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  • WinPE, Startnet.CMD and passing variables to second batch file not working

    - by user140892
    I don't know scripting or PowerShell (yes I need to learn something). I'm not an expert batch file maker either. I have a WinPE flash drive which I used to deploy OS images. I have the WIM, drivers and anything needed else outside the WinPE environment to ensure that Updates, changes are easier for me to make. I use the "STARTNET.CMD" batch file which is part of the WinPE. The reason to go through the letter drives is that the WinPE always gets the X letter drive assigned. The flash drive itself can receive a random letter which always changes. My deployment menu is located on the flash drive it self and not inside the WinPE. This is so that if I need to make a change I don't have to re-do the WinPE. I am able to locate the "menu.bat" batch file and launch it. I use a variable to capture the letter drive. I call the second batch file named "menu.bat" and pass the variable to it. When the second batch file loads, I believe that I am calling the variable correctly. If I break out of the batch file I can echo the variable and see the expected reply. The issue is that I can't use the variable to work with anything on the second batch file. In my test, I can get this to work over and over. When it runs from the real USB flash drive it does not work. I removed comments from the second batch file to make it smaller. My issue is that files below all get a message stating that the system cannot find the path specified. Diskpart Imagex.exe bcdboot.exe Why can't I get the varible to properly function when I try to using example "ImageX.exe"? Contents of the Startnet.cmd @echo off for %%p in (a b c d e f g h i j k l m n o p q r s t u v w x y z) do if exist %%p:\Tools\ set w=%%p Set execpatch=%w%\Tools\ call %w%:\Menu.bat \Tools\ Contents of the Menu.BAT @echo off set SecondPath=%1 cls :Start cls Echo. Echo.============================================================== Echo. Windows 7 64 Bit Ent Basic Desktops Echo.============================================================== Echo. Echo A. 790 Windows 7 - Basic Echo. Echo. Echo I. Exit Echo. Echo. set /p choice=Choose your option = if not '%choice%'=='' set choice=%choice:~0,1% if '%choice%'=='a' goto 790_Windows_7_Basic echo "%choice%" is not a valid (answer/command) echo. goto start :790_Windows_7_Basic REM DISKPART /s %SecondPath%BatchFiles\Make-Partition.txt %SecondPath%imagex.exe /apply %SecondPath%Images\Win7-64b-Ent-Basic-SysPreped.wim 1 o:\ /verify %SecondPath%bcdboot.exe o:\Windows /s S: Copy %SecondPath%Unattended\unattend.XML o:\Windows\System32\sysprep\unattend.XML /y xcopy %SecondPath%Drivers\790\*.* o:\Windows\INF\790\ /E /Q /Y MD o:\Windows\Setup\Scripts\ Copy %SecondPath%BatchFiles\SetupComplete.cmd o:\Windows\Setup\Scripts\ /y Goto Done :Done Exit

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  • PCI-DSS compliance for business with only swipe terminals [migrated]

    - by rowatt
    I support the IT infrastructure for a small retail business which is now required to undergo a PCI-DSS assessment. The payment service and terminal provider (Streamline) has asked that we use Trustwave to do the PCI-DSS certification. The problem I face is that if I answer all questions and follow Trustwave's requirements to the letter, we will have to invest significantly in networking equipment to segment LANs and /or do internal vulnerability scanning, while at the same time Streamline assures me that the terminals we have (Verifone VX670-B and MagIC3 X-8) are secure, don't store any credit card information and are PCI-DSS compliant so by implication we don't need to take any action to ensure their network security. I'm looking for any suggestions as to how we can most easily meet the networking requirements for PCI-DSS. Some background on our current network setup: single wired LAN, also with WiFi turned on (though if this creates any PCI-DSS complexities we can turn it off). single Netgear ADSL router. This is the only firewall we have in place, and the firewall is out the box configuration (i.e. no DMZ, SNMP etc). Passwords have been changed though :-) a few windows PCs and 2 windows based tills, none of which ever see any credit card information at all. two swipe terminals. Until a few months ago (before we were told we had to be PCI-DSS certified) these terminals did auth/capture over the phone. Streamline suggested we moved to their IP Broadband service, which instead uses an SSL encrypted channel over the internet to do auth/capture, so we now use that service. We don't do any ecommerce or receive payments over the internet. All transactions are either cardholder present, or MOTO with details given over phone and typed direct into terminal. We're based in the UK. As I currently understand it we have three options in order to get PCI-DSS certification. segment our network so the POS terminals are isolated from all PCs, and set up internal vulnerability scanning on that network. don't segment the network, and have to do more internal scanning and have more onerous management of PCs than I think we need (for example, though the tills are Windows based, they are fully managed so I have no control over software update policies, anti virus etc). All PCs have anti virus (MSE) and windows updates automatically applied, but we don't have any centralised go back to auth/capture over phone lines. I can't imagine we are the first merchant to be in this situation. I'm looking for any recommendations a simple, cost effective way to be PCI-DSS compliant - either by doing 1 or 2 above with (hopefully) simple and inexpensive equipment/software, or any other ways if there's a better way to do this. Or... should we just go back to the digital stone age and do auth/capture over the phone, which means we don't need to do anything on our network to be PCI-DSS certified?

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  • Subversion/Hudson/Sonar/Artifactory - too much for my little server to handle! Help!

    - by Ricket
    I have a little dedicated server. It's at a cheap price and has a simple AMD 1800+ (1.5ghz), 256mb DDR RAM, ...need I continue? And I think I'm overloading it already. I have installed the following, and it's running CentOS 5.4: Webmin Apache MySQL Subversion as an Apache module Hudson (standalone) Sonar (standalone, runs with a standalone Jetty install) Artifactory (standalone) That's pretty much it. But I'm having problems; pages are loading quite slowly. Network speed of the server is excellent, but I think I'm just running out of CPU and/or memory. A side-effect of the pages loading slowly is that sometimes Hudson times out, not being able to start Maven or contact Sonar in a certain amount of time. I think the next step to speed things up might be to move to an application server and use the WAR version of Hudson, Sonar and Artifactory together on that server. I don't know that it will help, but it just seems to make sense, especially with Sonar running on its own Jetty install and the other two probably running their own mini application servers as well. Am I correct in thinking this? Is this the right course of action? Any other tips on how to make the server run faster? I can post more data if you'd like, just let me know what else would help you answer my question. Oh, also just to cure any suspicions, I don't have any sort of virus or spyware. I protect my SSH access with DenyHosts (which has blocked 300+ brute forcers in the past few months), and I have confirmed that the top four processes in terms of memory and CPU usage are Sonar, Artifactory, Hudson, and MySQL. Edit: I just thought of another thing that I'd like you to comment on as well: Apache currently has 8 spawned slave processes, taking 42MB of ram apiece. This is not my web server. Is everything else able to function if I shut down Apache? Can you point me towards a tutorial or something on migrating Subversion from Apache into something that might work along with the other three applications, maybe even make Subversion a WAR file or something?

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  • Seeking (somewhat) better explanations about supporting > 2.1 TB hard drives.

    - by irrational John
    Today while Googling about I stumbled across posts claiming that Seagate plans to ship a 3TB drive sometime later in 2010. Unfortunately, the stuff I looked at all seemed to contain tidbits of info which I didn't think fit together properly. (I would link to some examples, but I'm only allowed 1 link per post at the moment). Now I really don't have any "need" to better understand the underlying tedious details of this. I am just curious. And confused. So ... some questions I'm hoping someone better informed than I might answer. The talk about a potential addressing problem in both the hardware and the software confused me. The assertion is that something called something called Long LBA addressing (LLBA) is needed in the Command Descriptor Block as a way to get around the current limits to access a hard drive bigger than ~2.1 (or ~2.2?) TB. OK, fine. But I thought the last time this problem came up it was solved by extending the length of the LBA field from 28 to 48 bits. (Remember this website? www.48bitlba.com) A 6 byte LBA is clearly large enough, so what's up with this LLBA talk. I thought this was all fixed back by Win XP SP2, if not sooner? And certainly all the hardware should be up to the task, shouldn't it? The real problem as I understand it with drives much bigger than 2 TB are the 4 byte LBA fields in the Master Boot Record (MBR) used to partition just about all hard drives at the moment. The most likely solution is to migrate to Intel's GUID Partition Table (GPT). A GPT uses 8 byte fields for the LBA. What I don't understand in this context is what is the problem with booting say Windows from a 3TB drive that uses a GPT. Granted, the current PC BIOS wouldn't know how to recognize or work with a GPT. But every GPT comes with a so-called "Safety" or "Guarding" MBR in sector 0.Apple already uses a hybrid version of the MBR to allow them to boot Windows on their Intel Macs (aka Boot Camp). Couldn't something similar be done to allow the PC BIOS to recognize and boot from a partition in, say, the first 1 GB of a 3GB or larger drive? I've got more questions such as where do 4K sectors fit into all of this. But it's probably time I just shut up and posted this. ;-) -irrational john

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  • Problems with Windows XP Plug and Play devices, maybe relating to MSVCR71.dll

    - by Richard
    I believe this question is unanswered as of now so I appologize if I've overlooked it. I have been having trouble some external devices with windows recently and I'm trying my darnedest to get to the bottom of it. At first, my Zero Tension USB mouse would stop working...as in the laser in the bottom of it would be on and would register movement, but the mouse on the screen wouldn't budge even an inch. At first this would happen randomly and then it would correct itself. As time went on, it became more and more frequent. At some point, the computer would make the "doo doo" sound of plugging or unplugging a USB device when the mouse stopped/started working. I dealt with it for a while and usually if I rebooted my machine, the mouse would work again for a day or two. As more time has gone on, the computer fully does not recognize the mouse AT ALL...I have another mouse that I use with the computer that works just fine and cannot seem to figure out why my Zero Tension mouse has failed. I tried plugging the Zero Tension mouse into my Mac and low and behold, it works without hesitation and never stops on me... Needless to say, I am stumped about this. I figured because I had another mouse I could deal with the loss of my fancy one for now...until my speakers stopped being recognized. I have a set of Logitec speakers that I have plugged into my sound card. Again, every now and again the audio devices would cease to be recognized by my computer, but a reboot would fix the problem. Now my speakers do not work at all with my computer and I feel like it's time to ask for help. My computer seems to be having a neural shutdown...where I can plug in devices and the computer doesn't seem to notice anything wrong, but none of the devices work. I hope this doesn't get any worse! Please help! Also, on a potentially (un)related note, when I start up my machine I get the message "This application has failed to start because Msvcp71.dll was not found. Re-installing the application may fix this problem." in reference to qbupdate.exe I don't know if that DLL being messed up has anything to do with my mouse or speakers, but I figure it might...anyway, thanks in advance for an answer and let me know if I need to clarify anything. Let me sum up: Zero Tension Mouse gradually stopped working Logitec Speakers gradually stopped working MSVCR71.dll seems to be messed up I don't know if any of those are related but any help would be much appreciated

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  • How Do I Restrict Repository Access via WebSVN?

    - by kaybenleroll
    I have multiple subversion repositories which are served up through Apache 2.2 and WebDAV. They are all located in a central place, and I used this debian-administration.org article as the basis (I dropped the use of the database authentication for a simple htpasswd file though). Since then, I have also started using WebSVN. My issue is that not all users on the system should be able to access the different repositories, and the default setup of WebSVN is to allow anyone who can authenticate. According to the WebSVN documentation, the best way around this is to use subversion's path access system, so I looked to create this, using the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. When I do this though, I keep getting "403 Forbidden" messages. My files look like the following: I have default policy settings in a file: <Location /svn/> DAV svn SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository Order deny,allow Deny from all </Location> Each repository gets a policy file like below: <Location /svn/sysadmin/> Include /var/lib/svn/conf/default_auth.conf AuthName "Repository for sysadmin" require user joebloggs jimsmith mickmurphy </Location> The default_auth.conf file contains this: SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository AuthType basic AuthUserFile /var/lib/svn/conf/.dav_svn.passwd AuthzSVNAccessFile /var/lib/svn/conf/svnaccess.conf I am not fully sure why I need the second SVNParentPath in default_auth.conf, but I just added that today as I was getting error messages as a result of adding the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. With a totally permissive access file [/] joebloggs = rw the system worked fine (and was essentially unchanged), but as I soon as I start trying to add any kind of restrictions such as [sysadmin:/] joebloggs = rw instead, I get the 'Permission denied' errors again. The log file entries are: [Thu May 28 10:40:17 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET websvn:/ [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET svn:/sysadmin What do I need to do to get this to work? Have configured apache wrong, or is my understanding of the svnaccess.conf file incorrect? If I am going about this the wrong way, I have no particular attachment to my overall approach, so feel free to offer alternatives as well. UPDATE (20090528-1600): I attempted to implement this answer, but I still cannot get it to work properly. I know most of the configuration is correct, as I have added [/] joebloggs = rw at the start and 'joebloggs' then has all the correct access. When I try to go repository-specific though, doing something like [/] joebloggs = rw [sysadmin:/] mickmurphy = rw then I got a permission denied error for mickmurphy (joebloggs still works), with an error similar to what I already had previously [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'mickmurphy' GET svn:/sysadmin Also, I forgot to explain previously that all my repositories are underneath /var/lib/svn/repository UPDATE (20090529-1245): Still no luck getting this to work, but all the signs seem to be pointing to the issue being with path-access control in subversion not working properly. My assumption is that I have not conf

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  • apache sendmail: trying to change user "from" address from apache to domain account

    - by Wes
    I apologize if I am asking a question already answered, but my problem isn't really that I haven't found an answer. I have, in fact, found a half-dozen different "solutions" to my problem, tried them all, in various combinations, and have been consistently unsuccessful. The goal All I want to do is change the envelope "from" address for all email sent from [email protected] to [email protected], always. What I've already done I am running Apache, PHP, and sendmail on CentOS 5.5, [email protected]. We have an SMTP server at 192.168.0.4. The domain's email accounts are all at @domain.org. I have successfully set up "smart host" using this line in the sendmail.mc file: define(`SMART_HOST', `192.168.0.4')dnl Then I set up masquerading, and was hopeful this would solve it. I have this in the .mc file: FEATURE(`masquerade_entire_domain')dnl FEATURE(`masquerade_envelope')dnl FEATURE(`allmasquerade')dnl MASQUERADE_AS(`domain.org')dnl MASQUERADE_DOMAIN(`domain.org.')dnl MASQUERADE_DOMAIN(`localhost.localdomain.')dnl This rewrites "to" addresses, but not "from" addresses. Testing from the command line: sendmail -v [email protected] Always is shown from the local user (in this case root, or my local user account). I had read that "sendmail" command sometimes bypasses masquerading. Nevertheless, using the "mail" command has the same result. After that, I have explored several "solutions", including: mailertable virtusertable FEATURE(`accept_unresolvable_domains')dnl LOCAL_DOMAIN(`localhost.localdomain')dnl FEATURE(`genericstable')dnl /etc/mail/access file /etc/mail/local-host-names file /etc/mail/trusted-users file All to no affect. The last thing I've tried So, I decided to go in a different direction, and try to set the envelope "from" address via PHP, using either the configuration in /etc/php.ini, or adding the -f parameter to the mail() function or to sendmail command. If I run this command: sendmail -v -f [email protected] [email protected] I get this error in /var/log/maillog: Mar 30 08:56:16 localhost sendmail[24022]: p2UCuE8w024022: [email protected], size=5, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, relay=user@localhost Mar 30 08:56:19 localhost sendmail[24022]: p2UCuE8w024022: [email protected], [email protected] (500/502), delay=00:00:05, xdelay=00:00:03, mailer=relay, pri=30005, relay=[192.168.0.4] [192.168.0.4], dsn=5.1.1, stat=User unknown Mar 30 08:56:19 localhost sendmail[24022]: p2UCuE8w024022: p2UCuE8x024022: DSN: User unknown Mar 30 08:56:23 localhost sendmail[24022]: p2UCuE8x024022: [email protected], delay=00:00:04, xdelay=00:00:04, mailer=relay, pri=31029, relay=[192.168.0.4] [192.168.0.4], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (Ok: queued as B5E2E40E0A2) Which is basically a "User unknown" 550 error. Help Please help. What do I need to change? Should I just start over in the sendmail.mc file? It has a ton of config options stuffed in it, over days of trying things. Why is changing the envelope "from" address via the command line generating a "User unknown" error?

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  • How to setup ssh's umask for all type of connections

    - by Unode
    I've been searching for a way to setup OpenSSH's umask to 0027 in a consistent way across all connection types. By connection types I'm referring to: sftp scp ssh hostname ssh hostname program The difference between 3. and 4. is that the former starts a shell which usually reads the /etc/profile information while the latter doesn't. In addition by reading this post I've became aware of the -u option that is present in newer versions of OpenSSH. However this doesn't work. I must also add that /etc/profile now includes umask 0027. Going point by point: sftp - Setting -u 0027 in sshd_config as mentioned here, is not enough. If I don't set this parameter, sftp uses by default umask 0022. This means that if I have the two files: -rwxrwxrwx 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 execute -rw-rw-rw- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 read-write When I use sftp to put them in the destination machine I actually get: -rwxr-xr-x 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 execute -rw-r--r-- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 read-write However when I set -u 0027 on sshd_config of the destination machine I actually get: -rwxr--r-- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 execute -rw-r--r-- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 read-write which is not expected, since it should actually be: -rwxr-x--- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 execute -rw-r----- 1 user user 0 2011-01-29 02:04 read-write Anyone understands why this happens? scp - Independently of what is setup for sftp, permissions are always umask 0022. I currently have no idea how to alter this. ssh hostname - no problem here since the shell reads /etc/profile by default which means umask 0027 in the current setup. ssh hostname program - same situation as scp. In sum, setting umask on sftp alters the result but not as it should, ssh hostname works as expected reading /etc/profile and both scp and ssh hostname program seem to have umask 0022 hardcoded somewhere. Any insight on any of the above points is welcome. EDIT: I would like to avoid patches that require manually compiling openssh. The system is running Ubuntu Server 10.04.01 (lucid) LTS with openssh packages from maverick. Answer: As indicated by poige, using pam_umask did the trick. The exact changes were: Lines added to /etc/pam.d/sshd: # Setting UMASK for all ssh based connections (ssh, sftp, scp) session optional pam_umask.so umask=0027 Also, in order to affect all login shells regardless of if they source /etc/profile or not, the same lines were also added to /etc/pam.d/login. EDIT: After some of the comments I retested this issue. At least in Ubuntu (where I tested) it seems that if the user has a different umask set in their shell's init files (.bashrc, .zshrc,...), the PAM umask is ignored and the user defined umask used instead. Changes in /etc/profile did't affect the outcome unless the user explicitly sources those changes in the init files. It is unclear at this point if this behavior happens in all distros.

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  • Hot-swap drive got new name, can I change it on-the-fly?

    - by T.J. Crowder
    One of the HDDs in my server's RAID config failed, so I took it out of the array and had the data center hot-swap it. They've done that, but now the new drive is /dev/sdc rather than /dev/sda. I suspect — correct me if I'm wrong — that if I reboot the server, it will be /dev/sda again, so I'm hesitant to add it back to the array as /dev/sdc because I don't want to lay a trap for myself to fall into on the next reboot. I'd just as soon not reboot the server if I don't need to (if I do need to, well, too bad for me). Is there a way I can change the device name from /dev/sdc to /dev/sda without rebooting? This is on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS. It's an md array ("Linux Software RAID"), where currently one of the devices (there are a couple of them) looks like this ("degraded" because I've removed the old /dev/sda from it): # mdadm --detail /dev/md0 /dev/md0: Version : 00.90.03 Creation Time : Sun Oct 11 21:07:54 2009 Raid Level : raid1 Array Size : 97536 (95.27 MiB 99.88 MB) Used Dev Size : 97536 (95.27 MiB 99.88 MB) Raid Devices : 2 Total Devices : 1 Preferred Minor : 0 Persistence : Superblock is persistent Update Time : Thu Jun 30 09:31:16 2011 State : clean, degraded Active Devices : 1 Working Devices : 1 Failed Devices : 0 Spare Devices : 0 UUID : 496be7a5:ab9177ed:7792c71e:7dc17aa4 Events : 0.112 Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 0 8 17 0 active sync /dev/sdb1 1 0 0 1 removed Thanks, Update: Reading through the kernel md documentation, I suspect that if the name changes on reboot, it won't matter. (Good design, that.) Here's why: Boot time autodetection of RAID arrays When md is compiled into the kernel (not as module), partitions of type 0xfd are scanned and automatically assembled into RAID arrays. This autodetection may be suppressed with the kernel parameter "raid=noautodetect". As of kernel 2.6.9, only drives with a type 0 superblock can be autodetected and run at boot time. The kernel parameter "raid=partitionable" (or "raid=part") means that all auto-detected arrays are assembled as partitionable. I do have md compiled into the kernel, so I'm rebuilding the array now and will do the reboot to see what happens. Even if it works, the above doesn't answer the question I actually asked, so unless someone comes along and answers that question in the meantime (I'd be interested, even if it's not necessary for what I'm doing this very moment), I'll just delete the question to keep noise down.

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  • SSH Socks Proxy wiith iptables REDIRECT

    - by Radium
    I have googled and haven`t found the answer on my question. Help me please. There are two servers: serverA with public IP 12.0.0.10 and an private IP 10.0.0.5 serverB with public IP 20.0.0.11 I have setup SOCKS proxy on serverB to serverA: ssh -D20.0.0.11:2222 [email protected] So when on my local machine in a browser i specify SOCKS proxy 20.0.0.11:2222 (serverB:2222) as external IP while browsing i get 12.0.0.10 (serverA IP). That is ok. As well if i go onto http://10.0.0.5 (serverA private IP) it is also reachable. That is what i need. I want to make servers A private IP to be available through servers B public IP on certain ports but without specifying SOCKS in my browser. I could use ssh port forward but the problem is - i need to forward many ports and do not know which exactly - i know only the range. So when i connect to 20.0.0.11 to any port , for example, from 3000:4000 range, i want that traffic to be redirected to 10.0.0.5 on the same port. That is why i`ve decided maybe SOCKS proxy via SSH and iptables REDIRECT could help me. Client - serverBPublicIP (any port from range 3000:4000) - serverAPublicIP - serverAPrivateIP (the port was requested on serverBPublicIP) On serverB i do: ssh -D20.0.0.11:2222 [email protected] iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -d 20.0.0.11 -p tcp --dport 3000:4000 -j REDIRECT --to-port 2222 But that does not work - when i telnet on 20.0.0.11:3001 for example i do not see any proxied traffic on the serverA. What should i do else? I have tried tcpsocks like this (in example i am telneting to 20.0.0.11:3001) Client -> 20.0.0.11:3001 -> iptables REDIRECT from 3001 --to-port 1111 -> tcpsocks from 1111 to 2222 -> SOCKS proxy from serverB to serverA on port 2222 -> serverA But i do not know what to do with the traffic on serverA. How to route it to its private IP. Help me please. I know, VPN removes all the hell i am trying to create, but i have no ability to use tun/tap device. It is disabled.

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  • Troubleshooting an NFS server hanging after authenticated mount request

    - by Christoph
    I need some advice on troubleshooting an NFS server problem on Scientific Linux (RHEL) 6.1. The log on the server shows that an authenticated mount request was made: Jan 13 16:30:02 ??? rpc.mountd[3996]: authenticated mount request from ????:784 for /shared-storage/cm/shared (/shared-storage/cm/shared) But after that, it does not continue. On the client, it is also hanging. The interesting thing now is that I have two NFS servers, which should be identical, and the one is working perfectly, but the other exhibits the above mentioned behaviour. The problem is also not completely persistent, i. e. sometimes the mount request succeeds. I assume that the problem must be related to the server rather than to the client, because it is working perfectly on the other server. My question is where I should search the problem. I have already re-created the exports using exportfs -r, I have restarted the NFS server, I have compared the rpcinfo outputs of both server - no success. The problem even survives a reboot. Any other ideas are appreciated. As answer to Tim's question: I have sporadically the following in dmesg, but do not know whether it is related e1000e 0000:0c:00.0: eth4: Detected Hardware Unit Hang: TDH <24> TDT <25> next_to_use <25> next_to_clean <24> buffer_info[next_to_clean]: time_stamp <1c3d12940> next_to_watch <24> jiffies <1c3d12940> next_to_watch.status <0> MAC Status <80383> PHY Status <792d> PHY 1000BASE-T Status <7800> PHY Extended Status <3000> PCI Status <10> Further edit: The problem above does not occur on the machine that is working, so it probably is related. Again an edit: The error is not on the (software) device that is used for NFS, but on another one. The NFS mount also does not trigger the message.

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  • Is it possible to change an "Unidentified Network" into a "Home" or "Work" network on Windows 7

    - by Rhys
    I have a problem with Windows 7 RC (7100). I frequently use a crossover network cable on WinXP with static IP addresses to connect to various industrial devices (e.g. robots, pumps, valves or even other Windows PCs) that have Ethernet network ports. When I do this on Windows 7, the network connection is classed as an "Unidentified Network" in Networks and Sharing Center and the public firewall profile is enforced by Windows. I do not want to change the public profile and would prefer to use the Home or Work profile instead. For other networks like Home and Work I'm able to click on them and change the classification. This is not available for unidentified networks. My questions are these:- Is there a way to manual override the "Unidentified Network" classification? What tests are performed on the network that fail, therefore classifying it as an "Unidentified Network" By googling (hitting mainly vista issues) it seems that you need to ensure that the default gateway is not 0.0.0.0. I've done this. I've also tried to remove IPv6 but this does not seem possible on Windows 7. UPDATE For those still having problems here is the answer to my issue and the possible reasons why:- Win7 keeps a list of the networks you visit by (I am assuming, but don’t know for sure) the MACID of the device pointed to by the Default Gateway. The default gateway is usually the constant device in a network (i.e. the NAT or router) so can be used to uniquely identify one network from another. The default gateway in the IPv4 properties panel must therefore point to an actual endpoint so windows can then keep track of it. If there is a device at the end of the Default Gateway windows will identify it and track it remembering its settings. The ways you can therefore fool Win7 is to either point the default gateway to your own IP address, or the IP address of the target device you’re communicating with. This will have the side effect of expecting that target device to start routing packets for IP destinations that are outside your subnet. So some applications on Win7 will try to communicate with the internet, these will be passed on to the default gateway (either back you the same IP address or a target device that is not a router) and thus will eventually timeout because neither can route packets. Which you can usually live with. This gets slightly complicated when you mix a this type of connection with a real connection to the internet via WIFI. The wired network card usually has priority when routing because of the “interface metric” so some applications might not connect correctly.

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  • Searching For a Desktop Security Software to harden Windows machines, anybody?

    - by MosheH
    I'm a network administrator of a small/medium network. I'm looking for a software (Free or Not) which can harden Windows Computers (XP And Win7) for the propose of hardening standalone desktop computers (not in domain network). Note: The computers are completely isolated (standalone), so i can't use active directory group policy. moreover, there are too many restriction that i need to apply, so it is not particle to set it up manual (one by one). Basically what I’m looking for is a software that can restrict and disable access for specific user accounts on the system. For Example: User john can only open one application and nothing else -- He don’t see no icon on the desktop or start menu, except for one or two applications which i want to allow. He can't Right click on the desktop, the task-bar icons are not shown, there is no folder options, etc... User marry can open a specific application and copy data to one folder on D drive. User Dan, have access to all drives but cannot install software, and so on... So far ,I've found only the following solutions, but they all seems to miss one or more feature: Desktop restriction Software 1. Faronics WINSelect The application seems to answer most of our needs except one feature which is very important to us but seems to be missing from WINSelect, which is "restriction per profile". WINSelect only allow to set up restrictions which are applied system-wide. If I have multiple user accounts on the system and want to apply different restrictions for each user, I cant. Deskman (No Restriction per user)- Same thing, no restriction per profile. Desktop Security Rx - not relevant, No Win7 Support. The only software that I've found which is offering a restriction per profile is " 1st Security Agent ". but its GUI is very complicated and not very intuitive. It's worth to mention that I'm not looking for "Internet Kiosk software" although they share some features with the one I need. All I need is a software (like http://www.faronics.com/standard/winselect/) that is offering a way to restrict Windows user interface. So if anybody know an Hardening software which allows to set-up user restrictions on Windows systems, It will be a big, big, big help for me! Thanks to you all

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  • mac + parallels and https site test = router restarts

    - by Erik
    Ok I have an interesting & very frustrating problem happening. I'm going to explain it the best I can. I work as a graphic designer & web designer on a mac and have a Comcast internet connection that comes through a Comcast branded router (SMC8014) which then ties into an Airport Extreme Base Station which runs my office network. I run OS 10.5.7 and also run Parallels 4.0.3 (running Windows XP) for testing websites in Internet Explorer and so on. Ok, so that the basic background. Here's my issue. I've been collaborating an ecommerce website with another designer/developer and when testing the site on the PC side we have started to run into some sort of network problem. The site is https if that matters at all I suspect it may. Basically when I run parallels for testing I am constantly having to restart the router in order to connect to the test site (it's hosted). Funny thing is I can access the rest of the internet fine, just not this site I'm working on until I restart the router (It's sorta like the site is timing out). This never happens when just running the Mac side of things. It only becomes an issue when Parallels is open and I am doing page refreshes while making css or HTML edits via something like Coda or CSS edit (connected to the hosting server via ftp). The real problem is that once the problem starts I only get about 2 or 3 page loads before I have to restart the router again. It's absolutely crippling. I cannot get any work done when I have to restart the router every couple of minutes. So, if you think this problem is isolated to me, the answer is no. The designer/developer I'm collaborating with has an office a couple miles away and experiences very similar problems under slightly different setup. He also has Comcast as his internet provider and connects his router to an Airport and primarily works on a mac. The main difference is that rather than using a visualizer like parallels to test the website on the PC he uses a real live PC that is on his network. Once he fire up the PC to do testing he runs into the same issue described above. After a couple of page refreshes in Internet Explorer or other browser on the PC the site becomes unresponsive and the router has to get restarted. Any thoughts on what is going on here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • libreadline history lines combine

    - by jettero
    This has been driving me crazy for about three years. I don't know how to fully describe the problem, but I think I can finally describe a way to recreate it. Your milage may vary. I have a mixture of ubuntu server and desktop machines of various versions and a few gentoo machines with various states of disrepair. They all seem to kindof do their own thing, although with similarities. Try this and let me know if you see the same thing. pop open two xterms (TERM=xterm) resize one so they're not the same issue screen -R test1 in one (TERM=screen) and screen -x test1 in the other hooray, typing in one shows up in the other; although notice that their different size produces artifacts and things issue a couple commands in your shell hit ^AF in the one that doesn't fit quite right, now it fits!! scroll back over the history a little goto 6 Eventually you'll notice a couple history lines combine. If you don't, then it's something unique to my setup, which spans various distributions and computers; so that's a confusing concept to me. If you see the thing I'm seeing then this: bash$ ls -al bash$ ps auxfw becomes this: bash$ ls -al; ps auxfw It doesn't happen every time. I have to really play with it — unless I don't want it to happen, then it always does. On some systems (or combinations), I get a line separator like the example above. On some systems, I do not. That I get the line separator on some systems seems to indicate to me that bash supports this behavior. Its history is entirely handled by libreadline and after perusing (ie, carefully reading) the man pages, I couldn't find a single readline setting for combining two history lines. Nor can I find anything in the bash manpage. So, how can I invoke this on purpose? Or, if I can't do that, how can I disable it completely? I would take either answer as a solution. Currently, I only see it when I don't want it.

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  • Internet Explorer cannot display page from apache with single SSL virtual host

    - by P.scheit
    I have a question that has come up somehow in different questions but I still can't find the solution, yet. My problem is that I'm hosting a site on apache 2.4 on debian with SSL and Internet Explorer 7 on windows xp shows Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage I have only ONE virtual host that uses ssl, but DIFFERENT virtual hosts that use http. Here is my config for the site with SSL enabled (etc/sites-avaible/default-ssl is NOT linked) <Virtualhost xx.yyy.86.193:443> ServerName www.my-certified-domain.de ServerAlias my-certified-domain.de DocumentRoot "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/www" Alias /files "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/files" CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.my-certified-domain.de.log combined <Directory "/var/local/www/my-certified-domain.de/current/www"> AllowOverride All </Directory> SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/www.my-certified-domain.de.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssl/private/www.my-certified-domain.de.key SSLCipherSuite HIGH:MEDIUM:!aNULL:+SHA1:+MD5:+HIGH:+MEDIUM SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/apache2/ssl.crt/www.my-certified-domain.de.ca BrowserMatch "MSIE [2-8]" nokeepalive downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.my-certified-domain.de ServerAlias my-certified-domain.de CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.my-certified-domain.de.log combined Redirect permanent / https://www.my-certified-domain.de/ </VirtualHost> my ports.conf looks like this: NameVirtualHost *:80 Listen 80 <IfModule mod_ssl.c> # If you add NameVirtualHost *:443 here, you will also have to change # the VirtualHost statement in /etc/apache2/sites-available/default-ssl # to <VirtualHost *:443> # Server Name Indication for SSL named virtual hosts is currently not # supported by MSIE on Windows XP. Listen 443 </IfModule> <IfModule mod_gnutls.c> Listen 443 </IfModule> the output from apache2ctl -S is like this: xx.yyy.86.193:443 www.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/020-my-certified-domain.de:1) wildcard NameVirtualHosts and _default_ servers: *:80 is a NameVirtualHost default server phpmyadmin.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/conf.d/phpmyadmin.conf:3) port 80 namevhost phpmyadmin.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/conf.d/phpmyadmin.conf:3) port 80 namevhost staging.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/010-staging.my-certified-domain.de:1) port 80 namevhost testing.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/015-testing.my-certified-domain.de:1) port 80 namevhost www.my-certified-domain.de (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/020-my-certified-domain.de:31) I included the solution for this question: Internet explorer cannot display the page, other browsers can, possibly htaccess / server error And I understand the answer from this question: How to setup Apache NameVirtualHost on SSL? In fakt: I only have one ssl certificate for the domain. And I only want to run ONE virtual host with ssl. So I just want to use the one ip for the ssl virtual host. But still (after rebooting / restarting / testing) internet explorer will still not show the page. When I intepret the apachectl -S as well, I already have only one SSL host and this should response to the initial SSH handshake, shouldn't it? What is wrong in this setup? Thank you so much Philipp

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  • Raid1 with active and spare partition

    - by Daniel Baron
    I am having the following problem with a RAID1 software raid partition on my Ubuntu system (10.04 LTS, 2.6.32-24-server in case it matters). One of my disks (sdb5) reported I/O errors and was therefore marked faulty in the array. The array was then degraded with one active device. Hence, I replaced the harddisk, cloned the partition table and added all new partitions to my raid arrays. After syncing all partitions ended up fine, having 2 active devices - except one of them. The partition which reported the faulty disk before, however, did not include the new partition as an active device but as a spare disk: md3 : active raid1 sdb5[2] sda5[1] 4881344 blocks [2/1] [_U] A detailed look reveals: root@server:~# mdadm --detail /dev/md3 [...] Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 2 8 21 0 spare rebuilding /dev/sdb5 1 8 5 1 active sync /dev/sda5 So here is the question: How do I tell my raid to turn the spare disk into an active one? And why has it been added as a spare device? Recreating or reassembling the array is not an option, because it is my root partition. And I can not find any hints to that subject in the Software Raid HOWTO. Any help would be appreciated. Current Solution I found a solution to my problem, but I am not sure that this is the actual way to do it. Having a closer look at my raid I found that sdb5 was always listed as a spare device: mdadm --examine /dev/sdb5 [...] Number Major Minor RaidDevice State this 2 8 21 2 spare /dev/sdb5 0 0 0 0 0 removed 1 1 8 5 1 active sync /dev/sda5 2 2 8 21 2 spare /dev/sdb5 so readding the device sdb5 to the array md3 always ended up in adding the device as a spare. Finally I just recreated the array mdadm --create /dev/md3 --level=1 -n2 -x0 /dev/sda5 /dev/sdb5 which worked. But the question remains open for me: Is there a better way to manipulate the summaries in the superblock and to tell the array to turn sdb5 from a spare disk to an active disk? I am still curious for an answer.

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  • Switch flooding when bonding interfaces in Linux

    - by John Philips
    +--------+ | Host A | +----+---+ | eth0 (AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA) | | +----+-----+ | Switch 1 | (layer2/3) +----+-----+ | +----+-----+ | Switch 2 | +----+-----+ | +----------+----------+ +-------------------------+ Switch 3 +-------------------------+ | +----+-----------+----+ | | | | | | | | | | eth0 (B0:B0:B0:B0:B0:B0) | | eth4 (B4:B4:B4:B4:B4:B4) | | +----+-----------+----+ | | | Host B | | | +----+-----------+----+ | | eth1 (B1:B1:B1:B1:B1:B1) | | eth5 (B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5) | | | | | | | | | +------------------------------+ +------------------------------+ Topology overview Host A has a single NIC. Host B has four NICs which are bonded using the balance-alb mode. Both hosts run RHEL 6.0, and both are on the same IPv4 subnet. Traffic analysis Host A is sending data to Host B using some SQL database application. Traffic from Host A to Host B: The source int/MAC is eth0/AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA, the destination int/MAC is eth5/B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5. Traffic from Host B to Host A: The source int/MAC is eth0/B0:B0:B0:B0:B0:B0, the destination int/MAC is eth0/AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA. Once the TCP connection has been established, Host B sends no further frames out eth5. The MAC address of eth5 expires from the bridge tables of both Switch 1 & Switch 2. Switch 1 continues to receive frames from Host A which are destined for B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5. Because Switch 1 and Switch 2 no longer have bridge table entries for B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5, they flood the frames out all ports on the same VLAN (except for the one it came in on, of course). Reproduce If you ping Host B from a workstation which is connected to either Switch 1 or 2, B5:B5:B5:B5:B5:B5 re-enters the bridge tables and the flooding stops. After five minutes (the default bridge table timeout), flooding resumes. Question It is clear that on Host B, frames arrive on eth5 and exit out eth0. This seems ok as that's what the Linux bonding algorithm is designed to do - balance incoming and outgoing traffic. But since the switch stops receiving frames with the source MAC of eth5, it gets timed out of the bridge table, resulting in flooding. Is this normal? Why aren't any more frames originating from eth5? Is it because there is simply no other traffic going on (the only connection is a single large data transfer from Host A)? I've researched this for a long time and haven't found an answer. Documentation states that no switch changes are necessary when using mode 6 of the Linux interface bonding (balance-alb). Is this behavior occurring because Host B doesn't send any further packets out of eth5, whereas in normal circumstances it's expected that it would? One solution is to setup a cron job which pings Host B to keep the bridge table entries from timing out, but that seems like a dirty hack.

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  • Mysql Servers for Attendance System

    - by foo
    I'm building an attendance system. There are about 20 places where people will check in and check out using Mifare 1K Card. It will use MySQL as the database. The system will display something like "#ID IN: 800AM" when the first time the user checks in and "#ID OUT: 400PM" when the user checks out. For this to work, all the databases need to be synchronized with each other all the times. For an example, if user A went to location #1 to check in but by the time he wants to return home, the server at location #1 went down, he needs to go to location #2 or the nearest server to check out. The server at location #2 should display '#ID OUT: 400PM" and not "#ID IN: 400PM" since he's already checked in. So, what should I use to ensure this idea will work? My main concern is with the network (other department manages it) which is very unpredictable. It just love to go down anytime it wants to. Update LOL, didn't realize my question is not clear, just noticed it when you guys pointed it out, sorry about that. My real question is, how can I configure my MySQL to be synchronized with each other (20 servers)? MySQL cluster ? (tried reading about it, but I'm not sure if it's the right thing to do) My current setup (first phase): Local database for each server OS: Slackware A main server that keeps track which staff is at which server A web based front end for the user to see their history (which connects to the server based on their records) Main Pros No worries about network problems since it is a local database Main Cons A user can only check in and out at the same server. Databases/Servers are not connected with each others. Have to add the user to each server if the users want to check in at different locations. Which means, if he wants to go to location A, he must be checked out from location A first and then check in at location B. The server at location B didn't know that the user has checked in before at A. By the way, I've already centralized my NTP to a local server. About the network, let's just say, I don't have the authority to make changes so that the network will be better. The network won't effect all 20 servers at once, usually, just a few of them for several times a week. If there are anything else you would like me to answer, please just ask.

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  • Rebasing a branch which is public

    - by Dror
    I'm failing to understand how to use git-rebase, and I consider the following example. Let's start a repository in ~/tmp/repo: $ git init Then add a file foo $ echo "hello world" > foo which is then added and committed: $ git add foo $ git commit -m "Added foo" Next, I started a remote repository. In ~/tmp/bare.git I ran $ git init --bare In order to link repo to bare.git I ran $ git remote add origin ../bare.git/ $ git push --set-upstream origin master Next, lets branch, add a file and set an upstream for the new branch b1: $ git checkout -b b1 $ echo "bar" > foo2 $ git add foo2 $ git commit -m "add foo2 in b1" $ git push --set-upstream origin b1 Now it is time to switch back to master and change something there: $ echo "change foo" > foo $ git commit -a -m "changed foo in master" $ git push At this point in master the file foo contain changed foo, while in b1 it is still hello world. Finally, I want to sync b1 with the progress made in master. $ git checkout b1 $ git fetch origin $ git rebase origin/master At this point git st returns: # On branch b1 # Your branch and 'origin/b1' have diverged, # and have 2 and 1 different commit each, respectively. # (use "git pull" to merge the remote branch into yours) # nothing to commit, working directory clean At this point the content of foo in the branch b1 is change foo as well. So what does this warning mean? I expected I should do a git push, git suggests to do git pull... According to this answer, this is more or less it, and in his comment @FrerichRaabe explicitly say that I don't need to do a pull. What's going on here? What is the danger, how should one proceed? How should the history be kept consistent? What is the interplay between the case described above and the following citation: Do not rebase commits that you have pushed to a public repository. taken from pro git book. I guess it is somehow related, and if not I would love to know why. What's the relation between the above scenario and the procedure I described in this post.

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  • force unattended install php apt debian squeeze

    - by user1258619
    i am trying to do an unattended install via php for several packages but every time when the dependencies come up it aborts instead of forcing the answer to be yes. (i have broken apt a few times...) each time though i start off re-imaging my vps(testing server) so there isn't an issue of something still being hung or crashed.can someone tell me what i am doing wrong? keep in mind this is the 12th version of this script to get nowhere. fwrite(STDOUT, "Root Password:\n"); $root_pass = chop(fgets(STDIN)); $file_apt = '/etc/apt/apt.conf.d/70debconf'; // Open the file to get existing content $current_apt = file_get_contents($file_apt); // Append a new person to the file $current_apt .= "Dpkg::Options {\"--force-confold\";};\n"; // Write the contents back to the file file_put_contents($file_apt, $current_apt); $update = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive sudo -S apt-get update'); echo $update; $update_upgrade = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive sudo -s apt-get upgrade'); echo $update_upgrade; $install_unattended_mysql = shell_exec('echo '.$root_pass.' | DEBIAN_FRONTEND=noninteractive apt-get install --yes --force-yes mysql-server'); echo $install_unattended_mysql; $install_mysql_set_password = shell_exec('mysql -u root -e "UPDATE mysql.user SET password=PASSWORD("'.$root_pass.'") WHERE user="root"; FLUSH PRIVILEGES;'); echo $install_mysql_set_password; i have read a few places that i needed to edit the apt.conf file so i am doing so here and doing an update and an upgrade. also the upgrade does abort when it actually has to install something. The following packages will be upgraded: apache2 apache2-doc apache2-mpm-prefork apache2-utils apache2.2-bin apache2.2-common base-files bind9 bind9-host bind9utils debian-archive-keyring dpkg dselect libbind9-60 libc-bin libc6 libdns69 libisc62 libisccc60 libisccfg62 liblwres60 locales 22 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 0 not upgraded. Need to get 18.4 MB of archives. After this operation, 8192 B of additional disk space will be used. Do you want to continue [Y/n]? Abort. I also should note that only a few pieces of software are going to be installed from the apt repo's as i will include some binaries to go along with it.

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  • lshw tells me my processor is a 64 bits but my motherboard has a 32 bits width

    - by bpetit
    Recently I noticed lshw tells me a strange thing. Here is the first part of my lshw output: bpetit-1025c description: Notebook product: 1025C (1025C) vendor: ASUSTeK COMPUTER INC. version: x.x serial: C3OAAS000774 width: 32 bits capabilities: smbios-2.7 dmi-2.7 smp-1.4 smp configuration: boot=normal chassis=notebook cpus=2 family=Eee PC... *-core description: Motherboard product: 1025C vendor: ASUSTeK COMPUTER INC. physical id: 0 version: x.xx serial: EeePC-0123456789 slot: To be filled by O.E.M. *-firmware description: BIOS vendor: American Megatrends Inc. physical id: 0 version: 1025C.0701 date: 01/06/2012 size: 64KiB capacity: 1984KiB capabilities: pci upgrade shadowing cdboot bootselect socketedrom edd... *-cpu:0 description: CPU product: Intel(R) Atom(TM) CPU N2800 @ 1.86GHz vendor: Intel Corp. physical id: 4 bus info: cpu@0 version: 6.6.1 serial: 0003-0661-0000-0000-0000-0000 slot: CPU 1 size: 798MHz capacity: 1865MHz width: 64 bits clock: 533MHz capabilities: x86-64 boot fpu fpu_exception wp vme de pse tsc ... configuration: cores=2 enabledcores=1 id=2 threads=2 *-cache:0 description: L1 cache physical id: 5 slot: L1-Cache size: 24KiB capacity: 24KiB capabilities: internal write-back unified *-cache:1 description: L2 cache physical id: 6 slot: L2-Cache size: 512KiB capacity: 512KiB capabilities: internal varies unified *-logicalcpu:0 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.1 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:1 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.2 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:2 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.3 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:3 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.4 width: 64 bits capabilities: logical *-memory description: System Memory physical id: 13 slot: System board or motherboard size: 2GiB *-bank:0 description: SODIMM [empty] product: [Empty] vendor: [Empty] physical id: 0 serial: [Empty] slot: DIMM0 *-bank:1 description: SODIMM DDR3 Synchronous 1066 MHz (0.9 ns) product: SSZ3128M8-EAEEF vendor: Xicor physical id: 1 serial: 00000004 slot: DIMM1 size: 2GiB width: 64 bits clock: 1066MHz (0.9ns) *-cpu:1 physical id: 1 bus info: cpu@1 version: 6.6.1 serial: 0003-0661-0000-0000-0000-0000 size: 798MHz capacity: 798MHz capabilities: ht cpufreq configuration: id=2 *-logicalcpu:0 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.1 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:1 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.2 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:2 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.3 capabilities: logical *-logicalcpu:3 description: Logical CPU physical id: 2.4 capabilities: logical So here I see my processor is effectively a 64 bits one. However, I'm wondering how my motherboard can have a "32 bits width". I've browsed the web to find an answer, without success. I imagine it's just a technical fact that I don't know about. Thanks.

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  • Installing and configuring Zend Framework 2 server-wide [Ubuntu] and test driving ZendSkeletonApplication

    - by kinologik
    I'm trying to have ZF2 installed for all my subdomains at once (Ubuntu 12.04). ZF2 just launched its first stable version, so I wanted to install it on my development server and finally get my hands dirty with it. I downloaded ZF2 and unzipped the files in /var/ZF2/ (which now contains Zend/[all components]). I then edited /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini and added the path to the ZF2 files: include_path = ".:/var/ZF2" I then downloaded the ZendSkeletonApplication and unzipped it in /var/www/skeleton. I know it is suggested to composer.phar to install ZF2 application, but: I don't want to make a local installation of ZF2... I want to make a server-wide installation be able to use my Zend components on all my domains/subdomains on my development server. Before using any automatic installation process, I'd really like to understand that process by doing it manually at first. Obviously, something goes wrong when I fire ZendSkeletonApplication, and I get the following when hit the following URL: http://www.myDevServer.com/skeleton/public/ Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'RuntimeException' with message 'Unable to load ZF2. Run `php composer.phar install` or define a ZF2_PATH environment variable.' in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php:48 Stack trace: #0 /var/www/skeleton/public/index.php(9): include() #1 {main} thrown in /var/www/skeleton/init_autoloader.php on line 48 I have skimmed through the docs, tutorials and the like, but there are no straight forward answer to this kind of configuration. In the official doc, in the (very short) installation chapter, I see a reference to adding an include path in PHP. But no example... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/ref/installation.html Once you have a copy of Zend Framework available, your application needs to be able to access the framework classes found in the library folder. Though there are several ways to achieve this, your PHP include_path needs to contain the path to Zend Framework’s library. But then, when I get to the "Getting Started" chapter, it's all composer.phar and nothing else... http://zf2.readthedocs.org/en/latest/user-guide/skeleton-application.html I'm no sysAdmin, just a Zend enthusiast. I'm pretty sure this PEBKAC problem might be obvious for those who already got in ZF2 previous betas. Thanks for helping my out. EDIT: Problem was resolved, thanks to Daniel M. Just setting up ZF2_PATH in httpd.conf was all that was needed. SetEnv ZF2_PATH /var/ZF2 I also removed the include_path reference in php.ini and everything works just fine. So I have no idea why Zend suggested to include it there in their official docs.

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  • Why did Intel drop the Itanium?

    - by Cole Johnson
    I was reading up on the history of the computer and I came along the IA-64 (Itanium) processors. They sounded really interesting and I was confused as to why Intel would decide to drop them. The ability to choose explicitly what 2 instructions you wanted to run in that cycle is a great idea, especially when writing your program in assembly, for example, a faster bootloader. The hundreds of registers should be convincing for any assembly programmer. You could essentially store all the functions variables in the registers if it doesn't call any other ones. The ability to do instructions like this: (qp) xor r1 = r2, r3 ; r1 = r2 XOR r3 (qp) xor r1 = (imm8), r3 ; r1 = (imm8) XOR r3 versus having to do: ; eax = r1 ; ebx = r2 ; ecx = r3 mov eax, ebx ; first put r2 into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to r2 XOR r3 or ; SAME mov eax, (imm32) ; first put (imm32) into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to (imm32) XOR r3 I heard it was because of no backwards x86 comparability, but couldn't thy be fixed by just adding the Pentium circuitry to it and just add a processor flag that would switch it to Itanium mode (like switching to Protected or Long mode) All the great things about it would have surly put them a giant leap ahead of AMD. Any ideas? Sadly this means you will need a very advanced compiler to do this. Or even one per specific model of the CPU. (E.g. a newer version of the Itanium with an extra feature would require different compiler). When I was working on a WinForms (target only had .NET 2.0) project in Visual Studio 2010, I had a compile target of IA-64. That means that there is a .NET runtime that was able to be compiled for IA-64 and a .NET runtime means Windows. Plus, Hamilton's answer mentions Windows NT. Having a full blown OS like Windows NT means that there is a compiler capable of generating IA-64 machine code.

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  • Alienware m15x (older model) BSOD investigation

    - by Crishu
    A frined of mine asked me to help him with an Alienware m15x laptop that had a little service history. It was bought in june 2008, serviced in january 2009 for a random fps drop problem, Alienware returned it saying nothing was wrong. The laptop still had hiccups, but after juggling a few drivers and settings, the fps drops weren't as noticeable. Eventually it died in Sept. 2009. It would not boot up locking itself on a white/gray screen. (i think it was overheating .. clocking in 100 degrees Celsius). So back to Alienware it went. They replaced the GPU and all was fine. Up until these blue screens started showing up. One other thing that was updated was the HDD and a Windows 7 reinstall, in August. From then on it seems to have started its BSOD. Could this be the culprit? Why? 0_o The original Windows was Vista but it was upgraded with a digital download/purchase of Windows 7 Home Premium and activated after installing windows. No errors on the old HDD, just on the latest installation. LE:Due note that now the old HDD is used to see if issues re-occur. So please, I am in need of someone who can interpret these windows dump files: Minidump I may have come to some conflicting conclusions. So if someone can clarify each dump/date and the probable cause/error it had; and a final conclusion or solution, we would be very grateful. Also please consult report for other system info I omitted: same link,code: XRWIVLWG If I missed something or if you have any other questions I'll be happy to answer them. Thank you. Good day. Processor: Intel(R) Core(TM)2 Duo CPU T9300 @ 2.50GHz Network Adapter Properties: Broadcom NetLink (TM) Gigabit Ethernet Intel(R) Wireless WiFi Link 4965AGN Video Adapter Properties: Driver Description NVIDIA GeForce 8800M GTX Driver Date 19.08.2009 Driver Version 8.16.11.8681 Driver Provider NVIDIA INF File oem19.inf Hardware ID PCI\VEN_10DE&DEV_060C&SUBSYS_0770152D&REV_A2 Location Information @system32\DRIVERS\pci.sys,#65536;PCI bus %1, device %2, function %3;(1,0,0) PCI Device NVIDIA GeForce 8800M GTX [NoDB] BIOS String Version 62.92.34.0.8 Installed Drivers nvd3dum (8.16.11.8681), nvwgf2um, nvwgf2um Hard Dik Drive: Model ID ST9120823ASG (**older one 120gb**) Model ID WD32000BEKT (new 320gb with fresh OS)

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