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• Building a VS2010 solution from TFS2008

  - by slugster

  I have a TFS 2008 Build Agent that has been used to build .Net 3.5 applications. I now have a .Net 4.0 app which i want to compile on the same build agent. I have ensured that MSBuild 4.0 is installed on there and all the required componentry is also installed, but i am getting the following MSB4062 error when building: [Any CPU/Release] C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v10.0\WebApplications\Microsoft.WebApplication.targets(244,5): error MSB4062: The "Microsoft.WebApplication.Build.Tasks.GetSilverlightItemsFromProperty" task could not be loaded from the assembly C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v10.0\WebApplications\Microsoft.WebApplication.Build.Tasks.dll. Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v10.0\WebApplications\Microsoft.WebApplication.Build.Tasks.dll' or one of its dependencies. This assembly is built by a runtime newer than the currently loaded runtime and cannot be loaded. Confirm that the declaration is correct, and that the assembly and all its dependencies are available. I am presuming that i get this because the TFSBuild.proj gets executed by MSBuild 3.5 which in turn means my solution is compiled with MSBuild 3.5. Am i correct with my diagnosis? Is there any way to ensure that TFS2008 uses MSBuild 4.0 for my solution? Can it be done on a single team project so that it doesn't affect any other team projects being built on the same build agent? Note that i have checked the question Build failing - VS2010 solution on TFS2008 and this is not a duplicate. Thanks :)

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• ASPNET MVC - Override Html.TextBoxFor(model.property) with a new helper with same signature?

  - by JK

  I want to override Html.TextBoxFor() with my own helper that has the exact same signature (but a different namespace of course) - is this possible, and if so, how? The reason for this is that I have 100+ views in an already existing app, and I want to change the behaviour of TextBoxFor so that it outputs a maxLength=n attribute if the property has a [StringLength(n)] annotation. The code for automatically outputting maxlength=n is in this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2386365/maxlength-attribute-of-a-text-box-from-the-dataannotations-stringlength-in-mvc2. But my question is not a duplicate - I am trying creating a more generic solution: where the DataAnnotaion flows into the html automatically without any need for additional code by the person writing the view. In the referenced question, you have to change every single Html.TexBoxFor to a Html.CustomTextBoxFor. I need to do it so that the existing TextBoxFor()'s do not need to be changed - hence creating a helper with the same signature: change the behaviour of the helper method, and all existing instances will just work without any changes (100+ views, at least 500 TextBoxFor()s - don't want to manually edit that). I tried this code: (And I need to repeat it for each overload of TextBoxFor, but once the root problem is solved, that will be trivial) namespace My.Helpers { public static class CustomTextBoxHelper { public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxFor<TModel, TProperty>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, object htmlAttributes, bool includeLengthIfAnnotated) { // implementation here } } } But I am getting a compiler error in the view on Html.TextBoxFor(): "The call is ambiguous between the following methods or properties" (of course). Is there any way to do this? Is there an alternative approach that would allow me to change the behaviour of Html.TextBoxFor, so that the views that already use it do not need to be changed?

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• I am trying to link my php form and my sql but having difficulties

  - by user1912599

  I am not sure what I am doing wrong as far as my php goes but I can't get my form to link with my sql. Here are the codes for my form and php code for my link to sql <?php echo displayform(); function displayForm() { $r = ''; //build it $r .='<form action="database.php" method="post">'; //table $r .=displayNiceFormBegin(); $r .=displayRow('FirstName:', '<input type="text" name="fname" id="fname"/>'); $r .=displayRow('LastName:', '<input type="text" name="lname" id="lname"/>'); $r .=displayRow('Address:', '<input type="text" name="address" id ="address"/>'); $r .=displayRow('Phone:', '<input type="text" name="phone" id ="phone"/>'); $r .=displayRow('Deparment:', '<input type="text" name="department"id="department"/>'); $r .=displayRow('', '<input type="submit" value="Submit Registration" />'); $r .=displayNiceFormEnd(); $r .='</form>'; return $r; } function displayRow($left, $right) { $r .= ''; //build it $r .='<tr>'; $r .= '<td>' . $left . '</td>'; $r .= '<td>' . $right . '</td>'; $r .='</tr>'; return $r; } function displayNiceFormBegin(){ $r .=''; //build it $r .= '<table style="background-color: beige; border: 1px dashed #999"><tr><td>'; $r .='<table style="margin:10px">'; return $r; } function displayNiceFormENd() { $r .=''; //build it $r .='</table>'; $r .='</td></tr><table>'; return $r; } ?> <?php $host="localhost"; // Host name $username="695788_ogems"; // Mysql username $password="opd69715"; // Mysql password $db_name="ottawaglandorfems_zzl_ogems"; // Database name $tbl_name=".*"; // Table name // Connect to server and select database. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // Get values from form $fname=$_POST['fname']; $lname=$_POST['lname']; $address=$_POST['address']; $phone=$_POST['phone']; $department=$_POST['deparment']; // Insert data into mysql $sql="INSERT INTO $tbl_name(FirstName,LastName,Address,Phone,Department)VALUES('$fname', '$lname', '$address','$phone','$deparment')"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // if successfully insert data into database, displays message "Successful". if($result){ echo "Successful"; echo "<BR>"; echo "<a href='ottawa-glandorfems.org/form3.php'>Back to main page</a>"; } else { echo "ERROR"; } ?> <?php // close connection mysql_close(); ?> I keep getting an error. Thank you!!!!

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• Why does WPF Style to show validation errors in ToolTip work for a TextBox but fails for a ComboBox?

  - by Mike B

  I am using a typical Style to display validation errors as a tooltip from IErrorDataInfo for a textbox as shown below and it works fine. <Style TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> But when i try to do the same thing for a ComboBox like this it fails <Style TargetType="{x:Type ComboBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The error I get in the output window is: System.Windows.Data Error: 17 : Cannot get 'Item[]' value (type 'ValidationError') from '(Validation.Errors)' (type 'ReadOnlyObservableCollection`1'). BindingExpression:Path=(0)[0].ErrorContent; DataItem='ComboBox' (Name='ownerComboBox'); target element is 'ComboBox' (Name='ownerComboBox'); target property is 'ToolTip' (type 'Object') ArgumentOutOfRangeException:'System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values.Parameter name: index' Oddly it also attempts to make invalid Database changes when I close the window if I change any ComboBox values (This is also when the binding error occurs)!!! Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'EmpFirstName', table 'OITaskManager.dbo.Employees'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. Simply by commenting the style out everyting works perfectly. How do I fix this? Just in case anyone needs it one of the comboBox' xaml follows: <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Employees}" SelectedValuePath="EmpID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=SelectedIssue.Employee2.EmpID, Mode=OneWay, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource LastNameFirstComboBoxTemplate}" Height="28" Name="ownerComboBox" Width="120" Margin="2" SelectionChanged="ownerComboBox_SelectionChanged" /> <DataTemplate x:Key="LastNameFirstComboBoxTemplate"> <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="{}{1}, {0}" > <Binding Path="EmpFirstName" /> <Binding Path="EmpLastName" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> </DataTemplate> SelectionChanged: (I do plan to implement commanding before long but, as this is my first WPF project I have not gone full MVVM yet. I am trying to take things in small-medium sized bites) // This is done this way to maintain the DataContext Integrity // and avoid an error due to an Object being "Not New" in Linq-to-SQL private void ownerComboBox_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { Employee currentEmpl = ownerComboBox.SelectedItem as Employee; if (currentEmpl != null && currentEmpl != statusBoardViewModel.SelectedIssue.Employee2) { statusBoardViewModel.SelectedIssue.Employee2 = currentEmpl; } }

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• Spring AOP AfterThrowing vs. Around Advice

  - by whiskerz

  Hey there, when trying to implement an Aspect, that is responsible for catching and logging a certain type of error, I initially thought this would be possible using the AfterThrowing advice. However it seems that his advice doesn't catch the exception, but just provides an additional entry point to do something with the exception. The only advice which would also catch the exception in question would then be an AroundAdvice - either that or I did something wrong. Can anyone assert that indeed if I want to catch the exception I have to use an AroundAdvice? The configuration I used follows: @Pointcut("execution(* test.simple.OtherService.print*(..))") public void printOperation() {} @AfterThrowing(pointcut="printOperation()", throwing="exception") public void logException(Throwable exception) { System.out.println(exception.getMessage()); } @Around("printOperation()") public void swallowException(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { try { pjp.proceed(); } catch (Throwable exception) { System.out.println(exception.getMessage()); } } Note that in this example I caught all Exceptions, because it just is an example. I know its bad practice to just swallow all exceptions, but for my current use case I want one special type of exception to be just logged while avoiding duplicate logging logic.

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• NHibernate SubclassMap gives DuplicateMappingException

  - by stiank81

  I'm using NHibernate to handle my database - with Fluent configuration. I'm not using Automappings. All mappings are written explicitly, and everything is working just fine. Now I wanted to add my first mapping to a subclass, using the SubclassMap, and I run into problems. With the simplest possible setup an Nhibernate DuplicateMappingException is thrown, saying that the subclass is mapped more than once: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping MyNamespace.SubPerson I get this with my simple classes written for testing: public class Person { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class SubPerson : Person { public string Foo { get; set; } } With the following mappings: public class PersonMapping : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.Id); Map(c => c.Name); } } public class SubPersonMapping : SubclassMap<SubPerson> { public SubPersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Map(m => m.Foo); } } Any idea why this is happening? If there were automappings involved I guess it might have been caused by the automappings adding a mapping too, but there should be no automapping. I create my database specifying a fluent mapping: private static ISession CreateSession() { var cfg = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().UsingFile("unit_test.db")). Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<SomeClassInTheAssemblyContainingAllMappings>()); var sessionSource = new SessionSource(cfg.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new TestModel()); var session = sessionSource.CreateSession(); _sessionSource.BuildSchema(session); return session; } Again; note that this only happens with SubclassMap. ClassMap's are working just fine!

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• Perl Scripts Seem to be Caching?

  - by Ben Liyanage

  I'm running a perl script via mod_perl with Apache. I am trying to parse parameters in a restful fashion (aka GET www.domain.com/rest.pl/Object/ID). If I specify the ID like this: GET www.domain.com/rest.pl/Object/1234 I will get object 1234 back as a result as expected. However, if I specify an incorrect hacked url like this GET www.domain.com/rest.pl/Object/123 I will also get back object 1234. I am pretty sure that the issue in this question is happening so I packaged up my method and invoked it from my core script out of the package. Even after that I am still seeing the threads returning seemingly cached data. One of the recommendations in the aforementioned article is to replace my with our. My impression from reading up on our vs my was that our is global and my is local. My assumption is the the local variable gets reinitialized each time. That said, like in my code example below I am resetting the variables each time with new values. Apache Perl Configuration is set up like this: PerlModule ModPerl::Registry <Directory /var/www/html/perl/> SetHandler perl-script PerlHandler ModPerl::Registry Options +ExecCGI </Directory> Here is the perl script getting invoked directly: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use warnings; use Rest; Rest::init(); Here is my package Rest. This file contains various functions for handling the rest requests. #!/usr/bin/perl -w package Rest; use strict; # Other useful packages declared here. our @EXPORT = qw( init ); our $q = CGI->new; sub GET($$) { my ($path, $code) = @_; return unless $q->request_method eq 'GET' or $q->request_method eq 'HEAD'; return unless $q->path_info =~ $path; $code->(); exit; } sub init() { eval { GET qr{^/ZonesByCustomer/(.+)$} => sub { Rest::Zone->ZonesByCustomer($1); } } } # packages must return 1 1; As a side note, I don't completely understand how this eval statement works, or what string is getting parsed by the qr command. This script was largely taken from this example for setting up a rest based web service with perl. I suspect it is getting pulled from that magical $_ variable, but I'm not sure if it is, or what it is getting populated with (clearly the query string or url, but it only seems to be part of it?). Here is my package Rest::Zone, which will contain the meat of the functional actions. I'm leaving out the specifics of how I'm manipulating the data because it is working and leaving this as an abstract stub. #!/usr/bin/perl -w package Rest::Zone; sub ZonesByCustomer($) { my ($className, $ObjectID) = @_; my $q = CGI->new; print $q->header(-status=>200, -type=>'text/xml',expires => 'now', -Cache_control => 'no-cache', -Pragma => 'no-cache'); my $objectXML = "<xml><object>" . $ObjectID . "</object></xml>"; print $objectXML; } # packages must return 1 1; What is going on here? Why do I keep getting stale or cached values?

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• Get an IDataReader from a typed List

  - by Jason Kealey

  I have a List<MyObject> with a million elements. (It is actually a SubSonic Collection but it is not loaded from the database). I'm currently using SqlBulkCopy as follows: private string FastInsertCollection(string tableName, DataTable tableData) { string sqlConn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[SubSonicConfig.DefaultDataProvider.ConnectionStringName].ConnectionString; using (SqlBulkCopy s = new SqlBulkCopy(sqlConn, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock)) { s.DestinationTableName = tableName; s.BatchSize = 5000; s.WriteToServer(tableData); s.BulkCopyTimeout = SprocTimeout; s.Close(); } return sqlConn; } I use SubSonic's MyObjectCollection.ToDataTable() to build the DataTable from my collection. However, this duplicates objects in memory and is inefficient. I'd like to use the SqlBulkCopy.WriteToServer method that uses an IDataReader instead of a DataTable so that I don't duplicate my collection in memory. What's the easiest way to get an IDataReader from my list? I suppose I could implement a custom data reader (like here http://blogs.microsoft.co.il/blogs/aviwortzel/archive/2008/05/06/implementing-sqlbulkcopy-in-linq-to-sql.aspx) , but there must be something simpler I can do without writing a bunch of generic code. Edit: It does not appear that one can easily generate an IDataReader from a collection of objects. Accepting current answer even though I was hoping for something built into the framework.

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• Google Maps v3: Enforcing min. zoom level when using fitBounds

  - by chris

  I'm drawing a series of markers on a map (using v3 of the maps api). In v2, I had the following code: bounds = new GLatLngBounds(); ... loop thru and put markers on map ... bounds.extend(point); ... end looping map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter()); var level = map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds); if ( level == 1 ) level = 5; map.setZoom(level > 6 ? 6 : level); And that work fine to ensure that there was always an appropriate level of detail displayed on the map. I'm trying to duplicate this functionality in v3, but the setZoom and fitBounds don't seem to be cooperating: ... loop thru and put markers on the map var ll = new google.maps.LatLng(p.lat,p.lng); bounds.extend(ll); ... end loop var zoom = map.getZoom(); map.setZoom(zoom > 6 ? 6 : zoom); map.fitBounds(bounds); I've tried different permutation (moving the fitBounds before the setZoom, for example) but nothing I do with setZoom seems to affect the map. Am I missing something? Is there a way to do this?

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• SSRS 2008: is it possible to make a report parameter NOT query-based for some linked report?

  - by Stefan Mohr

  I suspect the answer is no, but here goes.. I'm using the WebForms Report Viewer on a public-facing website to allow users to report on themselves or their users (if the user is an admin user). A report has a parameter called Users where an admin can pick a user from the list and generate a report from it. Mundane users can also view this report, but I programmatically create a linked report for each user and set the UserID value to their ID so they can only view themselves. This works well except that the UserID parameter is query-based, and not every user is visible in the list using default settings (the user list is based off date range parameters can provide, and only users we consider 'active' during the date range are visible). This is blowing up for mundane users that are not active for the default date range (which is the previous month). I suspect the flow of execution is something like this: Report loads with default parameters The linked report rules are now applied and the value of the UserID is overridden with the ID in the linked report UserID field is now hidden to prevent the user from changing it SSRS can't find the UserID default value in the query results (that I didn't even want it to run) so it displays an error The 'UserID' parameter is missing a value Through some testing I've found a perfect correlation between users not inside the default date range and users who can't view the report. Can anyone suggest a way to make the report usable for those users that aren't in the default list? The reports are created programmatically so I do have a fair bit of control over the situation. I would love to simply be able to mark a parameter in a linked report as no longer being query-based, but those properties are all read-only. I really, really don't want to have to create duplicate reports to accommodate these users but I'm at a bit of a loss right now. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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• Argument exception after trying to use TryGetObjectByKey

  - by Rickjaah

  Hi, EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone? I'm trying to retrieve an object from my database using entity (framework 4) When I use the following code it gives an ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added. if (databaseContext.TryGetObjectByKey(entityKey, out result)) { return (result != null && result is TEntityObject) ? result as TEntityObject : null; } else { return null; } When I check the objectContext, I see the entities, but only if I enumerate the specific list of entities manually using VS2010, it works. What am I missing? Do I have to do something else before i can get the item from the database? I searched google, but could not find any results, the same for the msdn library EDIT: Still working on this.... It's a weird problem. I retrieve a value, but get an error that says a duplicate item exists. STACKTRACE: [ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added.] System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) +52 System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) +9549131 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadRelationshipTypes() +661 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadTypesFromAssembly() +17 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAssemblyLoader.Load() +25 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.Load() +4 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, ObjectItemLoadingSessionData loadingData) +160 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, KnownAssembliesSet knownAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action1 logLoadMessage, Object& loaderCookie, Dictionary2& typesInLoading, List1& errors) +166 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.LoadAssemblyFromCache(ObjectItemCollection objectItemCollection, Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +316 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadAssemblyForType(Type type, Assembly callingAssembly) +306 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadFromEntityType(EntityType type, Assembly callingAssembly) +109 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.TryGetObjectByKey(EntityKey key, Object& value) +288 EDIT: Lazy loading is set to true. EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone?

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• HTML to RTF Converter for .NET

  - by nickyt

  I've already seen lots of posts on the site for RTF to HTML and some other posts talking about some HTML to RTF converters, but I'm really trying to get a full breakdown of what is considered the most widely used commercial product, open source product or if people recommend going home grown. Apologies if you consider this a duplicate question, but I'm trying to create a product matrix to see what is the most viable for our application. I also think this would be helpful for others. The converter would be used in an ASP.NET 2.0 application (we're upgrading to 3.5 shortly but still sticking with WebForms) using SQLServer 2005 (soon 2008) as the DB. From reading a few posts, SautinSoft appears to be popular as a commercial component. Are there other commercial components that you'd recommend for converting HTML to RTF? Price does matter, but even if it's a little on the expensive side, please list it. For open source, I read that OpenOffice.org can be run as a service so that it can convert files. However, this appears to be only Java based. I imagine, I'd need some kind of interop to use this? What .NET open source components, if any, are out there for converting HTML to RTF? For home grown, is an XSLT the way to go with XHTML? If so, what component do you recommend for generating XHTML? Otherwise, what other home grown avenuses do you recommend. Also, please note that I currently don't care so much about RTF to HTML. If a commercial component offers this and the price is still the same, fine, otherwise please don't mention it.

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• How can I copy a SQL record which has related records in other tables to the same database?

  - by DerekVS

  Hi. I created a function in C# which allows me to copy a record and its related children to a new record and new related children in the same database. (This is for an application that allows the use of previous work as a template for new work.) Anyway, it works great... Here's a description of how it accomplishes the copy: It populates a two-column memory-based look-up table with the current primary key of each record. Next, as it individually creates each new copy record, it updates the look-up table with the Identity PK of the new record [retrieved from SCOPE_IDENTITY()]. Now, when it copies over any related children, it can look up the new parent PK to set the FK on the new record. In testing, it only took a minute to copy a relational structure on a local instance of SQL Server 2005 Express Edition. Unfortunately it is proving to be horribly slow in production! My users are dealing with 60,000+ records per parent record over the LAN to our SQL Server! While my copy function still works, each of those records represents an individual SQL UPDATE command and it loads the SQL Server at about 17% CPU from its normal 2% idle. I just finished testing a 50,000 record copy and it took almost 20 minutes! Is there a way to duplicate this functionality in SQL queries or stored procecures to make the SQL server do all of the copy work instead of blasting it over the LAN from each client? (We're running Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition.) Thanks! -Derek

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• How do you pass user credentials from WebClient to a WCF REST service?

  - by Alex

  I am trying to expose a WCT REST service and only users with valid username and password would be able to access it. The username and password are stored in a SQL database. Here is the service contract: public interface IDataService { [OperationContract] [WebGet(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] byte[] GetData(double startTime, double endTime); } Here is the WCF configuration: <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="SecureBinding"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="Basic"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="DataServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="Custom" customUserNamePasswordValidatorType= "CustomValidator, WCFHost" /> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="DataServiceBehavior" name="DataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureBinding" contract="IDataService" /> </service> </services> I am accessing the service via the WebClient class within a Silverlight application. However, I have not been able to figure out how to pass the user credentials to the service. I tried various values for client.Credentials but none of them seems to trigger the code in my custom validator. I am getting the following error: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. Here is some sample code I have tried: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("name", "password", "domain"); client.OpenReadCompleted += new OpenReadCompletedEventHandler(GetData); client.OpenReadAsync(new Uri(uriString)); If I set the security mode to None, the whole thing works. I also tried other clientCredentialType values and none of them worked. I also self-hosted the WCF service to eliminate the issues related to IIS trying to authenticate a user before the service gets a chance. Any comment on what the underlying issues may be would be much appreciated. Thanks. Update: Thanks to Mehmet's excellent suggestions. Here is the tracing configuration I had: <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.ServiceModel" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing" propagateActivity="true"> <listeners> <add name="xml" /> </listeners> </source> <source name="System.IdentityModel" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing" propagateActivity="true"> <listeners> <add name="xml" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> <sharedListeners> <add name="xml" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="c:\Traces.svclog" /> </sharedListeners> </system.diagnostics> But I did not see any message coming from my Silverlight client. As for https vs http, I used https as follows: string baseAddress = "https://localhost:6600/"; _webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(typeof(DataServices), new Uri(baseAddress)); _webServiceHost.Open(); However, I did not configure any SSL certificate. Is this the problem?

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• how to rethrow same exception in sql server

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I want to rethrow same exception in sql server that has been occured in my try block. I am able to throw same message but i want to throw same error. BEGIN TRANSACTION BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblDomain (DomainName, SubDomainId, DomainCode, Description) VALUES(@DomainName, @SubDomainId, @DomainCode, @Description) COMMIT TRANSACTION END TRY BEGIN CATCH declare @severity int; declare @state int; select @severity=error_severity(), @state=error_state(); RAISERROR(@@Error,@ErrorSeverity,@state); ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END CATCH RAISERROR(@@Error, @ErrorSeverity, @state); This line will show error, but i want functionality something like that. This raises error with error number 50000, but i want erron number to be thrown that i am passing @@error, I want to capture this error no at frontend i.e. catch (SqlException ex) { if ex.number==2627 MessageBox.show("Duplicate value cannot be inserted"); } I want this functionality. which can't be achieved using raiseerror. I dont want to give custom error message at back end.

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• mongodb: insert if not exists

  - by LeMiz

  Hello, Every day, I receive a stock of documents (an update). What I want to do is inserting each of them if it does not exists. I also want to keep track of the first time I inserted them, and the last time I saw them in an update. I don't want to have duplicate documents. I don't want to remove a document which has previously been saved, but is not in my update. 95% (estimated) of the records are unmodified from day to day. I am using the python driver (pymongo), for that matter. What I currently do is (pseudo-code): for each document in update: existing_document = collection.find_one(document) if not existing_document: document['insertion_date'] = now else: document = existing_document document['last_update_date'] = now my_collection.save(document) My problem is that it is very slow (40 mins for less than 100 000 records, and I have millions of them in the update). I am pretty sure there is something builtin for doing this, but the document for update() is mmmhhh.... a bit terse.... ( http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Updating ) Can someone give an advice on doing it faster ?

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• How to correctly refactor this?

  - by kane77

  I have trouble finding way to correctly refactor this code so that there would be as little duplicate code as possible, I have a couple of methods like this (pseudocode): public List<Something> parseSomething(Node n){ List<Something> somethings = new ArrayList<Something>(); initialize(); sameCodeInBothClasses(); List<Node> nodes = getChildrenByName(n, "somename"); for(Node n:nodes){ method(); actionA(); somethings.add(new Something(actionB()); } return somethings; } methods sameCodeInBothClasses() are same in all classes but where it differs is what hapens in for loop actionA() and it also adds an element to the List of different type. Should I use Strategy pattern for the different parts inside loop? What about the return value (The type of list differs), should the method return just List<Object> that I would then cast to appropriate type? Should I pass the class I want to return as parameter?

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• NHibernate DuplicateMappingException when mapping abstract class and subclass

  - by stiank81

  I have an abstract class, and subclasses of this, and I want to map this to my database using NHibernate. I'm using Fluent, and read on the wiki how to do the mapping. But when I add the mapping of the subclass an NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException is thrown when it is mapping. Why? Here are my (simplified) classes: public abstract class FieldValue { public int Id { get; set; } public abstract object Value { get; set; } } public class StringFieldValue : FieldValue { public string ValueAsString { get; set; } public override object Value { get { return ValueAsString; } set { ValueAsString = (string)value; } } } And the mappings: public class FieldValueMapping : ClassMap<FieldValue> { public FieldValueMapping() { Id(m => m.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1"); // DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("type"); } } public class StringValueMapping : SubclassMap<StringFieldValue> { public StringValueMapping() { Map(m => m.ValueAsString).Length(100); } } And the exception: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping NamespacePath.StringFieldValue Any ideas?

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• building median for each string in IList<IDictionary<string, double>>

  - by Oliver

  Actually i have a little brain bender and and just can't find the right direction to get it to work: Given is an IList<IDictionary<string, double>> and it is filled as followed: Name|Value ----+----- "x" | 3.8 "y" | 4.2 "z" | 1.5 ----+----- "x" | 7.2 "y" | 2.9 "z" | 1.3 ----+----- ... | ... To fill this up with some random data i used the following methods: var list = CreateRandomPoints(new string[] { "x", "y", "z" }, 20); This will work as followed: private IList<IDictionary<string, double>> CreateRandomPoints(string[] variableNames, int count) { var list = new List<IDictionary<string, double>>(count); list.AddRange(CreateRandomPoints(variableNames).Take(count)); return list; } private IEnumerable<IDictionary<string, double>> CreateRandomPoints(string[] variableNames) { while (true) yield return CreateRandomLine(variableNames); } private IDictionary<string, double> CreateRandomLine(string[] variableNames) { var dict = new Dictionary<string, double>(variableNames.Length); foreach (var variable in variableNames) { dict.Add(variable, _Rand.NextDouble() * 10); } return dict; } Also i can say that it is already ensured that every Dictionary within the list contains the same keys (but from list to list the names and count of the keys can change). So that's what i got. Now to the things i need: I'd like to get the median (or any other math aggregate operation) of each Key within all the dictionaries, so that my function to call would look something like: IDictionary<string, double> GetMedianOfRows(this IList<IDictionary<string, double>> list) The best would be to give some kind of aggregate operation as a parameter to the function to make it more generic (don't know if the func has the correct parameters, but should imagine what i'd like to do): private IDictionary<string, double> Aggregate(this IList<IDictionary<string, double>> list, Func<IEnumerable<double>, double> aggregator) Also my actual biggest problem is to do the job with a single iteration over the list, cause if within the list are 20 variables with 1000 values i don't like to iterate 20 times over the list. Instead i would go one time over the list and compute all twenty variables at once (The biggest advantage of doing it that way would be to use this also as IEnumerable<T> on any part of the list in a later step). So here is the code i already got: public static IDictionary<string, double> GetMedianOfRows(this IList<IDictionary<string, double>> list) { //Check of parameters is left out! //Get first item for initialization of result dictionary var firstItem = list[0]; //Create result dictionary and fill in variable names var dict = new Dictionary<string, double>(firstItem.Count); //Iterate over the whole list foreach (IDictionary<string, double> row in list) { //Iterate over each key/value pair within the list foreach (var kvp in row) { //How to determine median of all values? } } return dict; } Just to be sure here is a little explanation about the Median.

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• Using named_scopes on the join model of a has_many :through

  - by uberllama

  Hi folks. I've been beating my head against the wall on something that on the surface should be very simple. Lets say I have the following simplified models: user.rb has_many :memberships has_many :groups, :through => :memberships membership.rb belongs_to :group belongs_to :user STATUS_CODES = {:admin => 1, :member => 2, :invited => 3} named_scope :active, :conditions => {:status => [[STATUS_CODES[:admin], STATUS_CODES[:member]]} group.rb has_many :memberships has_many :users, :through => :memberships Simple, right? So what I want to do is get a collection of all the groups a user is active in, using the existing named scope on the join model. Something along the lines of User.find(1).groups.active. Obviously this doesn't work. But as it stands, I need to do something like User.find(1).membrships.active.all(:include => :group) which returns a collection of memberships plus groups. I don't want that. I know I can add another has_many on the User model with conditions that duplicate the :active named_scope on the Membership model, but that's gross. has_many :active_groups, :through => :memberships, :source => :group, :conditions => ... So my question: is there a way of using intermediary named scopes when traversing directly between models? Many thanks.

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• Aspnet_merge error has no detail

  - by dang57

  I have been attempting to add a Deployment Project to my web app. When I build it, I get a message "An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004". There is no other detail, like ILMerge error, or Duplicate Name. I have "verbosity" set to "Diagnostic", and this is the output: Command: C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe "\...XXX...\My Documents\Visual Studio 2005\Projects\XXX_deploy\Debug" -o XXX_deploy -debug -copyattrs The "AspNetMerge" task is using "aspnet_merge.exe" from "C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe". Utility to merge precompiled ASP.NET assemblies. An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004 C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets(474,9): error MSB6006: "aspnet_merge.exe" exited with code 1. Done executing task "AspNetMerge" -- FAILED. Done building target "AspNetMerge" in project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Done building project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Build FAILED. I have tried running the command via the Command prompt, but it does not give any additional information. I have also removed EVERYTHING from the project, including references, style sheets, forms, tableadapters. I still have a web.config, but deleted all app-specific lines. I added a single new form named Default. I have even tried renaming that form to DefaultX, just in case there was another Default out there. I still get the error. What else can I look for? I'm running VS 2005 v8.05. Thanks Dan

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• RotatingFileHandler throws an exception when delay parameter is set

  - by Eli Courtwright

  When I run the following code under Python 2.6 import logging from logging.handlers import RotatingFileHandler rfh = RotatingFileHandler("testing.log", delay=True) logging.getLogger().addHandler(rfh) logging.warning("Boo!") then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'level'. So I add the line rfh.setLevel(logging.DEBUG) before the call to addHandler, and then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'filters'. So if I manually set filters to be an empty list, then it complains about not having the attribute lock, etc. When I remove the delay=True to leave it as the default value of False as documented here, the problem completely goes away. Am I missing something? How do I properly use the delay parameter of the RotatingFileHandler class? EDIT: Upon further analysis (presented in my own answer below), this looks like a bug, but I can't find a bug report on this in the Python bug tracker, even trying different search terms, so I guess I'll report it. However, if someone can locate the actual bug report, then I can avoid submitting a duplicate reporting and wasting the time of the Python developers. I'll hold off on reporting the bug for a few hours, and if someone posts an answer that has the current bug report, then I'll accept that answer for this question.

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• How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in matlab [closed]

  - by martin

  Possible Duplicate: How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in matlab This is all done in MatLab 2010 My objective is to show the results of: undersampling, nyquist rate/ oversampling First i need to downsample the .wav file to get an incomplete/ or impartial data stream that i can then reconstuct. Heres the flow chart of what im going to be doing So the flow is analog signal - sampling analog filter - ADC - resample down - resample up - DAC - reconstruction analog filter what needs to be achieved: F= Frequency F(Hz=1/s) E.x. 100Hz = 1000 (Cyc/sec) F(s)= 1/(2f) Example problem: 1000 hz = Highest frequency 1/2(1000hz) = 1/2000 = 5x10(-3) sec/cyc or a sampling rate of 5ms This is my first signal processing project using matlab. what i have so far. % Fs = frequency sampled (44100hz or the sampling frequency of a cd) [test,fs]=wavread('test.wav'); % loads the .wav file left=test(:,1); % Plot of the .wav signal time vs. strength time=(1/44100)*length(left); t=linspace(0,time,length(left)); plot(t,left) xlabel('time (sec)'); ylabel('relative signal strength') **%this is were i would need to sample it at the different frequecys (both above and below and at) nyquist frequency.*I think.*** soundsc(left,fs) % shows the resaultant audio file , which is the same as original ( only at or above nyquist frequency however) Can anyone tell me how to make it better, and how to do the various sampling at different frequencies?

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• Select the latest record for each category linked available on an object

  - by Simpleton

  I have a tblMachineReports with the columns: Status(varchar),LogDate(datetime),Category(varchar), and MachineID(int). I want to retrieve the latest status update from each category for every machine, so in effect getting a snapshot of the latest statuses of all the machines unique to their MachineID. The table data would look like Category - Status - MachineID - LogDate cata - status1 - 001 - date1 cata - status2 - 002 - date2 catb - status3 - 001 - date2 catc - status2 - 002 - date4 cata - status3 - 001 - date5 catc - status1 - 001 - date6 catb - status2 - 001 - date7 cata - status2 - 002 - date8 catb - status2 - 002 - date9 catc - status2 - 001 - date10 Restated, I have multiple machines reporting on multiple statuses in this tblMachineReports. All the rows are created through inserts, so their will obviously be duplicate entries for machines as new statuses come in. None of the columns can be predicted, so I can't do any ='some hard coded string' comparisons in any part of the select statement. For the sample table I provided, the desired results would look like: Category - Status - MachineID - LogDate catc - status2 - 002 - date4 cata - status3 - 001 - date5 catb - status2 - 001 - date7 cata - status2 - 002 - date8 catb - status2 - 002 - date9 catc - status2 - 001 - date10 What would the select statement look like to achieve this, getting the latest status for each category on each machine, using MS SQL Server 2008? I have tried different combinations of subqueries combined with aggregate MAX(LogDates)'s, along with joins, group bys, distincts, and what-not, but have yet to find a working solution.

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• validate that URI is valid http URI

  - by Alfred

  Hi all, My problem: First of hopefully this is not a duplicate, but I could not find the right answer(right away). I would like to validate that an URI(http) is valid in Java. I came up with the following tests but I can't get them to pass. First I used getPort(), but then http://www.google.nl will return -1 on getPort(). This are the test I want to have passed Test: @Test public void testURI_Isvalid() throws Exception { assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("ttp://localhost:8080")); assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("ftp://localhost:8080")); assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://localhost:8a80")); assertTrue(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://localhost:8080")); final String justWrong = "/schedule/get?uri=http://localhost:8080&time=1000000"; assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI(justWrong)); assertTrue(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://www.google.nl")); } This is what I came up with after I removed the getPort() part but this does not pass all my unit tests. Production code: public static boolean validateHTTP_URI(String uri) { final URI u; try { u = URI.create(uri); } catch (Exception e1) { return false; } return "http".equals(u.getScheme()); } This is the first test that is failing because I am no longer validating the getPort() part. Hopefully somebody can help me out. I think I am not using the right class to validate url's?? P.S: I don't want to connect to the server to validate the URI is correct. At least not yet in this step. I only want to validate scheme.

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