Search Results

Search found 14797 results on 592 pages for 'gui testing'.

Page 517/592 | < Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >

  • Chrome targeted CSS

    - by Chris
    I have some CSS code that hides the cursor on a web page (it is a client facing static screen with no interaction). The code I use to do this is below: *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } Blank.cur is a totally blank cursor file. This code works perfectly well in all browsers when I host the web files on my local server but when I upload to a Windows CE webserver (our production unit) the cursor represents itself as a black box. Odd. After some testing it seems that chrome only has a problem with totally blank cursor files when served from WinCE web server, so I created a blank cursor with one pixel as white, specifically for chrome. How do I then target this CSS rule to chrome specifically? i.e. *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } <!--[if CHROME]> *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blankChrome.cur'), pointer; } <![endif]-->

    Read the article

  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • iPhone - Problem with in-app purchases

    - by Satyam svv
    I've created iPhone app with in-app purchase. Now, I'm in testing phase. I created provisioning profile com.satyam.testapp In iTunes connected I created the application and uploaded the images, screen shots, desscription etc. I also created two id's for in-app purchase. One is com.satyam.testapp.book1 and the other one is com.satyam.testapp.book5 I created test account also for verifying my in-app purchases. Using com.stayam.testapp i created developer test profile and using the same in my developed application. I logged out the itunes app store account in my iphone. Now i started running my application on my iphone. Its saying that no items are there to purchase. But its not even asking me for credentials where i've to enter test account username and password..... how to debug it? Here's my delegate: - (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response { NSArray *myProduct = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:response.products]; for(int i=0;i<[myProduct count];i++) { SKProduct *product = [myProduct objectAtIndex:i]; NSLog(@"Name: %@ - Price: %f",[product localizedTitle],[[product price] doubleValue]); NSLog(@"Product identifier: %@", [product productIdentifier]); } for(NSString *invalidProduct in response.invalidProductIdentifiers) NSLog(@"Problem in iTunes connect configuration for product: %@", invalidProduct); [request autorelease]; [myProduct release]; }

    Read the article

  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • FragmentActivity cannot be resolve to a type

    - by Pratik
    I am starting learning for android tablet programming and I am able to updated my Eclipse as well as all new sdk for android. I have start testing application from this blog while at extending the FragmentActivity getting this error I have google it but not getting any solution. My project was created with 3.0 version having 11 level, all other packages are successfully used in the code but only this FragmentActivity was not able to resolve. Am I missing any library or any thing? My code public class Testing_newActivity extends FragmentActivity { // here the FragmentActivity getting error package not found for import /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); if (getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) { // If the screen is now in landscape mode, we can show the // dialog in-line so we don't need this activity. finish(); return; } if (savedInstanceState == null) { // During initial setup, plug in the details fragment. DetailsFragment details = new DetailsFragment(); details.setArguments(getIntent().getExtras()); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add( android.R.id.content, details).commit(); } } } android manifest file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.searce.testingnew" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="11" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name=".Testing_newActivity" > <intent-filter > <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • How do I get Spotlight attributes to display in the get info window?

    - by Alexander Rauchfuss
    I have created a spotlight importer for comic files. The attributes are successfully imported and searchable. The one thing that remains is getting the attributes to display in a file's get info window. It seems that this should be a simple matter of editing the schema.xml file so the attributes are nested inside displayattrs tags. Unfortunately this does not seem to be working. I simplified the plugin for testing. The following are all of the important files. schema.xml <types> <type name="cx.c3.cbz-archive"> <allattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </allattrs> <displayattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </displayattrs> </type> <type name="cx.c3.cbr-archive"> <allattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </allattrs> <displayattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </displayattrs> </type> GetMetadataForFile.m Boolean GetMetadataForFile(void* thisInterface, CFMutableDictionaryRef attributes, CFStringRef contentTypeUTI, CFStringRef pathToFile) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [NSAutoreleasePool new]; NSString * file = (NSString *)pathToFile; NSArray * authors = [[UKXattrMetadataStore stringForKey: @"com_opencomics_authors" atPath: file traverseLink: NO] componentsSeparatedByString: @","]; [(NSMutableDictionary *)attributes setObject: authors forKey: (id)kMDItemAuthors]; NSString * title = [UKXattrMetadataStore stringForKey: @"com_opencomics_title" atPath: file traverseLink: NO]; [(NSMutableDictionary *)attributes setObject: title forKey: (id)kMDItemTitle]; [pool release]; return true; }

    Read the article

  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

    Read the article

  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • Debug formatting code

    - by Arcadian
    I'm trying to debug my code here: private void CheckFormatting() { StringReader objReaderf = new StringReader(txtInput.Text); List<String> formatTextList = new List<String>(); do { formatTextList.Add(objReaderf.ReadLine()); } while (objReaderf.Peek() != -1); objReaderf.Close(); for (int i = 0; i < formatTextList.Count; i++) { if (!Regex.IsMatch(formatTextList[i], "G[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2} JG[0-9]{2")) { MessageBox.Show("Line " + formatTextList[i] + " is not formatted correctly.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); break; } else { this.WriteToFile(); MessageBox.Show("Your entries have been saved.", "Saved", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } } } what it is supposed to do is to check each line in the list. if one of them isn't formatted correctly, then break the loop and display a message box, if all the lines are formatted properly then it should call the WriteToFile method. However, when testing it using input that WAS correctly formatted it displayed the error message and broke the loop. Anyone figure out why? There's some rep points in it for you :) Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

    Read the article

  • Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

    - by gfoley
    I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

    - by wheaties
    We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

    Read the article

  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

    Read the article

  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

    Read the article

  • Supress output from Visual Studio output pane (C++)

    - by Ryan Ginstrom
    When I run my Win32 project in the Visual Studio debugger, I get this huge screed of output about which DLLs were loaded, first-chance exceptions, and so on. Is there a way that I can suppress this output? Some day, I might want to know when 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' was loaded, but normally I don't care. This is especially true when I'm running unit tests, and just want to be told whether any of the tests failed. This stuff isn't output with console applications, but it is with windows applications. To give an example of what I mean, here are the first lines from the output of a recent unit-test run. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\dev\MyProject\Testing\MyProject.exe', Symbols loaded. 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\ntdll.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\kernel32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\KernelBase.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\dbghelp.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\msvcrt.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\user32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\gdi32.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\lpk.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\usp10.dll' 'MyProject.exe': Loaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\advapi32.dll' ... and on and on ...

    Read the article

  • python crc32 woes

    - by lazyr
    I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

    Read the article

  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

    Read the article

  • Parsing XHTML with inline tags

    - by user290796
    Hi, I'm trying to parse an XHTML document using TBXML on the iPhone (although I would be happy to use either libxml2 or NSXMLParser if it would be easier). I need to extract the content of the body as a series of paragraphs and maintain the inline tags, for example: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/style.css" type="text/css"/> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="application/xhtml+xml; charset=utf-8"/> </head> <body> <div class="body"> <div> <h3>Title</h3> <p>Paragraph with <em>inline</em> tags</p> <img src="image.png" /> </div> </div> </body> </html> I need to extract the paragraph but maintain the <em>inline</em> content with the paragraph, all my testing so far has extracted that as a subelement without me knowing exactly where it fitted in the paragraph. Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • AS3 ExternalInterface works in IE but not Firefox

    - by user567602
    Hi all, I am trying to execute an AS3 function from my javascript using the ExternalInterface. Seems to work fine in IE, but firefox is always returning javascript error method undefined. I have been Googling this for ages and eliminated the following possibilities: 1) Some people say you need to have an embed tag inside your object tag, so added one - no luck. 2) Many people say that you need to make sure that your flash is loaded before calling the javascript. Well my call is after pressing a link on the page. I am always using the flash application first and only pressing the link at the end. 3) Then I thought that maybe it is a security problem so added the following: try { ExternalInterface.addCallback("test", testing); trace("added callback"); } catch (error:SecurityError) { trace("Security Error:"+error.message); } catch (error:Error) { trace("Error:"+error.message); } But it prints out "added callback" :( Anyone else have any ideas what else could I possible try? I am running the latest Firefox and FlashPlayer 10. Regards, Olli

    Read the article

  • MSSQL 2005 FOR XML

    - by Lima
    Hi, I am wanting to export data from a table to a specifically formated XML file. I am fairly new to XML files, so what I am after may be quite obvious but I just cant find what I am looking for on the net. The format of the XML results I need are: <data> <event start="May 28 2006 09:00:00 GMT" end="Jun 15 2006 09:00:00 GMT" isDuration="true" title="Writing Timeline documentation" image="http://simile.mit.edu/images/csail-logo.gif"> A few days to write some documentation </event> </data> My table structure is: name VARCHAR(50), description VARCHAR(255), startDate DATETIME, endDate DATETIME (I am not too interested in the XML fields image or isDuration at this point in time). I have tried: SELECT [name] ,[description] ,[startDate] ,[endTime] FROM [testing].[dbo].[time_timeline] FOR XML RAW('event'), ROOT('data'), type Which gives me: <data> <event name="Test1" description="Test 1 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> <event name="Test2" description="Test 2 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> </data> What I am missing, is the description needs to be outside of the event attributes, and there needs to be a tag. Is anyone able to point me in the correct direction, or point me to a tutorial or similar on how to accomplish this? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Web Audio API and mobile browsers

    - by Michael
    I've run into a problem while implementing sound and music into an HTML game that I'm building. I'm using the Web Audio API, loading all the sound files with XMLHttpRequests and decoding them into an AudioBufferSourceNode with AudioContext.prototype.decodeAudioData(). It looks something like this: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("GET", "soundfile.ogg", true); request.responseType = "arraybuffer"; request.onload = function() { context.decodeAudioData(request.response) } request.send(); Everything plays fine, but on mobile the decodeAudioData takes an absurdly long time for the background music. I then tried using AudioContext.prototype.createMediaElementSource() to load the music from an HTML Audio object, since they support streaming and don't have to load the whole file into memory at once. It looked something like this: var audio = new Audio('soundfile.ogg'); var source = context.createMediaElementSource(audio); var mainVolume = context.createGain(); source.connect(mainVolume); mainVolume.connect(context.destination); This loads much faster, but the audio volume isn't affected by the gain node. Works fine on desktop, so I'm assuming this is a bug/limitation of mobile Chrome (testing on Android). Is there actually no good, well-performing way to handle sound on mobile browsers or am just I doing something stupid?

    Read the article

  • Timer appears to be pausing when screen becomes inactive

    - by elchuppa
    So I have a very simple android activity that starts a timer when you hit a button. Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { doStuff(); } }, 15 * 60 * 1000); So this worked reasonably well for me when I was testing but as it turns out when the screen becomes inactive so does the timer. I was a bit surprised by this. I understand you need to create a service to have anything running in the background but I hadn't realized this is required for an activity in the foreground when the phone has inactivated the screen due to lack of activity. What confuses me is I think this worked as I expected originally and just in the last few weeks or so has the timer been affected by the phone saving power. I could be wrong though.. So basically my questions are: am I seeing expected behavior? Do I need to create all timers as services or somehow disallow powersaving? thanks for any advice, Patrick

    Read the article

  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

    Read the article

  • jQuery class selectors with nested div's

    - by mboles57
    This is part of some HTML from which I need to retrieve a piece of data. The HTML is assigned to a variable called fullDescription. <p>testing</p> <div class="field field-type-text field-field-video-short-desc"> <div class="field-label">Short Description:&nbsp;</div> <div class="field-items"> <div class="field-item odd"> Demonstrates the basics of using the Content section of App Cloud Studio </div> </div> </div> <div class="field field-type-text field-field-video-id"> <div class="field-label">Video ID:&nbsp;</div> <div class="field-items"> <div class="field-item odd"> 1251462871001 </div> </div> </div> I wish to retrieve the video ID number (1251462871001). I was thinking something like this: var videoID = $(fullDescription).find(".field.field-type-text.field-field-video-id").find(".field-item.odd").html(); Although it does not generate any syntax errors, it does not retrieve the number. Thanks for helping out a jQuery noob! -Matt

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >