limit SSL feature + SSL configuration per site If we downgrade a web publisher, when he's having 10 sites, down to 5 sites, we can choose not to suspend the rest of the 5 sites, or we shall prompt for suspension before the downgrade. For the case of bandwidth limit, the downgrade is easy, when the bandwidth check happens, if the publisher has it exceeded, then we will suspend his account. For the case of SSL feature. Every SSL configuration is tied to a site, what shall happen to these configuration object when the SSL feature is downgraded from enabled to disabled? So as you can see, there're many different situations and there are different ways of handling it. I can make a system that examines the impacts and prompts the user to make changes before the downgrade/upgrade. Or a system that ignores the impacts and just upgrade/downgrade. Bad. Or a system designed in a way that the client code need to be aware of the complex feature matrix (or I can expose a helper to the client code to check if a feature is not DEFUNCT) There can be many ways that I am still thinking but puzzled. I am wondering, how would you tackle this issue and is there any recommended patterns or books or software that you think I can refer to? Appreciate your help.

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