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• Low-Hanging Fruit: Obfuscating non-critical values in JavaScript

  - by Piskvor

  I'm making an in-browser game of the type "guess what place/monument/etc. is in this satellite/aerial view", using Google Maps JS API v3. However, I need to protect against cheaters - you have to pass a google.maps.LatLng and a zoom level to the map constructor, which means a cheating user only needs to view source to get to this data. I am already unsetting every value I possibly can without breaking the map (such as center and the manipulation functions like setZoom()), and initializing the map in an anonymous function (so the object is not visible in global namespace). Now, this is of course in-browser, client-side, untrusted JavaScript; I've read much of the obfuscation tag and I'm not trying to make the script bullet-proof (it's just a game, after all). I only need to make the obfuscation reasonably hard against the 1337 Java5kryp7 haxz0rz - "kid sister encryption", as Bruce Schneier puts it. Anything harder than base64 encoding would deter most cheaters by eliminating the lowest-hanging fruit - if the cheater is smart and determined enough to use a JS debugger, he can bypass anything I can do (as I need to pass the value to Google Maps API in plaintext), but that's unlikely to happen on a mass scale (there will also be other, not-code-related ways to prevent cheating). I've tried various minimizers and obfuscators, but those will mostly deal with code - the values are still shown verbatim. TL;DR: I need to obfuscate three values in JavaScript. I'm not looking for bullet-proof armor, just a sneeze-guard. What should I use?

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• jQuery & Prototype Conflict

  - by DPereyra

  Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

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• How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

  - by Manas Saha

  Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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• Why does first call to java.io.File.createTempFile(String,String,File) take 5 seconds on Citrix?

  - by Ben Roling

  While debugging slow startup of an Eclipse RCP app on a Citrix server, I came to find out that java.io.createTempFile(String,String,File) is taking 5 seconds. It does this only on the first execution and only for certain user accounts. Specifically, I am noticing it Citrix anonymous user accounts. I have not tried many other types of accounts, but this behavior is not exhibited with an administrator account. Also, it does not matter if the user has access to write to the given directory or not. If the user does not have access, the call will take 5 seconds to fail. If they do have access, the call with take 5 seconds to succeed. This is on a Windows 2003 Server. I've tried Sun's 1.6.0_16 and 1.6.0_19 JREs and see the same behavior. I googled a bit expecting this to be some sort of known issue, but didn't find anything. It seems like someone else would have had to have run into this before. The Eclipse Platform uses File.createTempFile() to test various directories to see if they are writeable during initialization and this issue adds 5 seconds to the startup time of our application. I imagine somebody has run into this before and might have some insight. Here is sample code I executed to see that it is indeed this call that is consuming the time. I also tried it with a second call to createTempFile and notice that subsequent calls return nearly instantaneously. public static void main(final String[] args) throws IOException { final File directory = new File(args[0]); final long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); File file = null; try { file = File.createTempFile("prefix", "suffix", directory); System.out.println(file.getAbsolutePath()); } finally { System.out.println(System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime); if (file != null) { file.delete(); } } } Sample output of this program is the following: C:\java.exe -jar filetest.jar C:/Temp C:\Temp\prefix8098550723198856667suffix 5093

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• How do I ensure my C# software can access the internet in a Citrix + ISA environment?

  - by TomFromThePool

  Hi everyone, A client recently informed us that deployment of our software in their environment has failed due to a proxy error when the software attempts to access the internet. The client has a combination of Citrix and Microsoft's ISA server. The software allows the use of a proxy and the ability to manually enter authentication information, or automatically retrieve the current system proxy settings. The error returned is the standard 407 authentication error, but the client assures us that they have entered the authentication information required. They have also shown us the snippet of the ISA error logs which identify the client as Anonymous and the authentication protocol as Basic. I have a few questions I suppose: How should I go about dealing with the ISA server in my code? I have no real experience with this environment and am assuming that the ISA server is treated like any other proxy. If I am mistaken, what should I be doing? Does ISA allow the administrator to disallow specific authentication protocols - and if this is the case and 'Basic' auth is disallowed, would it still return a 407 error? Could the Citrix environment have caused this issue? Is there any particular way to ensure that my software will work in such an environment? Code-samples would be much appreciated. I have neither a Citrix test server or an ISA server at my disposal to carry out testing on this so I am currently trying to identify possible causes before I make the case for investment in a more robust testing environment. Thanks for any help!

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• Removing HttpModule for specific path in ASP.NET / IIS 7 application?

  - by soccerdad

  Most succinctly, my question is whether an ASP.NET 4.0 app running under IIS 7 integrated mode should be able to honor this portion of my Web.config file: <location path="auth/windows"> <system.webServer> <modules> <remove name="FormsAuthentication"/> </modules> </system.webServer> </location> I'm experimenting with mixed mode authentication (Windows and Forms - I know there are other questions on S.O. about the topic). Using IIS Manager, I've disabled Anonymous authentication to auth/windows/winauth.aspx, which is within the location path above. I have Failed Request Tracing set up to trace various HTTP status codes, including 302s. When I request the winauth.aspx page, a 302 HTTP status code is returned. If I look at the request trace, I can see that a 401 (unauthorized) was originally generated by the AnonymousAuthenticationModule. However, the FormsAuthenticationModule converts that to a 302, which is what the browser sees. So it seems as though my attempt to remove that module from the pipeline for pages in that path isn't working. But I'm not seeing any complaints anywhere (event viewer, yellow pages of death, etc.) that would indicate it's an invalid configuration. I want the 401 returned to the browser, which presumably would include an appropriate WWW-Authenticate header. A couple of other points: a) I do have <authentication mode="Forms"> in my Web.config, and that is what the 302 redirects to; b) I got the "name" of the module I'm trying to remove from the inetserv\config\applicationHost.config file. Anyone had any luck removing modules in this fashion? Thanks much, Donnie

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• architecture and tools for a remote control application?

  - by slothbear

  I'm working on the design of a remote control application. From my iPhone or a web browser, I'll send a few commands. Soon my home computer will perform the commands and send back results. I know there are remote desktop apps, but I want something programmable, something simpler, and something that I wrote. My current direction is to use Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) as the message bus. The iPhone places some messages in a queue. My local Java/JRuby program notices the messages on the queue, performs the work and sends back status via a different queue. This will be a very low-volume application. At $1.00 for a million requests (plus a handful of data transfer charges), Amazon SQS looks a lot more affordable than having my own server of any type. And super reliable, that's important for me too. Are there better/standard toolkits or architectures for this kind of remote control? Cost is not a big issue, but I prefer the tons I learn by doing it myself. I'm moderately concerned about security, but doubt it will be a problem. The list of commands recognized will be very short, and only recognized in specific contexts. No "erase hard drive" stuff. update: I'll probably distribute these programs to some other people who want the same function, but who don't have Amazon SQS accounts. For now, they'll use anonymous access to my queues, with random 80-character queue names.

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• Perl - how to get the number of elements in a list (not a named array)

  - by NXT

  Hi Everyone, I'm trying to get a block of code down to one line. I need a way to get the number of items in a list. My code currently looks like this: # Include the lib directory several levels up from this directory my @ary = split('/', $Bin); my @ary = @ary[0 .. $#ary-4]; my $res = join '/',@ary; lib->import($res.'/lib'); That's great but I'd like to make that one line, something like this: lib->import( join('/', ((split('/', $Bin)) [0 .. $#ary-4])) ); But of course the syntax $#ary is meaningless in the above line. Is there equivalent way to get the number of elements in an anonymous list? Thanks! PS: The reason for consolidating this is that it will be in the header of a bunch of perl scripts that are ancillary to the main application, and I want this little incantation to be more cut & paste proof.

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• Do I need to implement an XMPP server?

  - by WTFITS

  (newbie alert) I need to program a multiparty communication service for a course project, and I am considering XMPP for it. The service needs following messaging semantics: 1) server will provide a method of registering and unregistering an address such as [email protected]/SomeResource. (for now I will do it manually). 2) server will provide a method of forwarding incoming messages from, say, [email protected]/SomeResource to [email protected]/someOtherResource, assuming that the latter is registered, and a method for removing this forwarding. (for now I will do it manually). 3) anonymous clients can send messages to, say, [email protected]/someresource (one way traffic only). If there is any forwarding setup, the message will be forwarded. Finally if the address is [email protected]/someresource is registered, the message will be stored for later delivery (or immediate if a retrieving client is online - see below). If no forwarding and unregistered, message will be silently dropped. 4) clients can connect and retrieve messages from a registered address. Exact method of authenticating clients (e.g., passwords?) is yet to be determined. Eventually, I want to add support for clients to connect from a web browser so they can register/unregister and set/remove forwarding themselves. Thus, the server will have to do some non-standard switching. Will I need to implement an XMPP server for this? I guess some (or all?) of this can also be done using a XMPP client bot

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• Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

  - by typeof

  I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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• ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

  - by MattSlay

  This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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• Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

  - by AVH

  I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

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• Why is alert not run even though $.getJSON runs fine? (Callback not executed, even though the reques

  - by Emre Sevinç

  I have a snippet of code such as: $.getJSON("http://mysite.org/polls/saveLanguageTest?url=" + escape(window.location.href) + "&callback=?", function (data) { var serverResponse = data.result; console.log(serverResponse); alert(serverResponse); }); It works fine in the sense that it makes a cross-domain request to my server and the server saves the data as I expect. Unfortunately, even though the server saves data and sends back a response I just can't get any alert or the console.log run. Why may be that? The server side code is (if that is relevant): def saveLanguageTest(request): callback = request.GET.get('callback', '') person = Person(firstName = 'Anonymous', ipAddress = request.META['REMOTE_ADDR']) person.save() webPage = WebPage(url = request.GET.get('url')) webPage.save() langTest = LanguageTest(type = 'prepositionTest') langTest.person = person langTest.webPage = webPage langTest.save() req ['result'] = 'Your test is saved.' response = json.dumps(req) response = callback + '(' + response + ');' return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") What am I missing? (I tried the same code both within my web pages and inside the Firebug and I always have the problem stated above.)

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• What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

  - by samsur

  I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

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• C++: static assert for const variables?

  - by shoosh

  Static asserts are very convenient for checking things in compile time. A simple static assert idiom looks like this: template<bool> struct StaticAssert; template<> struct StaticAssert<true> {}; #define STATIC_ASSERT(condition) do { StaticAssert<condition>(); } while(0) This is good for stuff like STATIC_ASSERT(sizeof(float) == 4) and: #define THIS_LIMIT (1000) ... STATIC_ASSERT(THIS_LIMIT > OTHER_LIMIT); But using #define is not the "C++" way of defining constants. C++ would have you use an anonymous namespace: namespace { const int THIS_LIMIT = 1000; } or even: static const int THIS_LIMIT = 1000; The trouble with this is that with a const int you can't use STATIC_ASSERT() and you must resort to a run-time check which is silly. Is there a way to properly solve this in current C++? I think I've read C++0x has some facility to do this...

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• How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

  - by Duke

  I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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• Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

  - by Rising Star

  I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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• "Most popular" GROUP BY in LINQ?

  - by tags2k

  Assuming a table of tags like the stackoverflow question tags: TagID (bigint), QuestionID (bigint), Tag (varchar) What is the most efficient way to get the 25 most used tags using LINQ? In SQL, a simple GROUP BY will do: SELECT Tag, COUNT(Tag) FROM Tags GROUP BY Tag I've written some LINQ that works: var groups = from t in DataContext.Tags group t by t.Tag into g select new { Tag = g.Key, Frequency = g.Count() }; return groups.OrderByDescending(g => g.Frequency).Take(25); Like, really? Isn't this mega-verbose? The sad thing is that I'm doing this to save a massive number of queries, as my Tag objects already contain a Frequency property that would otherwise need to check back with the database for every Tag if I actually used the property. So I then parse these anonymous types back into Tag objects: groups.OrderByDescending(g => g.Frequency).Take(25).ToList().ForEach(t => tags.Add(new Tag() { Tag = t.Tag, Frequency = t.Frequency })); I'm a LINQ newbie, and this doesn't seem right. Please show me how it's really done.

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• How many users are sufficient to make a heavy load for web application

  - by galymzhan

  I have a web application, which has been suffering high load recent days. The application runs on single server which has 8-core Intel CPU and 4gb of RAM. Software: Drupal 5 (Apache 2, PHP5, MySQL5) running on Debian. After reaching 500 authenticated and 200 anonymous users (simultaneous), the application drastically decreases its performance up to total failure. The biggest load comes from authenticated users, who perform activities, causing insert/update/deletes on db. I think mysql is a bottleneck. Is it normal to slow down on such number of users? EDIT: I forgot to mention that I did some kind of profiling. I runned commands top, htop and they showed me that all memory was being used by MySQL! After some time MySQL starts to perform terribly slow, site goes down, and we have to restart/stop apache to reduce load. Administrators said that there was about 200 active mysql connections at that moment. The worst point is that we need to solve this ASAP, I can't do deep profiling analysis/code refactoring, so I'm considering 2 ways: my tables are MyIsam, I heard they use table-level locking which is very slow, is it right? could I change it to Innodb without worry? what if I take MySQL, and move it to dedicated machine with a lot of RAM?

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• asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

  - by user1566209

  I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

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• grails question (sample 1 of Grails To Action book) problem with Controller and Service

  - by fegloff

  Hi, I'm doing Grails To Action sample for chapter one. Every was just fine until I started to work with Services. When I run the app I have the following error: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: quoteService for class: qotd.QuoteController at qotd.QuoteController$_closure3.doCall(QuoteController.groovy:14) at qotd.QuoteController$_closure3.doCall(QuoteController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Here is my groovie QuoteService class, which has an error within the definition of GetStaticQuote (ERROR: Groovy:unable to resolve class Quote) package qotd class QuoteService { boolean transactional = false def getRandomQuote() { def allQuotes = Quote.list() def randomQuote = null if (allQuotes.size() > 0) { def randomIdx = new Random().nextInt(allQuotes.size()) randomQuote = allQuotes[randomIdx] } else { randomQuote = getStaticQuote() } return randomQuote } def getStaticQuote() { return new Quote(author: "Anonymous",content: "Real Programmers Don't eat quiche") } } Controller groovie class package qotd class QuoteController { def index = { redirect(action: random) } def home = { render "<h1>Real Programmers do not each quiche!</h1>" } def random = { def randomQuote = quoteService.getRandomQuote() [ quote : randomQuote ] } def ajaxRandom = { def randomQuote = quoteService.getRandomQuote() render "<q>${randomQuote.content}</q>" + "<p>${randomQuote.author}</p>" } } Quote Class: package qotd class Quote { String content String author Date created = new Date() static constraints = { author(blank:false) content(maxSize:1000, blank:false) } } I'm doing the samples using Eclipse with grails addin. Any advice? Regards, Francisco

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• Greasemonkey failing to GM_setValue()

  - by HonoredMule

  I have a Greasemonkey script that uses a Javascript object to maintain some stored objects. It covers quite a large volume of information, but substantially less than it successfully stored and retrieved prior to encountering my problem. One value refuses to save, and I can not for the life of me determine why. The following problem code: Works for other larger objects being maintained. Is presently handling a smaller total amount of data than previously worked. Is not colliding with any function or other object definitions. Can (optionally) successfully save the problem storage key as "{}" during code startup. this.save = function(table) { var tables = this.tables; if(table) tables = [table]; for(i in tables) { logger.log(this[tables[i]]); logger.log(JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); GM_setValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user, JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); logger.log(tables[i] + "_" + this.user + " updated"); logger.log(GM_getValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user)); } } The problem is consistently reproducible and the logging statments produce the following output in Firebug: Object { 54,10 = Object } // Expansion shows complete contents as expected, but there is one oddity--Firebug highlights the array keys in purple instead of the usual black for anonymous objects. {"54,10":{"x":54,"y":10,"name":"Lucky Pheasant"}} // The correctly parsed string. bookmarks_HonoredMule saved undefined I have tried altering the format of the object keys, to no effect. Further narrowing down the issue is that this particular value is successfully saved as an empty object ("{}") during code initialization, but skipping that also does not help. Reloading the page confirms that saving of the nonempty object truly failed. Any idea what could cause this behavior? I've thoroughly explored the possibility of hitting size constraints, but it doesn't appear that can be the problem--as previously mentioned, I've already reduced storage usage. Other larger objects save still, and the total number of objects, which was not high already, has further been reduced by an amount greater than the quantity of data I'm attempting to store here.

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• Modify columns in a data frame in R more cleanly - maybe using with() or apply()?

  - by Mittenchops

  I understand the answer in R to repetitive things is usually "apply()" rather than loop. Is there a better R-design pattern for a nasty bit of code I create frequently? So, pulling tabular data from HTML, I usually need to change the data type, and end up running something like this, to convert the first column to date format (from decimal), and columns 2-4 from character strings with comma thousand separators like "2,400,000" to numeric "2400000." X[,1] <- decYY2YY(as.numeric(X[,1])) X[,2] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,2])) X[,3] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,3])) X[,4] <- as.numeric(gsub(",", "", X[,4])) I don't like that I have X[,number] repeated on both the left and ride sides here, or that I have basically the same statement repeated for 2-4. Is there a very R-style way of making X[,2] less repetitive but still loop-free? Something that sort of says "apply this to columns 2,3,4---a function that reassigns the current column to a modified version in place?" I don't want to create a whole, repeatable cleaning function, really, just a quick anonymous function that does this with less repetition.

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• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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