Search Results

Search found 14311 results on 573 pages for 'stan note'.

Page 516/573 | < Previous Page | 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523  | Next Page >

  • IE7 and IE8: Float clearing without adding empty elements

    - by tk-421
    Hello, I'm having a problem similar to the one described here (without a resolution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2467745/ie7-float-and-clear-on-the-same-element The following HTML renders as intended in Firefox but not in (both) IE7 and IE8: <html> <head> <style> ul { list-style-type: none; } li { clear: both; padding: 5px; } .left { clear: left; float: left; } .middle { clear: none; float: left; } .right { clear: right; float: left; } </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li>1</li> <li class="left">2</li> <li class="right">3</li> <li class="left">4</li> <li class="middle">5</li> <li class="right">6</li> <li>7</li> </ul> </body> </html> This is a form layout, and in Firefox the results appear like: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 That's what I'm going for. In IE7 and IE8 however, the results are: 1 2 3 5 6 4 7 [Note: I don't want to float anything to the right because I want the fields on my form to left-align correctly, without a giant space in-between the floated fields to account for the parent container's width.] Apparently I need a full clear, and can probably add an empty list-item element to the list to force clearing, but that seems like a dumb solution and sort of defeats the purpose. Any ideas? I've spent a few hours reading and trying different options without success.

    Read the article

  • Wrong data retrieved from database

    - by holyredbeard
    So, I want to retrieve the order of the elements of a list. The order is set before by the user, and are stored in the table below. Because I also want to retrieve name and description of the list elements I need to combine two tables (see below). However, what is actually retrieved is an array containing 16 elements (should be four because it only exists four elements as for now). The array is too long to post here, but I put it in a phpFiddle to be found here if you're interested. Well, I have really tried to find what's wrong (probably something easy as always), but with no luck. Thanks a lot for your time and help! listModel.php: public function GetOrderedElements($userId, $listId) { // $userId = 46 // $listId = 1 $query = "SELECT le.listElemId, le.listElemName, le.listElemDesc, lo.listElemOrderPlace FROM listElement AS le INNER JOIN listElemOrder AS lo ON le.listId = lo.listId WHERE lo.userId = ? AND lo.listId = ? ORDER BY listElemId"; $stmt = $this->m_db->Prepare($query); $stmt->bind_param("ii", $userId, $listId); $listElements = $this->m_db->GetOrderedElements($stmt); return $listElements; } database.php: public function GetOrderedElements(\mysqli_stmt $stmt) { if ($stmt === FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->execute() == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->bind_result($listElemId, $listElemName, $listElemDesc, $listElemOrderPlace) == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } $listElements = array(); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $listElements[] = array('listElemId' => $listElemId, 'listElemName' => $listElemName, 'listElemDesc' => $listElemDesc, 'listElemOrderPlace' => $listElemOrderPlace); } var_dump($listElements); $stmt->Close(); return $listElements; } from the database: listElemOrder: listElemOrderId | listId | listElemId | userId | listElemOrderPlace 1 1 1 46 1 2 1 2 46 4 3 1 3 46 2 4 1 4 46 3 listElement: listElemId | listElemName | listId | listElemDesc | listElemOrderPlace 1 Elem A 1 Derp NULL 2 Elem B 1 Herp NULL 3 Elem C 1 Lorum NULL 4 Elem D 1 Ipsum NULL Note: 'listElemOrderPlace' in the table listElement is the final order of the elements (all users average), not to be mixed with the one with the same name in the other table, that's only a specific user's order of the list elements (which is the interesting one in this case).

    Read the article

  • Undefined template methods trick ?

    - by Matthieu M.
    A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

    Read the article

  • MS Access 07 - Q re lookup column vs many-to-many; Q re checkboxes in many-to-many forms

    - by TBinLondon
    Hello, I'm creating a database with Access. This is just a test database, similar to my requirements, so I can get my skills up before creating one for work. I've created a database for a fictional school as this is a good playground and rich data (many students have many subjects have many teachers, etc). Question 1 What is the difference, if any, between using a Lookup column and a many-to-many associate table? Example: I have Tables 'Teacher' and 'Subject'. Many teachers have many subjects. I can, and have, created a table 'Teacher_Subject' and run queries with this. I have then created a lookup column in teachers table with data from subjects. The lookup column seems to take the place of the teacher_subject table. (though the data on relationships is obviously duplicated between lookup table and teacher_subject and may vary). Which one is the 'better' option? Is there a snag with using lookup tables? (I realize that this is a very 'general' question. Links to other resources and answers saying 'that depends...' are appreciated) Question 2 What attracts me to lookup tables is the following: When creating a form for entering subjects for teachers, with lookup I can simply create checkboxes and click a subject for a teacher 'on' or 'off'. Each click on/off creates/removes a record in the lookup column (which replaces teacher_subject). If I use a form from a query from teacher subject with teacher as main form and subject as subform I run into this problem: In the subform I can either select each subject that teacher has in a bombo box, i.e. click, scroll down, select, go to next row, click, scroll down, etc. (takes too long) OR I can create a list box listing all available subjects in each row but allowing me to select only one. (takes up too much space). Is it possible to have a click on/off list box for teacher_subject, creating/removing a record there with each click? Note - I know zero SQL or VB. If the correct answer is "you need to know SQL for this" then that's cool. I just need to know. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C++ Template const char array to int

    - by Levi Schuck
    So, I'm wishing to be able to have a static const compile time struct that holds some value based on a string by using templates. I only desire up to four characters. I know that the type of 'abcd' is int, and so is 'ab','abc', and although 'a' is of type char, it works out for a template<int v> struct What I wish to do is take sizes of 2,3,4,5 of some const char, "abcd" and have the same functionality as if they used 'abcd'. Note that I do not mean 1,2,3, or 4 because I expect the null terminator. cout << typeid("abcd").name() << endl; tells me that the type for this hard coded string is char const [5], which includes the null terminator on the end. I understand that I will need to twiddle the values as characters, so they are represented as an integer. I cannot use constexpr since VS10 does not support it (VS11 doesn't either..) So, for example with somewhere this template defined, and later the last line template <int v> struct something { static const int value = v; }; //Eventually in some method cout << typeid(something<'abcd'>::value).name() << endl; works just fine. I've tried template<char v[5]> struct something2 { static const int value = v[0]; } template<char const v[5]> struct something2 { static const int value = v[0]; } template<const char v[5]> struct something2 { static const int value = v[0]; } All of them build individually, though when I throw in my test, cout << typeid(something2<"abcd">::value).name() << endl; I get 'something2' : invalid expression as a template argument for 'v' 'something2' : use of class template requires template argument list Is this not feasible or am I misunderstanding something?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - how to make users confirm the delete

    - by H4mm3rHead
    He, I have this page where i have checkboxes next to every item in a table, and want to allow the user to select some of them and press my delete button. I just cant come up with the jquery for making the confirm window and submitting only if 'yes' is pushed - this is my page <%Html.BeginForm(); %> <%List<ShopLandCore.Model.SLGroup> groups = (List<ShopLandCore.Model.SLGroup>)Model; %> <%Html.RenderPartial("AdminWorkHeader"); %> <table width="100%" id="ListTable" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td colspan="5" class="heading"> <input type="submit" name="closeall" value="Close selected" /> <input type="submit" name="deleteall" value="Delete selected" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <th width="20px"> </th> <th> Name </th> <th> Description </th> <th width="150px"> Created </th> <th width="150px"> Closed </th> </tr> <%foreach (ShopLandCore.Model.SLGroup g in groups) { %> <tr> <td> <%=Html.CheckBox(g.Id.ToString()) %> </td> <td> <%=g.Name %> </td> <td> <%=g.Description %> </td> <td> <%=g.Created %> </td> <td> <%=g.Closed %> </td> </tr> <%} %> </table> <%Html.EndForm(); %> Please note that its only for the delete that it should confirm, and not necessarily for the close button.

    Read the article

  • How does Page.IsValid work?

    - by Lijo
    I have following code with a RequiredFieldValidator. The EnableClientScript property is set as "false" in the validation control. Also I have disabled script in browser. I am NOT using Page.IsValid in code behind. Still, when I submit without any value in textbox I will get error message. From comments of @Dai, I came to know that this can be an issue, if there is any code in Page_Load that is executed in a postback. There will be no validation errors thrown. (However, for button click handler, there is no need to check Page.IsValid) if (Page.IsPostBack) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; txtEmpName.Text = value + "Appended"; } QUESTION Why the server side validation does not happen before Page_Load? Why it works fine when I use Page.IsValid? UPDATE It seems like, we need to add If(Page.IsValid) in button click also if we are using a Custom Validator with server side validation. Refer CustomValidator not working well. Note: Client side validation question is present here: Whether to use Page_IsValid or Page_ClientValidate() (for Client Side Events) MARKUP <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> alert('haiii'); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ValidationSummary runat="server" ID="vsumAll" DisplayMode="BulletList" CssClass="validationsummary" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmpName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valEmpName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmpName" EnableClientScript="false" ErrorMessage="RequiredFieldValidator" Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> CODE BEHIND protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; SubmitEmployee(value); } References: Should I always call Page.IsValid? ASP.NET Validation Controls – Important Points, Tips and Tricks CustomValidator not working well

    Read the article

  • MySQL search for user and their roles

    - by Jenkz
    I am re-writing the SQL which lets a user search for any other user on our site and also shows their roles. An an example, roles can be "Writer", "Editor", "Publisher". Each role links a User to a Publication. Users can take multiple roles within multiple publications. Example table setup: "users" : user_id, firstname, lastname "publications" : publication_id, name "link_writers" : user_id, publication_id "link_editors" : user_id, publication_id Current psuedo SQL: SELECT * FROM ( (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%') UNION (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE lastname LIKE '%Jenkz%') ) AS dt JOIN (ROLES STATEMENT) AS roles ON roles.user_id = dt.user_id At the moment my roles statement is: SELECT dt2.user_id, dt2.publication_id, dt.role FROM ( (SELECT 'writer' AS role, link_writers.user_id, link_writers.publication_id FROM link_writers) UNION (SELECT 'editor' AS role, link_editors.user_id, link_editors.publication_id FROM link_editors) ) AS dt2 The reason for wrapping the roles statement in UNION clauses is that some roles are more complex and require a table join to find the publication_id and user_id. As an example "publishers" might be linked accross two tables "link_publishers": user_id, publisher_group_id "link_publisher_groups": publisher_group_id, publication_id So in that instance, the query forming part of my UNION would be: SELECT 'publisher' AS role, link_publishers.user_id, link_publisher_groups.publication_id FROM link_publishers JOIN link_publisher_groups ON lpg.group_id = lp.group_id I'm pretty confident that my table setup is good (I was warned off the one-table-for-all system when researching the layout). My problem is that there are now 100,000 rows in the users table and upto 70,000 rows in each of the link tables. Initial lookup in the users table is fast, but the joining really slows things down. How can I only join on the relevant roles? -------------------------- EDIT ---------------------------------- Explain above (open in a new window to see full resolution). The bottom bit in red, is the "WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%'" the third row searches WHERE CONCAT(firstname, ' ', lastname) LIKE '%Jenkz%'. Hence the large row count, but I think this is unavoidable, unless there is a way to put an index accross concatenated fields? The green bit at the top just shows the total rows scanned from the ROLES STATEMENT. You can then see each individual UNION clause (#6 - #12) which all show a large number of rows. Some of the indexes are normal, some are unique. It seems that MySQL isn't optimizing to use the dt.user_id as a comparison for the internal of the UNION statements. Is there any way to force this behaviour? Please note that my real setup is not publications and writers but "webmasters", "players", "teams" etc.

    Read the article

  • Secure WS client with UsernameToken(SOAP security header)

    - by user79163
    Hi, I'm trying to secure my WS client to be able to call the WS. My code looks like this: SendSmsService smsService = new SendSmsService(); SendSms sendSMS = smsService.getSendSms(); BindingProvider stub = (BindingProvider)sendSMS; //Override endpoint with local copy of wsdl. String URL ="";//here is the wsdl url Map<String,Object> requestContext = stub.getRequestContext(); requestContext.put(BindingProvider.ENDPOINT_ADDRESS_PROPERTY, URL); //Set usernametoken URL fileURL = loader.getResource("client-config.xml"); File file = new File(fileURL.getFile()); FileInputStream clientConfig = null; try { clientConfig = new FileInputStream(file); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } XWSSecurityConfiguration config = null; try { config = SecurityConfigurationFactory.newXWSSecurityConfiguration(clientConfig); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); log.warn("Exception: "+e.getMessage()); } requestContext.put(XWSSecurityConfiguration.MESSAGE_SECURITY_CONFIGURATION, config); //Invoke the web service String requestId = null; try { requestId = sendSMS.sendSms(addresses, senderName, charging, message, receiptRequest); } catch (PolicyException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ServiceException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } and the config file looks like this: <xwss:JAXRPCSecurity xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config" optimize="true"> <xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityConfiguration dumpMessages="true" xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config"> <xwss:UsernameToken name="username" password="password> </xwss:SecurityConfiguration> </xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> util.SecurityEnvironmentHandler </xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> </xwss:JAXRPCSecurity> The SecurityEnviromentHandler is a dummy class that implements javax.security.auth.callback.CallbackHandler. Authentication must be in compliance with Oasis Web Services Security Username Token Profile 1.0. But I'm constantly getting "Security header not valid" error. Where am I going wrong, can anyone tell me. I used wsimport(JAX_WS 2.1 to generate classes for my client) Note:Only thing I know about this WS is WSDL URL and user&pass for authentication

    Read the article

  • Better way to write an object generator for an RAII template class?

    - by Dan
    I would like to write an object generator for a templated RAII class -- basically a function template to construct an object using type deduction of parameters so the types don't have to be specified explicitly. The problem I foresee is that the helper function that takes care of type deduction for me is going to return the object by value, which will result in a premature call to the RAII destructor when the copy is made. Perhaps C++0x move semantics could help but that's not an option for me. Anyone seen this problem before and have a good solution? This is what I have: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> class FooAdder { private: typedef OtherThing<T, U, V> Thing; Thing &thing_; int a_; // many other members public: FooAdder(Thing &thing, int a); ~FooAdder(); void foo(T t, U u); void bar(V v); }; The gist is that OtherThing has a horrible interface, and FooAdder is supposed to make it easier to use. The intended use is roughly like this: FooAdder(myThing, 2) .foo(3, 4) .foo(5, 6) .bar(7) .foo(8, 9); The FooAdder constructor initializes some internal data structures. The foo and bar methods populate those data structures. The ~FooAdder dtor wraps things up and calls a method on thing_, taking care of all the nastiness. That would work fine if FooAdder wasn't a template. But since it is, I would need to put the types in, more like this: FooAdder<Abc, Def, Ghi>(myThing, 2) ... That's annoying, because the types can be inferred based on myThing. So I would prefer to create a templated object generator, similar to std::make_pair, that will do the type deduction for me. Something like this: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> FooAdder<T, U, V> AddFoo(Thing &thing, int a) { return FooAdder<T, U, V>(thing, a); } That seems problematic: because it returns by value, the stack temporary object will be destructed, which will cause the RAII dtor to run prematurely. One thought I had was to give FooAdder a copy ctor with move semantics, kinda like std::auto_ptr. But I would like to do this without dynamic memory allocation, so I thought the copy ctor could set a flag within FooAdder indicating the dtor shouldn't do the wrap-up. Like this: FooAdder(FooAdder &rhs) // Note: rhs is not const : thing_(rhs.thing_) , a_(rhs.a_) , // etc... lots of other members, annoying. , moved(false) { rhs.moved = true; } ~FooAdder() { if (!moved) { // do whatever it would have done } } Seems clunky. Anyone got a better way?

    Read the article

  • Attach GestureRecogniser to multiple imageviews

    - by AppleDeveloper
    Something strange I encountered today while attaching same gesture recogniser to multiple image views. It gets attached to only the last one, in other words, it can be attached to only one view! I had to create multiple gesture recognisers to meet my requirements. Following is what I have done. Am I doing correct? Is that's the only way to attach recognisers to the multiple imageviews? Please note that I don't want to use UITableView or UIVIew and put all imageviews in it and attach gesture recogniser to only UITableView or UIVIew. I have all image scattered and I have to detect which image is being dragged. Thanks. [imgView1 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView1 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView2 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView2 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView3 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView3 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView4 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView4 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView5 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView5 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; [imgView6 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imgView6 setMultipleTouchEnabled:YES]; //Attach gesture recognizer to each imagviews gestureRecognizer1 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer1.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer2 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer2.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer3 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer3.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer4 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer4.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer5 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer5.delegate = self; gestureRecognizer6 = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(gestureHandler:)]; gestureRecognizer6.delegate = self; [imgView1 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer1]; [imgView2 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer2]; [imgView3 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer3]; [imgView4 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer4]; [imgView5 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer5]; [imgView6 addGestureRecognizer:gestureRecognizer6];

    Read the article

  • Perfect Forwarding to async lambda

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    I have a function template, where I want to do perfect forwarding into a lambda that I run on another thread. Here is a minimal test case which you can directly compile: #include <thread> #include <future> #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <vector> /** * Function template that does perfect forwarding to a lambda inside an * async call (or at least tries to). I want both instantiations of the * function to work (one for lvalue references T&, and rvalue reference T&&). * However, I cannot get the code to compile when calling it with an lvalue. * See main() below. */ template <typename T> std::string accessValueAsync(T&& obj) { std::future<std::string> fut = std::async(std::launch::async, [](T&& vec) mutable { return vec[0]; }, std::forward<T>(obj)); return fut.get(); } int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { std::vector<std::string> lvalue{"Testing"}; // calling with what I assume is an lvalue reference does NOT compile std::cout << accessValueAsync(lvalue) << std::endl; // calling with rvalue reference compiles std::cout << accessValueAsync(std::move(lvalue)) << std::endl; // I want both to compile. return 0; } For the non-compiling case, here is the last line of the error message which is intelligible: main.cpp|13 col 29| note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >’ to ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >&’ I have a feeling it may have something to do with how T&& is deduced, but I can't pinpoint the exact point of failure and fix it. Any suggestions? Thank you! EDIT: I am using gcc 4.7.0 just in case this could be a compiler issue (probably not)

    Read the article

  • JPanel's child components paint/layout problem

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm having a problem that when my frame is shown (after a login dialog) the buttons are not on correct position, then in some miliseconds they go to the right position (the center of the panel with border layout). When I make a SSCCE, it works correct, but when I run my whole code I have this fast-miliseconds delay to the buttons to go to the correct place. Unfortunately, I can't post the whole code, but the method that shows the frame is: public void login(JComponent userView) { centerPanel.removeAll(); centerPanel.add(userView); centerPanel.revalidate(); centerPanel.repaint(); frame.setVisible(true); } What would cause this delay to the panel layout? (I'm running everything in the EDT) -- update In my machine, this SSCCE shows the layout problem in 2 of 10 times I run it: import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.JButton; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class TEST { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("Debug test..."); JPanel btnPnl = new JPanel(); btnPnl.add(new JButton("TEST")); JFrame f = new JFrame("TEST"); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.getContentPane().setLayout(new BorderLayout()); f.getContentPane().add(btnPnl); f.pack(); f.setSize(800, 600); f.setVisible(true); System.out.println("End debug test!"); } }); } } The button first appers in the up-left, and then it goes to the center. Please, note that I'm understand, not just correct. Is it a java bug? --update OK, so the SSCCE don't show the problem with you that tried till now. Maybe it's my computer performance problem. But this don't answer the question, I still think Java Swing is creating new threads for make the layout behind the scenes.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to reduce code and loop through a hierarchial commission script?

    - by JM4
    I have a script which currently "works" but is nearly 3600 lines of code and makes well over 50 database calls within a single script. From my experience, there is no way to really "loop" the script and minimize it because each call to the database is a subquery of the ones before based on referral ids. Perhaps I can give a very simple example of what I am trying to accomplish and see if anybody has experience with something similar. In my example, there are three tables: Table 1 - Sellers ID | Comm_level | Parent ----------------------------------- 1 | 4 | NULL 2 | 3 | 1 3 | 2 | 1 4 | 2 | 2 5 | 2 | 2 6 | 1 | 3 Where ID is the id of one of our sales agents, comm_level will determine what his commission percentage is for each product he sells, parent indicates the ID for whom recruited that particular agent. In the example above, 1 is the top agent, he recruited two agents, 2 and 3. 2 recruited two agents, 4 and 5. 3 recruited one agent, 6. NOTE: An agent can NEVER recruit anybody equal to or higher than their own level. Table 2 - Commissions Level | Item 1 | Item 2 | Item 3 ----------------------------------------------------- 4 | .5 | .4 | .3 3 | .45 | .35 | .25 2 | .4 | .3 | .2 1 | .35 | .25 | .15 This table lays out the commission percentages for each agent based on their actual comm_level (if an agent is at a level 4, he will receive 50% on every item 1 sold, 40% on every item 2, 30% on every item 3 and so on. Table 3 - Items Sold ID | Item --------------------- 4 | item_1 4 | item_2 1 | item_1 2 | item_3 6 | item_2 1 | item_3 This table pairs the actual item sold with the seller who sold the item. When generating the commission report, calculating individual values is very simple. Calculating their commission based on their sub_sellers however is very difficult. In this example, Seller ID 1 gets a piece of every single item sold. The commission percentages indicate individual sales or the height of their commission. For example: When seller ID 6 sold one of item_2 above, the tree for commissions will look like the following: -ID 6 - 25% of cost(item_1) -ID 3 - 5% of cost(item_1) - (30% is his comm - 25% comm of seller id 6) -ID 1 - 10% of cost(item_1) - (40% is his comm - 30% of seller id 3) This must be calculated for every agent in the system from the top down (hence the DB calls within while loops throughout my enormous script). Anybody have a good suggestion or samples they may have used in the past?

    Read the article

  • C# ApplicationContext usage

    - by rd42
    Apologies if my terminology is off, I'm new to C#. I'm trying to use an ApplicationContext file to store mysql conn values, like dbname, username, password. The class with mysql conn string is "using" the namespace for the ApplicationContext, but when I print out the connection string, the values are making it. A friend said, "I'm not initializing it" but couldn't stay to expand on what "it" was. and the "Console.WriteLine("1");" in ApplicationContext.cs never shows up. Do I need to create an ApplicationContext object and the call Initialize() on that object? Thanks for any help. ApplicationContext.cs: namespace NewApplication.Context { class ApplicationContext { public static string serverName; public static string username; public static string password; public static void Initialize() { //need to read through config here try { Console.WriteLine("1"); XmlDocument xDoc = new XmlDocument(); xDoc.Load(".\\Settings.xml"); XmlNodeList serverNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("DatabaseServer"); XmlNodeList usernameNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("UserName"); XmlNodeList passwordNodeList = xDoc.GetElementsByTagName("Password"); } catch (Exception ex) { // MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()); //TODO: Future write to log file username = "user"; password = "password"; serverName = "localhost"; } } } } MySQLManager.cs: note: dbname is the same as the username as you'll see in the code, I copied this from a friend who does that. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using MySql.Data; using MySql.Data.MySqlClient; using NewApplication.Context; namespace NewApplication.DAO { class MySQLManager { private static MySqlConnection conn; public static MySqlConnection getConnection() { if (conn == null || conn.State == System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) { string connStr = "server=" + ApplicationContext.serverName + ";user=" + ApplicationContext.username + ";database=" + ApplicationContext.username + ";port=3306;password=" + ApplicationContext.password + ";"; conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr); try { Console.WriteLine("Connecting to MySQL... "); Console.WriteLine("Connection string: " + connStr + "\n"); conn.Open(); // Perform databse operations // conn.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } return conn; } } } and, thanks for still reading, this is the code that uses the two previous files: class LogDAO { MySqlConnection conn; public LogDAO() { conn = MySQLManager.getConnection(); } Thank you, rd42

    Read the article

  • Hibernate/Spring: getHibernateTemplate().save(...) Freezes/Hangs

    - by ashes999
    I'm using Hibernate and Spring with the DAO pattern (all Hibernate dependencies in a *DAO.java class). I have nine unit tests (JUnit) which create some business objects, save them, and perform operations on them; the objects are in a hash (so I'm reusing the same objects all the time). My JUnit setup method calls my DAO.deleteAllObjects() method which calls getSession().createSQLQuery("DELETE FROM <tablename>").executeUpdate() for my business object table (just one). One of my unit tests (#8/9) freezes. I presumed it was a database deadlock, because the Hibernate log file shows my delete statement last. However, debugging showed that it's simply HibernateTemplate.save(someObject) that's freezing. (Eclipse shows that it's freezing on HibernateTemplate.save(Object), line 694.) Also interesting to note is that running this test by itself (not in the suite of 9 tests) doesn't cause any problems. How on earth do I troubleshoot and fix this? Also, I'm using @Entity annotations, if that matters. Edit: I removed reuse of my business objects (use unique objects in every method) -- didn't make a difference (still freezes). Edit: This started trickling into other tests, too (can't run more than one test class without getting something freezing) Transaction configuration: <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdvice" transaction-manager="txManager"> <!-- the transactional semantics... --> <tx:attributes> <!-- all methods starting with 'get' are read-only --> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true" /> <tx:method name="find*" read-only="true" /> <!-- other methods use the default transaction settings (see below) --> <tx:method name="*" /> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <!-- my bean which is exhibiting the hanging behavior --> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="beanNameHere" expression="execution(* com.blah.blah.IMyDAO.*(..))" /> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdvice" pointcut-ref="beanNameHere" /> </aop:config>

    Read the article

  • Replacing div html() by echoing PHP - how to?

    - by Jared
    Hello, I have a multiple product elements that get their class and ID from PHP: $product1["codename"] = "product-1"; $product1["short"] = "Great Product 1"; $product2["codename"] = "product-2"; $product2["short"] = "Great Product 2"; <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product1["codename"].'" >'. $product1["short"].'</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product2["codename"].'" >'. $product2["short"].'</div> These display as: <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-1" > Great Product 1</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-2" > Great Product 2</div> In the page, I have an element that I want to replace the HTML: <div id="productPopupTop"> //Replace this content </div> Using jquery, I have tried the following: $( '.leftMenuProductButton' ).hover ( function () { var swapNAME = $(this).attr("id"); //gets the ID, #product-1, #product-2 etc. This works. $("#productPopupTop").html(' <? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); //This is supposed to get something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> This doesn't appear to work. }, function () { //this is just here for later }); If I try to do an alert('<? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); it will literally display something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> Please note that both the Javascript and the PHP are externally linked in a PHP file (index.php <<< (js.js, products.php) QUESTION: How do I replace the HTML() of #productPopupTop with the ["short"] of a product? If I should use Ajax, how would I code this?

    Read the article

  • PHP looping through an array to fetch a value for each key from database (third normal form)

    - by zomboble
    I am building a system, mostly for consolidating learning but will be used in practice. I will try and verbally explain the part of the E-R diagram I am focusing on: Each cadet can have many uniformID's Each Uniform ID is a new entry in table uniform, so cadets (table) may look like: id | name | ... | uniformID 1 | Example | ... | 1,2,3 uniform table: id | notes | cadet 1 | Need new blahh | 1 2 | Some stuff needed | 1 3 | Whatever you like | 1 On second thought, looks like I wont need that third column in the db. I am trying to iterate through each id in uniformID, code: <?php $cadet = $_GET['id']; // set from URL $query = mysql_query("SELECT `uniformID` FROM `cadets` WHERE id = '$cadet' LIMIT 1") or die(mysql_error()); // get uniform needed as string // store it while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $uniformArray = $row['uniformID']; } echo $uniformArray . " "; $exploded = explode(",", $uniformArray); // convert into an array // for each key in the array perform a new query foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { $query(count($exploded)); $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); } ? As I say, this is mainly for consolidation purposes but I have come up with a error, sql is saying: Fatal error: Function name must be a string in C:\wamp\www\intranet\uniform.php on line 82 line 82 is: $query[$key] = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); I wasn't sure it would work so I tried it and now i'm stuck! EDIT: Thanks to everyone who has contributed to this! This is now the working code: foreach ($exploded as $key => $value) { //$query(count($exploded)); $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `uniform` WHERE `id` = '$value'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<tr> <td>" . $row['id'] . "</td> <td>" . $row['note'] . "</td> </tr>"; } } Added the while and did the iteration by nesting it in the foreach

    Read the article

  • pagerAnchorBuilder - trying to add classes

    - by Bert Murphy
    I'm using Cycle2 to build a carousel gallery and I've run into a little problem regarding styling the pager buttons. What I've gathered is that Cycle2 creates its own pager span tags for each slide which is a bummer becaus I've already styled my the sub-nav markup. This should be a minor issue as long as I can assign individual classes to the spans and change my css accordingly. However, I can't get this to work. TLDR: I was hoping that I could use pagerAnchorBuilder to create individual classes for each span. I can't. Help. The original markup (pre Cycle2) looks like the following: <div id ="sub-nav" class="sub-nav"> <ul> <li><a id="available" class="available" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reliable" class="reliable" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="use" class="use" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reports" class="reports" href="#"></a></li> <li class="last"><a id="software" class="software" href="#"></a></li> </ul> </div> With Cycle2 it looks like this (note the addition of the span tags) <div id ="sub-nav" class="sub-nav"> <ul> <li><a id="available" class="available" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reliable" class="reliable" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="use" class="use" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reports" class="reports" href="#"></a></li> <li class="last"><a id="software" class="software" href="#"></a></li> </ul> <span class="cycle-pager-active">•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span></nav> </div> Cycle2 $('#sliding-gallery ul').cycle({ fx: 'carousel', carouselVisible: 1, speed: 'fast', timeout: 10000, slides: '>li', next: '.next', prev: '.prev', pager: '.sub-nav', pagerAnchorBuilder: function(idx, slide) { return '.sub-nav span:eq(' + idx + ')'; } });

    Read the article

  • SQL Query takes about 10 - 20 minutes

    - by masfenix
    I have a select from (nothing to complex) Select * from VIEW This view has about 6000 records and about 40 columns. It comes from a Lotus Notes SQL database. So my ODBC drive is the LotusNotesSQL driver. The query takes about 30 seconds to execute. The company I worked for used EXCEL to run the query and write everything to the worksheet. Since I am assuming it writes everything cell by cell, it used to take up to 30 - 40 minutes to complete. I then used MS access. I made a replica local table on Access to store the data. My first try was INSERT INTO COLUMNS OF LOCAL TABLE FROM (SELECT * FROM VIEW) note that this is pseudocode. This ran successfully, but again took up to 20 - 30 minutes. Then I used VBA to loop through the data and insert it in manually (using an INSERT statement) for each seperate record. This took about 10 - 15 minutes. This has been my best case yet. What i need to do after: After i have the data, I need to filter through it by department. The thing is if I put a where clause in the SQL query (the time jumps from 30 seconds to execute the query, to about 10 minutes + the time to write to local table/excel). I dont know why. MAYBE because the columns are all text columns? If we change some of the columns to integer, would that make it faster in terms of the where clause? I am looking for suggestions on how to approach this. My boss has said we could employ some Java based solution. Will this help? I am not a java person but a c#, and maybe I'll convince them to use c# as well, but i am mainly looking for suggestions on how to cut down the time. I've already cut it down from 40 minutes to 10 minutes, but the want it under 2 minutes. Just to recap: Query takes about 30 seconds to exceute Query takes about 15 - 40 minutes to be used locally in excel/acess Need it under 2 minutes Could use java based solution You may suggest other solutions instead of java.

    Read the article

  • Java template classes using generator or similar?

    - by Hugh Perkins
    Is there some library or generator that I can use to generate multiple templated java classes from a single template? Obviously Java does have a generics implementation itself, but since it uses type-erasure, there are lots of situations where it is less than adequate. For example, if I want to make a self-growing array like this: class EasyArray { T[] backingarray; } (where T is a primitive type), then this isn't possible. This is true for anything which needs an array, for example high-performance templated matrix and vector classes. It should probably be possible to write a code generator which takes a templated class and generates multiple instantiations, for different types, eg for 'double' and 'float' and 'int' and 'String'. Is there something that already exists that does this? Edit: note that using an array of Object is not what I'm looking for, since it's no longer an array of primitives. An array of primitives is very fast, and uses only as much space a sizeof(primitive) * length-of-array. An array of object is an array of pointers/references, that points to Double objects, or similar, which could be scattered all over the place in memory, require garbage collection, allocation, and imply a double-indirection for access. Edit2: good god, voted down for asking for something that probably doesn't currently exist, but is technically possible and feasible? Does that mean that people looking for ways to improve things have already left the java community? Edit3: Here is code to show the difference in performance between primitive and boxed arrays: int N = 10*1000*1000; double[]primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } Object[] objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } tic(); primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); tic(); objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); Results: double[] array: 148 ms Double[] array: 4614 ms Not even close!

    Read the article

  • HTML Language question

    - by Mike
    Note my code below. I am trying to figure out why my data is not changing to Spanish. I understand it to be one line of code and that is all within the HTML attribute lang=”es”. Any help would be greatly appreciated. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xlmns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" lang=”es” xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>JavaJam Coffee House</title> <link href="javajam.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> <body bgcolor="brown"> <h1>JavaJam Coffee House</h1> <ul> <li>Specialty Coffee and Tea</li> <li>Bagels, Muffins, and Organic Snacks</li> <li>Music and Poetry Readings</li> <li>Usability Studies</li> <li>Open Mic Night</li> </ul> <br></br> <p>12312 Main Street<br> Mountain Home, CA 93923<br> 1-888-555-5555</br> </p> <p> <em> <small>Copyright &copy; 2008 JavaJam Coffee House</em></p> E-Mail <a href="mailto;[email protected]"> Michael J. Crawley</a> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Property trigger in XAML for IsMouseOver fails to set Border.Background

    - by Mal Ross
    I'm currently trying to create a ControlTemplate for the Button class in WPF, replacing the usual visual tree with something that makes the button look similar to the little (X) close icon on Google Chrome's tabs. I decided to use a Path object in XAML to achieve the effect. Using a property trigger, the control responds to a change in the IsMouseOver property by setting the icon's red background. Here's the XAML from a test app: <Window x:Class="Widgets.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.Resources> <Style x:Key="borderStyle" TargetType="Border"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <SolidColorBrush Color="#CC0000"/> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <ControlTemplate x:Key="closeButtonTemplate" TargetType="Button"> <Border Width="12" Height="12" CornerRadius="6" BorderBrush="#AAAAAA" Background="Transparent" Style="{StaticResource borderStyle}" ToolTip="Close"> <Viewbox Margin="2.75"> <Path Data="M 0,0 L 10,10 M 0,10 L 10,0" Stroke="{Binding BorderBrush, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType=Border, AncestorLevel=1}}" StrokeThickness="1.8"/> </Viewbox> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid Background="White"> <Button Template="{StaticResource closeButtonTemplate}"/> </Grid> </Window> Note that the circular background is always there - it's just transparent when the mouse isn't over it. The problem with this is that the trigger just isn't working. Nothing changes in the button's appearance. However, if I remove the Background="Transparent" value from the Border object in the ControlTemplate, the trigger does work (albeit only when over the 'X'). I really can't explain this. Setters for any other properties placed in the borderStyle resource work fine, but the Background setter fails as soon as the default background is specified in the ControlTemplate. Any ideas why it's happening and how I can fix it? I know I could easily replace this code with, for example, a .PNG-based image, but I want to understand why the current implementation isn't working. Thanks! :)

    Read the article

  • Complex multiple join query across 3 tables

    - by Keir Simmons
    I have 3 tables: shops, PRIMARY KEY cid,zbid shop_items, PRIMARY KEY id shop_inventory, PRIMARY KEY id shops a is related to shop_items b by the following: a.cid=b.cid AND a.zbid=b.szbid shops is not directly related to shop_inventory shop_items b is related to shop_inventory c by the following: b.cid=c.cid AND b.id=c.iid Now, I would like to run a query which returns a.* (all columns from shops). That would be: SELECT a.* FROM shops a WHERE a.cid=1 AND a.zbid!=0 Note that the WHERE clause is necessary. Next, I want to return the number of items in each shop: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid As you can see, I have added a GROUP BY clause for this to work. Next, I want to return the average price of each item in the shop. This isn't too hard: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid My next criteria is where it gets complicated. I also want to return the unique buyers for each shop. This can be done by querying shop_inventory c, getting the COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid). Now remember how these tables are related; this should only be done for the rows in c which relate to an item in b which is owned by the respective shop, a. I tried doing the following: SELECT a.*, COUNT(b.id) items, AVG(COALESCE(b.price,0)) average_price, COUNT(DISTINCT c.zbid) FROM shops a LEFT JOIN shop_items b ON b.cid=a.cid AND b.szbid=a.zbid LEFT JOIN shop_inventory c ON c.cid=b.cid AND c.iid=b.id WHERE a.cid=1 GROUP BY b.szbid,b.cid However, this did not work as it messed up the items value. What is the proper way to achieve this result? I also want to be able to return the total number of purchases made in each shop. This would be done by looking at shop_inventory c and adding up the c.quantity value for each shop. How would I add that in as well?

    Read the article

  • Sorting a list of numbers with modified cost

    - by David
    First, this was one of the four problems we had to solve in a project last year and I couldn’t find a suitable algorithm so we handle in a brute force solution. Problem: The numbers are in a list that is not sorted and supports only one type of operation. The operation is defined as follows: Given a position i and a position j the operation moves the number at position i to position j without altering the relative order of the other numbers. If i j, the positions of the numbers between positions j and i - 1 increment by 1, otherwise if i < j the positions of the numbers between positions i+1 and j decreases by 1. This operation requires i steps to find a number to move and j steps to locate the position to which you want to move it. Then the number of steps required to move a number of position i to position j is i+j. We need to design an algorithm that given a list of numbers, determine the optimal (in terms of cost) sequence of moves to rearrange the sequence. Attempts: Part of our investigation was around NP-Completeness, we make it a decision problem and try to find a suitable transformation to any of the problems listed in Garey and Johnson’s book: Computers and Intractability with no results. There is also no direct reference (from our point of view) to this kind of variation in Donald E. Knuth’s book: The art of Computer Programing Vol. 3 Sorting and Searching. We also analyzed algorithms to sort linked lists but none of them gives a good idea to find de optimal sequence of movements. Note that the idea is not to find an algorithm that orders the sequence, but one to tell me the optimal sequence of movements in terms of cost that organizes the sequence, you can make a copy and sort it to analyze the final position of the elements if you want, in fact we may assume that the list contains the numbers from 1 to n, so we know where we want to put each number, we are just concerned with minimizing the total cost of the steps. We tested several greedy approaches but all of them failed, divide and conquer sorting algorithms can’t be used because they swap with no cost portions of the list and our dynamic programing approaches had to consider many cases. The brute force recursive algorithm takes all the possible combinations of movements from i to j and then again all the possible moments of the rest of the element’s, at the end it returns the sequence with less total cost that sorted the list, as you can imagine the cost of this algorithm is brutal and makes it impracticable for more than 8 elements. Our observations: n movements is not necessarily cheaper than n+1 movements (unlike swaps in arrays that are O(1)). There are basically two ways of moving one element from position i to j: one is to move it directly and the other is to move other elements around i in a way that it reaches the position j. At most you make n-1 movements (the untouched element reaches its position alone). If it is the optimal sequence of movements then you didn’t move the same element twice.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523  | Next Page >