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  • Why does this Object wonk out & get deleted ?

    - by brainydexter
    Stepping through the debugger, the BBox object is okay at the entry of the function, but as soon as it enters the function, the vfptr object points to 0xccccc. I don't get it. What is causing this ? Why is there a virtual table reference in there when the object is not derived from other class. (Though, it resides in GameObject from which my Player class inherits and I retrieve the BBox from within player. But, why does the BBox have the reference ? Shouldn't it be player who should be maintained in that reference ?) For 1; some code for reference: A. I retrieve the bounding box from player. This returns a bounding box as expected. I then send its address to GetGridCells. const BoundingBox& l_Bbox = l_pPlayer-GetBoundingBox(); boost::unordered_set < Cell*, CellPHash & l_GridCells = GetGridCells ( &l_Bbox ); B. This is where a_pBoundingBox goes crazy and gets that garbage value. boost::unordered_set< Cell*, CellPHash CollisionMgr::GetGridCells(const BoundingBox *a_pBoundingBox) { I think the following code is also pertinent, so I'm sticking this in here anyways: const BoundingBox& Player::GetBoundingBox(void) { return BoundingBox( &GetBoundingSphere() ); } const BoundingSphere& Player::GetBoundingSphere(void) { BoundingSphere& l_BSphere = m_pGeomMesh-m_BoundingSphere; l_BSphere.m_Center = GetPosition(); return l_BSphere; } // BoundingBox Constructor BoundingBox(const BoundingSphere* a_pBoundingSphere); Can anyone please give me some idea as to why this is happening? Also, if you want me to post more code, please do let me know. Thanks!

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  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

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  • What's the false operator in C# good for?

    - by Jakub Šturc
    There are two weird operators in C#: the true operator the false operator If I understand this right these operators can be used in types which I want to use instead of a boolean expression and where I don't want to provide an implicit conversion to bool. Let's say I have a following class: public class MyType { public readonly int Value; public MyType(int value) { Value = value; } public static bool operator true (MyType mt) { return mt.Value > 0; } public static bool operator false (MyType mt) { return mt.Value < 0; } } So I can write the following code: MyType mTrue = new MyType(100); MyType mFalse = new MyType(-100); MyType mDontKnow = new MyType(0); if (mTrue) { // Do something. } while (mFalse) { // Do something else. } do { // Another code comes here. } while (mDontKnow) However for all the examples above only the true operator is executed. So what's the false operator in C# good for? Note: More examples can be found here, here and here.

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  • Essence of BiMap in Google collections

    - by littleEinstein
    I am still quite puzzled at the BiMap in Google collections/Guava. It was claimed that The two bimaps are backed by the same data; any changes to one will appear in the other. I browsed through the source code, and I found the use of delegate in ForwardingMap. But in any actually subclass of StandardBiMap, I do see the data are put into both the forward and reverse map. So what is the essence, and why it claims to have saved space by keeping only one copy of the data? Is it just the actual objects are one set, but two distinct sets of references to these objects are still needed, one set maintained in forward map, and the other in reverse map? private V putInBothMaps(K key, V value, boolean force) { boolean containedKey = containsKey(key); if (containedKey && Objects.equal(value, get(key))) { return value; } if (force) { inverse().remove(value); } else if (containsValue(value)) { throw new IllegalArgumentException( "value already present: " + value); } V oldValue = super.put(key, value); updateInverseMap(key, containedKey, oldValue, value); return oldValue; }

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  • How to solve timing problems in automated UI tests with C# and Visual Studio?

    - by Lernkurve
    Question What is the standard approach to solve timing problems in automated UI tests? Concrete example I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Team Foundation Server 2010 to create automated UI tests and want to check whether my application has really stopped running: [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App shouldn't be running, but is."); StartMyApp(); Assert.IsTrue(IsMyAppRunning(), "App should have been started and should be running now."); StopMyApp(); //Pause(500); Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App was stopped and shouldn't be running anymore."); } private bool IsMyAppRunning() { foreach (Process runningProcesse in Process.GetProcesses()) { if (runningProcesse.ProcessName.Equals("Myapp")) { return true; } } return false; } private void Pause(int pauseTimeInMilliseconds) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pauseTimeInMilliseconds); } StartMyApp() and StopMyApp() have been recorded with MS Test Manager 2010 and reside in UIMap.uitest. The last assert fails because the assertion is executed while my application is still in the process of shutting down. If I put a delay after StopApp() the test case passes. The above is just an example to explain my problem. What is the standard approach to solve these kinds of timing issues? One idea would be to wait with the assertion until I get some event notification that my app has been stopped.

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  • Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

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  • PHPUnit - multiple stubs of same class

    - by keithjgrant
    I'm building unit tests for class Foo, and I'm fairly new to unit testing. A key component of my class is an instance of BarCollection which contains a number of Bar objects. One method in Foo iterates through the collection and calls a couple methods on each Bar object in the collection. I want to use stub objects to generate a series of responses for my test class. How do I make the Bar stub class return different values as I iterate? I'm trying to do something along these lines: $stubs = array(); foreach ($array as $value) { $barStub->expects($this->any()) ->method('GetValue')) ->will($this->returnValue($value)); $stubs[] = $barStub; } // populate stubs into `Foo` // assert results from `Foo->someMethod()` So Foo->someMethod() will produce data based on the results it receives from the Bar objects. But this gives me the following error whenever the array is longer than one: There was 1 failure: 1) testMyTest(FooTest) with data set #2 (array(0.5, 0.5)) Expectation failed for method name is equal to <string:GetValue> when invoked zero or more times. Mocked method does not exist. /usr/share/php/PHPUnit/Framework/MockObject/Mock.php(193) : eval()'d code:25 One thought I had was to use ->will($this->returnCallback()) to invoke a callback method, but I don't know how to indicate to the callback which Bar object is making the call (and consequently what response to give). Another idea is to use the onConsecutiveCalls() method, or something like it, to tell my stub to return 1 the first time, 2 the second time, etc, but I'm not sure exactly how to do this. I'm also concerned that if my class ever does anything other than ordered iteration on the collection, I won't have a way to test it.

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  • AssertionFailure: "null identifier" - FluentNH + SQLServerCE

    - by Stefan
    The code fails at session.Save(employee); with AssertionFailure "null identifier". What am I doing wrong? using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; namespace FNHTest { public class Employee { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Surname { get; set; } } public class EmployeeMap : ClassMap { public EmployeeMap() { Id(e = e.Id); Map(e = e.Name); Map(e = e.Surname); } } public class DB { private static ISessionFactory mySessionFactory = null; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (mySessionFactory == null) { mySessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard .ConnectionString("Data Source=MyDB.sdf")) .Mappings(m = m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf()) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); } return mySessionFactory; } } private static void BuildSchema(Configuration configuration) { SchemaExport schemaExport = new SchemaExport(configuration); schemaExport.Execute(false, true, false); } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } public class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { var employee = new Employee { Name = "John", Surname = "Smith" }; using (ISession session = DB.OpenSession()) { session.Save(employee); } } } }

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  • Help passing reference to class subroutine in Perl.

    - by stephenmm
    I am trying to pass a routine to another subroutine within a Perl module. But when I pass the sub reference the passed in ref no longer has the object data. Maybe its not possible to do it this way. The line I have a question about is the "unless" lines below: sub get_flag_end { my $self = shift; return ( -e "$self->{file}" ); } sub wait_for_end { my $self = shift; my $timeout = shift; my $poll_interval = shift; # Is it even possible to pass the oject subroutine and retain the objects data? #unless ( $self->timeout( $timeout, $poll_interval, $self->get_flag_end ) ) { # does not work unless ( $self->timeout( $timeout, $poll_interval, \&get_flag_end ) ) { # call happens but members are empty die "!!!ERROR!!! Timed out while waiting for wait_for_end: timeout=$timeout, poll_interval=$poll_interval \n"; } } sub timeout { my $self = shift; my $timeout = shift; my $poll_interval = shift; my $test_condition = shift; until ($test_condition->() || $timeout <= 0) { $timeout -= $poll_interval; sleep $poll_interval; } return $timeout > 0; # condition was met before timeout } I know that I could change the "get_flag_end" routine to take the value as an argument to the subroutine but what if there was a bunch of stuff done in "get_flag_end" and I needed more members from the object. I simplified the code a bit to make it a little easier to follow.

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  • What's the order of execution when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question 1) In a binding situation, what happens? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

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  • Problem in loading Iframe in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to set the source of Iframe with the help of Ext (JavaScript). My aspx code: <div id="container"> < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" > </iframe> </div> My Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Iframe gets loaded with page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when I refresh the page i.e. in post back event the src attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? If you know the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in advance. Maddy.

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  • Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

    - by myle
    When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • [CFArray release]: message sent to deallocated instance

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm using the following method in my code: - (NSMutableArray *) newOrderedArray:(NSMutableArray *)array ByKey:(NSString *)key ascending:(BOOL)ascending { NSSortDescriptor *idDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:key ascending:ascending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:idDescriptor]; NSArray *orderArray = [array sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [idDescriptor release]; NSMutableArray *result = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:orderArray]; return result; } Is this a well-coded convenience method? As I think, it returns an autoreleased NSMutableArray. This method is called by another one: - (id) otherMethod { NSMutableArray *otherResult = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[otherArray count]] autorelease]; // I add some stuff to otherResult and then... NSMutableArray *result = [dbUtils newOrderedArray:otherResult ByKey:@"objectId" ascending:NO]; return result; } This method (otherMethod) is called in some view controller where I want to store returned array and release it when deallocating the view controller. However, when [result retain] is called in this view controller (because I need it to be available and I can't allow it to be deallocated) I receive the following error: [CFArray release]: message sent to deallocated instance I've tried to log [result retainCount] just before calling retain and it print "1". I don't understand why an error is thrown when calling retain. Thank you, A

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  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

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  • How to shuffle pairs

    - by Jessy
    How to shuffle the elements in the pairs? The program below, generate all possible pairs and later shuffle the pairs. e.g. possible pairs before shuffle is ab,ac,ae,af..etc shuffled to ac,ae,af,ab...etc How to make it not only shuffled in pairs but within the elements in the pair itself? e.g. instead of ab, ac, how can I make ba, ac ? String[] pictureFile = {"a.jpg","b.jpg","c.jpg","d.jpg","e.jpg","f.jpg","g.jpg"}; List <String> pic1= Arrays.asList(pictureFile); ... ListGenerator pic2= new ListGenerator(pic1); ArrayList<ArrayList<Integer>> pic2= new ArrayList<ArrayList<Integer>>(); public class ListGenerator { public ListGenerator(List<String> pic1) { int size = pic1.size(); // create a list of all possible combinations for(int i = 0 ; i < size ; i++) { for(int j = (i+1) ; j < size ; j++) { ArrayList<Integer> temp = new ArrayList<Integer>(); temp.add(i); temp.add(j); pic2.add(temp); } } Collections.shuffle(pic2); } //This method return the shuffled list public ArrayList<ArrayList<Integer>> getList() { return pic2; } }

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  • t:commandSortHeader not being styled

    - by JBristow
    I've got the following JSF: <t:column styleClass="cb-status-column"> <f:facet name="header"> <t:commandSortHeader columnName="externalStatus" styleClass="cb-status-column"> Status </t:commandSortHeader> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{tx.externalStatus}" title="#{tx.externalStatus}"/> </t:column> Unfortunately, it renders like this: <th> <a href="#" onclick="return oamSubmitForm('transactionsTableForm','cb-activity-table:j_id131');" id="cb-activity-table:j_id131"> Status </a> </th> How do I get it to look like this: <th class="cb-status-column"> <a href="#" onclick="return oamSubmitForm('transactionsTableForm','cb-activity-table:j_id131');" id="cb-activity-table:j_id131"> Status </a> </th>

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  • How to move/drag multiple images with CALayer???

    - by gbf.sara
    I have more than 10 images in screen and i want to move each image using CALayer concept. While am trying to move first image,its working. Even when i drag my second image also, its working. But after that when i get back to first image and when i try to move , am struck up. its not working. I dono where it went wrong. Here's ma code //Assigning Layer to UIImage// layer = [CALayer layer]; UIImage *image1 = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@_thumb.png",[tiv imageName]]]; layer.contents = (id)image1.CGImage; layer.position=CGPointMake(200,200); layer.frame = CGRectMake(110, 180, 100, 100); [self.view.layer addSublayer:layer]; [layer needsDisplay]; [self.view.layer needsDisplay]; [layer needsLayout]; //Here i try to move my image// - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; NSArray *allTouches = [touches allObjects]; int count = [allTouches count]; if (count == 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } if (count > 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:-1] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } } Also ive planned to use single CALayer for multiple images.. When i click an image, it should be placed in that CALayer and when i click another, the same CALayer should take the latter one. So tat whenever i drag an image it should move(no matter how many images r there) . Do u think this concept will work out or is there any other idea??? My concept may seems to be a basic one. Am new to this environment n so kindly help me..

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  • HttpUtility.HtmlDecode driving me crazy!!!!

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hi everybody! This situation is driving me crazy!!: the following snippet does not work (as i should) ... string preResult = doc.DocumentNode.SelectSingleNode("//textarea[@name='utrans']").InnerText return HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(preResult); ... The first line assigns a value (e.g.) "&lt;b&gt; Dummy value: &lt;/ b&gt; into preResult (that's expected). BUT the next line gives AGAIN the same value!!! But it should return "<b> Dummy value: </ b>". Debugging these lines i thought to copy and paste the value directly into HttpUtility.HtmlDecode() and guess what...it worked!!! I got the expected value! Of course this is useless, but it proves something weird is going on...what?!! Has anybody faced the same situation again? (dev.env. VS2008,.NET3.5SP1) Thanks in advance

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  • Diffie-Hellman -- Primitive root mod n -- cryptography question.

    - by somewhat confused
    In the below snippet, please explain starting with the first "for" loop what is happening and why. Why is 0 added, why is 1 added in the second loop. What is going on in the "if" statement under bigi. Finally explain the modPow method. Thank you in advance for meaningful replies. public static boolean isPrimitive(BigInteger m, BigInteger n) { BigInteger bigi, vectorint; Vector<BigInteger> v = new Vector<BigInteger>(m.intValue()); int i; for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) v.add(new BigInteger("0")); for (i=1;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) v.setElementAt(new BigInteger("1"), n.modPow(bigi,m).intValue()); } for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) { vectorint = v.elementAt(bigi.intValue()); if ( vectorint.intValue() == 0) i = m.intValue() + 1; } } if (i == m.intValue() + 2) return false; else return true; }

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  • How do I make PHP's Magic __set work like a natural variable?

    - by Navarr
    Basically, what I want to do is create a class called Variables that uses sessions to store everything in it, allowing me to quickly get and store data that needs to be used throughout the entire site without working directly with sessions. Right now, my code looks like this: <?php class Variables { public function __construct() { if(session_id() === "") { session_start(); } } public function __set($name,$value) { $_SESSION["Variables"][$name] = $value; } public function __get($name) { return $_SESSION["Variables"][$name]; } public function __isset($name) { return isset($_SESSION["Variables"][$name]); } } However, when I try to use it like a natural variable, for example... $tpl = new Variables; $tpl->test[2] = Moo; echo($tpl->test[2]); I end up getting "o" instead of "Moo" as it sets test to be "Moo," completely ignoring the array. I know I can work around it by doing $tpl->test = array("Test","Test","Moo"); echo($tpl->test[2]); but I would like to be able to use it as if it was a natural variable. Is this possible?

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  • PHP4: Send XML over HTTPS/POST via cURL?

    - by starmonkey
    I wrote a class/function to send xml over https via PHP4/cURL, just wondering if this is the correct approach, or if there's a better one. Note that PHP5 is not an option at present. /** * Send XML via http(s) post * * curl --header "Content-Type: text/xml" --data "<?xml version="1.0"?>...." http://www.foo.com/ * */ function sendXmlOverPost($url, $xml) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); // For xml, change the content-type. curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, Array("Content-Type: text/xml")); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // ask for results to be returned if(CurlHelper::checkHttpsURL($url)) { curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); } // Send to remote and return data to caller. $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $result; } cheers!

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