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• Is it possible to run my Windows Form application in Windows CE platform?

  - by Fakhrul

  I am new in Windows CE development and never done it yet. Need some advise from the expert in here. In our current project, we are developing a client-server application. The client side is using a windows form application that are base on Windows XP OS while the server is a web base application. This question are related to the client application (Windows Form). This application are using Sql Server Express Edition for data storage. The data is stored in XML object format. It also can transfer a data from client to server via web service. It also interact with hardware such as Magnetic Stripe Reader, Contactless Smart Card Reader, and a thermal printer. Most of the communication between hardware device and systems are base on Serial Port. It is use standard app.config for the configuration and is a multi threaded application. There is a new requirement to use a Handheld device which is use a Windows CE platform. This handheld included the required equipment such as Contactless Smart Card Reader, Printer and Magnetic Stripe Reader. Instead of developing a new client application, is it possible to me to convert my current application that are base on Windows XP to Windows CE? If yes, how can I do that? If no, is it any other brilliant suggestion to do this? Thanks in advance. Software Engineer

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• How to deserialize MXML with PHP?

  - by Ivan Petrushev

  Hello, I have an array structure that have to be converted to MXML. I know of PEAR XML_Serialize extension but it seems the output format it produces is a bit different. PHP generated XML: <zone columns="3"> <select column="1" /> <select column="4" /> </zone> MXML format: <mx:zone columns="3"> <mx:select column="1" /> <mx:select column="4" /> </mx:zone> Is that "mx:" prefix required for all the tags? If yes, can I make the XML_Serialize put it before each tag (without renaming my data structure fields to "mx:something")? Here are my options for XML_Serialize: $aOptions = array('addDecl' => true, 'indent' => " ", 'rootName' => 'template', 'scalarAsAttributes' => true, 'mode' => 'simplexml');

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• Design pattern to use instead of multiple inheritance

  - by mizipzor

  Coming from a C++ background, Im used to multiple inheritance. I like the feeling of a shotgun squarely aimed at my foot. Nowadays, I work more in C# and Java, where you can only inherit one baseclass but implement any number of interfaces (did I get the terminology right?). For example, lets consider two classes that implement a common interface but different (yet required) baseclasses: public class TypeA : CustomButtonUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } public class TypeB : CustomTextUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } Both classes are UserControls so I cant substitute the base class. Both needs to implement the DoMagic function. My problem now is that both implementations of the function are identical. And I hate copy-and-paste code. The (possible) solutions: I naturally want TypeA and TypeB to share a common baseclass, where I can write that identical function definition just once. However, due to having the limit of just one baseclass, I cant find a place along the hierarchy where it fits. One could also try to implement a sort of composite pattern. Putting the DoMagic function in a separate helper class, but the function here needs (and modifies) quite a lot of internal variables/fields. Sending them all as (reference) parameters would just look bad. My gut tells me that the adapter pattern could have a place here, some class to convert between the two when necessery. But it also feels hacky. I tagged this with language-agnostic since it applies to all languages that use this one-baseclass-many-interfaces approach. Also, please point out if I seem to have misunderstood any of the patterns I named. In C++ I would just make a class with the private fields, that function implementation and put it in the inheritance list. Whats the proper approach in C#/Java and the like?

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• Execute SQL on CSV files via JDBC

  - by Markos Fragkakis

  Dear all, I need to apply an SQL query to CSV files (comma-separated text files). My SQL is predefined from another tool, and is not eligible to change. It may contain embedded selects and table aliases in the FROM part. For my task I have found two open-source (this is a project requirement) libraries that provide JDBC drivers: CsvJdbc XlSQL JBoss Teiid Create an Apache Derby DB, load all CSVs as tables and execute the query. These are the problems I encountered: it does not accept the syntax of the SQL (it uses internal selects and table aliases). Furthermore, it has not been maintained since 2004. I could not get it to work, as it has as dependency a SAX Parser that causes exception when parsing other documents. Similarly, no change since 2004. Have not checked if it supports the syntax, but seems like an overhead. It needs several entities defines (Virtual Databases, Bindings). From the mailing list they told me that last release supports runtime creation of required objects. Has anyone used it for such simple task (normally it can connect to several types of data, like CSV, XML or other DBS and create a virtual, unified one)? Can this even be done easily? From the 4 things I considered/tried, only 3 and 4 seem to me viable. Any advice on these, or any other way in which I can query my CSV files? Cheers

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• Workflow UI Integration - is WF a good approach?

  - by AJ

  Somewhat similar to this question, except we haven't decided that we're going with WF yet. I'm working on designing a system that requires a series of decisions and activities on a "work object," so I naturally began to consider workflow, specifically WF. What I'm wondering is if WF is a good solution for a situation like the following (oversimplified for this question) case (please forgive bad ascii art): __________________ | Gather some info | | (web page) | |__________________| | | / \ / \ / \ / \ / cond \ \ 1 / \ / \ / \ / \ / | | ______________|_______________ | | | | | ______|______ ______|________ / do some / | Get more info | / process / | (web page) | /____________/ |_______________| | | / \ / \ / \ / cond. \ \ 2 / \ / \ / \ / | | |__________________ | | | | _____|_____ _____|_____ / some / / another / / process / / process / /__________/ /__________/ The part I'm struggling with is the get more info (web page) step and what happens subsequent, which would mean a halt in the execution of the workflow runtime. I'm aware that this is possible, but I'm not sure that WF is the best approach for this type of code, as the user interaction may be required at many different points through the entire workflow, and the workflow will drive what data entry screens are needed. We are using a WinForms/ASP.NET web forms package for UI, which is homegrown and difficult to push deployments on, so something like SharePoint integration is out of the question. Our back-end is DB2, and the workflow code (whether it's in WF or otherwise) will need to interact with that as well. I guess the bottom line is, should we look into using WF for this, or would we be better served just coding it ourselves? Can WF easily integrate data entry screens to capture information that can be used further on in the workflow?

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• Deploying Application with mvc in shared hosting server

  - by ankita-13-3

  We have created an MVC web application in asp.net 3.5, it runs absolutely fine locally but when we deploy it on godaddy hosting server (shared hosting), it shows an error which is related to trust level problem. We contacted godaddy support and they say, that we only support medium trust level application. So how to convert my application in medium trust level. Do I need to make changes to web.config file. It shows the following error : Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.ThrowSecurityException(Assembly asm, PermissionSet granted, PermissionSet refused, RuntimeMethodHandle rmh, SecurityAction action, Object demand, IPermission permThatFailed) +150 System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.ThrowSecurityException(Object assemblyOrString, PermissionSet granted, PermissionSet refused, RuntimeMethodHandle rmh, SecurityAction action, Object demand, IPermission permThatFailed) +100 System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.CheckSetHelper(PermissionSet grants, PermissionSet refused, PermissionSet demands, RuntimeMethodHandle rmh, Object assemblyOrString, SecurityAction action, Boolean throwException) +284 System.Security.PermissionSetTriple.CheckSetDemand(PermissionSet demandSet, PermissionSet& alteredDemandset, RuntimeMethodHandle rmh) +69 System.Security.PermissionListSet.CheckSetDemand(PermissionSet pset, RuntimeMethodHandle rmh) +150 System.Security.PermissionListSet.DemandFlagsOrGrantSet(Int32 flags, PermissionSet grantSet) +30 System.Threading.CompressedStack.DemandFlagsOrGrantSet(Int32 flags, PermissionSet grantSet) +40 System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.ReflectionTargetDemandHelper(Int32 permission, PermissionSet targetGrant, CompressedStack securityContext) +123 System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.ReflectionTargetDemandHelper(Int32 permission, PermissionSet targetGrant, Resolver accessContext) +41 Look forward to your help. Regards Ankita Software Developer Shakti Informatics Pvt. Ltd. Web Template Hub

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• Making a 64 bit shared library that dynamically links to a 32 bit library on Mac OS X Snow Leopard

  - by carneades

  Update: After some more reading I see that this problem is totally general, you can't mix architectures in the same process, so 64 bit Java cannot dlopen() a 32 bit library like FMOD. Is there any possible workaround for this, keeping in mind I'm writing my own C interface to the FMOD library? I need to make a 64-bit dylib on Max OS X because Java Native Access only likes 64-bit libraries on 64-bit machines. The problem is, my C source code dynamically includes FMOD which on Mac only provides 32-bit dylibs. When I try to compile without the -m32 option (since I must output a 64-bit dylib) I get the following error: gcc -dynamiclib -std=c99 -pedantic -Wall -O3 -fPIC -pthread -o ../bin/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.dylib ../../src/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.c -lfmodex -L../../lib/osx/ ld: warning: in /usr/lib/libfmodex.dylib, missing required architecture x86_64 in file Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_System_CreateSound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_GetPosition", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Create", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_PlaySound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Sound_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_IsPlaying", referenced from: _playbackInProgress in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Update", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetPaused", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Init", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetVolume", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Close", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetCallback", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [all] Error 1 Shouldn't it be possible to get a 64 bit dylib from my source code that dynamically includes 32 bit libraries?!

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• How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

  - by emzero

  Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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• Apache with JBOSS using AJP (mod_jk) giving spikes in thread count.

  - by Beginner

  We used Apache with JBOSS for hosting our Application, but we found some issues related to thread handling of mod_jk. Our website comes under low traffic websites and has maximum 200-300 concurrent users during our website's peak activity time. As the traffic grows (not in terms of concurrent users, but in terms of cumulative requests which came to our server), the server stopped serving requests for long, although it didn't crash but could not serve the request till 20 mins. The JBOSS server console showed that 350 thread were busy on both servers although there was enough free memory say, more than 1-1.5 GB (2 servers for JBOSS were used which were 64 bits, 4 GB RAM allocated for JBOSS) In order to check the problem we were using JBOSS and Apache Web Consoles, and we were seeing that the thread were showing in S state for as long as minutes although our pages take around 4-5 seconds to be served. We took the thread dump and found that the threads were mostly in WAITING state which means that they were waiting indefinitely. These threads were not of our Application Classes but of AJP 8009 port. Could somebody help me in this, as somebody else might also got this issue and solved it somehow. In case any more information is required then let me know. Also is mod_proxy better than using mod_jk, or there are some other problems with mod_proxy which can be fatal for me if I switch to mod__proxy? The versions I used are as follows: Apache 2.0.52 JBOSS: 4.2.2 MOD_JK: 1.2.20 JDK: 1.6 Operating System: RHEL 4 Thanks for the help.

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• How do you update table row background color in IE using Javascript/CSS ?

  - by giulio

  I have a table that i want to "highlight" during onmouseover/onmouseout. I already know this is required in IE but not in other browsers. I have managed to detect the events triggering and this TR tag effectively works. (Note that the originating class "contentTableRow" doesn't seem to be causing any issues.) class="contentTableRow" onclick="openForm('SomeID');" onmouseover="highlight('someRowID', true);" onmouseout="highlight('someRowID', false);" id="someRowID" All is fine and dandy, the "highlight" function fires and actually sets the appropriate class. It's just that IE won't process the CSS class name change. Here is a snippet of the CSS I am using to make the change. .HighlightOn { cursor:pointer; background-color: #D1DFFF; } .HighlightOff { background-color: #E1EEFE; } I can see that the Class names are getting updated when I debug it, and also check it in Firebug. But it seems that IE doesn't like this usage of classes with a TR tag.. Is it the way I am structuring the class for Tables ? Any advice ?

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• Is there a standard lexer/parser tool for Python?

  - by Salim Fadhley

  A volunteer job requires us to convert a large number of LaTeX documents into ePub format. It's a series of open-source fiction book which has so far only been produced only on paper via a print on demand service. We'd like to be able to offer the book to users of book-reader devices (such as Kindle) which require the ePub format for best results. Fortunately, ePub is a very simple format, however there's no trivial way for LaTeX to produce the XHTML outut required. We experimented with alternative LaTeX compilers (e.g. plastex) but in the end we figured that it would probably be a lot easier to simply write our own compiler which understands a tiny subset of the LaTeX language and compiles directly to XHTML / ePub. Previously I used a tool on Windows called GOLD. This allowed me to go directly from BNF grammars to a stub parser. It also alllowed me to implement the parser in any language I liked. (I'd choose Python). This product has to work on Linux, so I'm wondering if there's an equivalent toolchain that works as well under Ubutnu / Eclipse / Python. The idea is that we will take the grammar of TeX and just implement a teeny subset of that, but we do not want to spend a huge amount of time worrying about grammar and parsing. A parser generator would obviously save us a great deal of time. Sal UPDATE 1: Bonus marks for a solution with excellent documentation or tutorials.

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• Assembly reference from ASP.NET App_Code directory

  - by Gerald Schneider

  I have trouble getting a custom ObjectDataSource for an asp:ListView control to work. I have the class for the DataSource in the App_Code directory of the web application (as required by the asp:ListView control). using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Configuration; using System.Data; using System.Data.Common; using System.Web; using System.DirectoryServices; [DataObject] public class UsersDAL { [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public List<User> LoadAll(int startIndex, int maxRows, string sortedBy) { List<User> users = new List<User>(); DirectoryEntry entry; return users; } } As soon as I add using System.DirectoryServices; the page crashes with this message: Compiler Error Message: CS0234: The type or namespace name 'DirectoryServices' does not exist in the namespace 'System' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Without the usage of System.DirectoryServices the page loads without problems. The reference is there, it is working in classes outside the App_Code directory.

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• WiX: Forcefully launch uninstall previous using CustomAction

  - by leiflundgren

  I'm writing a new major upgrade of our product. In my installer I start by finding configuration settings of the previous version, then I'd like to uninstall the previous version. I have found several guides telling me how one should make a MSI suitable for such upgrades. However, the previous was not an MSI. It was not according to best practices. It does, however, in registry HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall{GUID} specify an UninstallString. Using a RegistrySearch I can easy find the command below, which I store in UNINSTALL_CMD. RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information\{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly 4: I cannot get the hang of the CustomAction needed to perform the actual uninstall. <CustomAction Id="ca.UninstPrev" Property="UNINSTALL_CMD" ExeCommand="" /> The MSI logs says: Info 1721. There is a problem with this Windows Installer package. A program required for this install to complete could not be run. Contact your support personnel or package vendor. Action: ca.UninstallPrevious, location: RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly, command: Anyone seeing what I am doing wrong here? Regards Leif

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• How to run validator from javascript?

  - by David Shochet

  Here is a part of my code: <asp:ListBox ID="lbRD" runat="server" DataSourceID="RDSqlDataSource" onchange="JSFillDetail();" DataTextField="????????" DataValueField="ID" Width="188px" Height="200px"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDescription" runat="server" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="txtDescriptionRequiredFieldValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="???????? ???????? ???????????? ??? ??????????" ControlToValidate="txtDescription" /> I have a listbox, a textbox and a required field validator on my page. When the user selects something from the listbox, the selected item appears in the textbox using a javascript function. When the page is submitted, the validator reports an error in case the textbox is empty. If after that the user selects something from the listbox, the error message is still displayed, even though the textbox is not empty anymore. How can I make the validator validate the textbox, or even better, to clear the error message from the javascript function that fills the textbox? Thanks, David

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• Maintaining state and data context between requests in ASP.NET + EF4

  - by Nick

  I have a EF4/ASP.NET web application that is structured to use POCOs and generic repositories, based essentially on this excellent article. The application is relatively sophisticated with one page that involves selection and linking of multiple entities to build up a complex user profile. This requires access to multiple entity types (20 or so) and associated repositories across multiple posts. When a repository is first accessed it uses the existing data context if exists, else it creates a new context. The problem is that if the lifetime of the context is only per-request (as suggested in the article) then you have to deal with multiple contexts and the complexity around detaching and attaching entities from contexts. My solution is to share the context between posts by creating a single View Model that includes all required repositories (initialised to share the same context) plus any associated data and store this model in a Session variable, retrieving from Session on subsequent page requests. Therefore maintaining the same context across all posts until the profile is saved. This works fine BUT I am concerned that I don't actually know exactly what is stored in the model session variable or more importantly the size of the Session variable. So two questions I suppose: firstly should I look for a better solution to handle the shared context across posts issue (any suggestions welcome)? And secondly what is actually stored in the Session when it includes a repository plus context? Any help appreciated!

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• Django server side AJAX validation

  - by MMRUser

  Hi, Recently I'm trying to implement a simple Django application that include one server side AJAX validation, it's a simple form input field (username). I have used a pre-built in line AJAX validation library which uses jQuery. So the code goes like this HTML snippet <form id="simpleform" method="post" action="/done/"> Username:<input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Validate"/> </form> The server side code snippet (embedded in to a php script) /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="testname"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } So my question is that how do I get this in to Python code (in order to use in Django environment) how do I get the user name from the input field in to the back end,I think the server side script snippet already does it but I want to know how to use this in my Pyhon code,and this is my first time using jQuery and I do need to use this same exact validation library. Your valuable corporation is needed. Thanks.

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• DOJO : How do you reinitiate form elements after ajax call ?

  - by Dural

  I'm trying to do a couple of things using Zend Framework & Dojo Toolkit, and any help would be appreciated. Here's the problem: I have a form that is rendered with the Zend Framework form class, which has an ajax radio button selection. Clicking one of these radio buttons will send an ajax request to another controller, which has no layout, just a rendered form. The ajax request will then populate a div with the new form options. Problem is, when I replace the innerHTML of the div with the ajax response, all the form inputs and elements are not inheriting the same Dojo styling and form validation. I was wondering if there is a way to reinitate form elements after an ajax call? I have tried to use the code attached which I found and modified slightly for this example, however it did not work. If I use the line dojo.parser.parse( div ); nothing changes (rg_adress in the example is the ID of a form element that is placed on the DOM). Here is the console.log of rg_address: <input type="text" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="1" invalidmessage="The first name of the recipient" value="" name="rg_address" id="rg_address" class="textbox"/> onClick=' dojo.xhrGet( { url: "/transfer/newrecipient/", handleAs: "text", timeout: 10000, // Time in milliseconds // The LOAD function will be called on a successful response. load: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html(response); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); var div = dojo.byId("rg_address"); console.log( div ); dojo.parser.parse( div ); return response; }, // The ERROR function will be called in an error case. error: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html("Error loading registration form"); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); return response; } });' Thanks, Dural

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• pass objective c object and primitive type into a void *

  - by user674669

  I want to pass 2 variables: UIImage * img int i into another method that only takes a (void *) I tried making a C struct containing both img and i struct MyStruct { UIImage *img; int i; } but xcode gives me an error saying "ARC forbids Objective-C objects in structs or unions" The next thing I tried is to write an objective-c class MyStruct2 containing img and i, alloc-initing an instance of it and typecasting it as (__bridge void*) before passing it to the method. Seems little involved for my use case. Seems like there should be a better way. What's the simplest way to achieve this? Thank you. Edit based on comments: I have to use void * as it is required by the UIView API. I created a selector as mentioned by UIVIew API + (void)setAnimationDidStopSelector:(SEL)selector Please see documentation for setAnimationDidStopSelector at http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/uikit/reference/UIView_Class/UIView/UIView.html . It says ... The selector should be of the form: - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context I want to pass both img and i into the (void *)context argument.

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• Using java2d user space measurements with TextLayout and LineBreakMeasurer

  - by Andrew Wheeler

  I have a java2d image defined in user space (mm) to print an identity card. The transformation to pixels is by using an AffineTransform for the required DPI (Screen or print). I want to wrap text across several lines but the the TextLayout does not respect user space co-ordinates. private void drawParagraph(Graphics2D g2d, Rectangle2D area, String text) { LineBreakMeasurer lineMeasurer; AttributedString string = new AttributedString(text); AttributedCharacterIterator paragraph = string.getIterator(); int paragraphStart = paragraph.getBeginIndex(); int paragraphEnd = paragraph.getEndIndex(); FontRenderContext frc = g2d.getFontRenderContext(); lineMeasurer = new LineBreakMeasurer(paragraph, frc); float breakWidth = (float)area.getWidth(); float drawPosY = (float)area.getY(); float drawPosX = (float)area.getX(); lineMeasurer.setPosition(paragraphStart); while (lineMeasurer.getPosition() < paragraphEnd) { TextLayout layout = lineMeasurer.nextLayout(breakWidth); drawPosY += layout.getAscent(); layout.draw(g2d, drawPosX, drawPosY); drawPosY += layout.getDescent() + layout.getLeading(); } } The above code determines font metrics using user space sizing of the Font and thus turn out rather large. The font size is calculated as best vertical fit for the number of lines in an area with the calculation as below. E.g. attr.put(TextAttribute.SIZE, (geTextArea().getHeight() / noOfLines - LINE_SPACING) ); When using g2d.drawString("Some text to display", x, y); the font size appears correct. Does anyone have a better way of doing text layout in user space co-ords?

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• Modelbinding Failing VS2010 asp.net mvc2

  - by Rob Ellis

  The contactAddModel.Search always comes through as null - any ideas? View declaration <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<rs30UserWeb.Models.StatusIndexModel>" %> ViewModels public class StatusIndexModel { public ContactAddModel contactAddModel; public StatusMessageModel statusMessageModel; } public class ContactAddModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Contact search string")] [DisplayName("Contact Search")] public string Search { get; set; } } View content <% using (Html.BeginForm("AddContact", "Status")) { %> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Add a new Contact</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(m => m.contactAddModel.Search) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.contactAddModel.Search)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.contactAddModel.Search)%> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Add Contact" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> <% } %> Controller [HttpPost] public ActionResult AddContact(Models.ContactAddModel model) { if (u != null) { } else { ModelState.AddModelError("contactAddModel.Search", "User not found"); } return View("Index"); }

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• WCF and streaming requests and responses

  - by Cheeso

  Is it correct that in WCF, I cannot have a service write to a stream that is received by the client? My understanding is that streaming is supported in WCF for requests, responses, or both. Is it true that in all cases, the receiver of the stream must invoke Read ? I would like to support a scenario where the receiver of the stream can Write on it. Is this supported? Let me show it this way. The simplest example of Streaming in WCF is the service returning a FileStream to a client. This is a streamed response. The server code is like this: [ServiceContract] public interface IStreamService { [OperationContract] Stream GetData(string fileName); } public class StreamService : IStreamService { public Stream GetData(string filename) { FileStream fs = new FileStream(filename, FileMode.Open) return fs; } } And the client code is like this: StreamDemo.StreamServiceClient client = new WcfStreamDemoClient.StreamDemo.StreamServiceClient(); Stream str = client.GetData(@"c:\path\to\myfile.dat"); do { b = str.ReadByte(); //read next byte from stream ... } while (b != -1); (example taken from http://blog.joachim.at/?p=33) Clear, right? The server returns the Stream to the client, and the client invokes Read on it. Is it possible for the client to provide a Stream, and the server to invoke Write on it? In other words, rather than a pull model - where the client pulls data from the server - it is a push model, where the client provides the "sink" stream and the server writes into it. Is this possible in WCF, and if so, how? What are the config settings required for the binding, interface, etc? The analogy is the Response.OutputStream from an ASP.NET request. In ASPNET, any page can invoke Write on the output stream, and the content is received by the client. Can I do something similar in WCF? Thanks.

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• Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

  - by James Turner

  I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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• Django: how to cleanup form fields and avoid code duplication

  - by Alexander Konstantinov

  Quite often I need to filter some form data before using it (saving to database etc.) Let's say I want to strip whitespaces and replace repeating whitespaces with a single one in most of the text fields, in many forms. It's not difficult to do this using clean_<fieldname> methods: # Simplified model with two text fields class MyModel(models.Model): title = models.CharField() description = models.CharField() # Model-based form class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): title = self.cleaned_data['title'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', title.strip()) def clean_description(self): description = self.cleaned_data['description'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', description.strip()) It does exactly what I need, and has a nice side effect which I like: if user enters only whitespaces, the field will be considered empty and therefore invalid (if it is required) and I don't even have to throw a ValidationError. The obvious problem here is code duplication. Even if I'll create some function for that, say my_text_filter, I'll have to call it for every text field in all my forms: from myproject.filters import my_text_filter class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['title']) def clean_description(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['description']) The question: is there any standard and simple way in Django (I use version 1.2 if that matters) to do this (like, for example, by adding property validators = {'title': my_text_filter, 'description': my_text_filter} to MyModel), or at least some more or less standard workaround? I've read about form validation and validators in the documentation, but couldn't find what I need there.

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• ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

  - by Zote

  I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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