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• Coldfusion Report Builder - How can you set different datasources externally between prod/staging/de

  - by Smooth Operator

  Coldfusion Report Builder is great. One small issue. We use ANT+CFANT to deploy. When we create the report, say in a datasource called MyApp_dev on a dev box. Everything works great when the report is created. We deploy the report to our staging server, which has a datasource of MyApp_Staging. That server also, may or may not, have the live app working under MyApp_Live. Ant pushes the update to Staging just great. Run the report, crashes and burns. Why? It seems the report is looking for the MyApp_Dev data_source, even though the application is using the MyApp_Staging datasource. In digging around I found a few approaches, I would like to do this one, final, ideal way from the beginning instead of having to go back to do dozens of reports differently when I have a new Aha! moment. 1) Obvious: Pass in the datasource in to the cfreport tag. Doesn't work for ColdFusion Builder Reports as of v8, or v9 as tested on Linux. 2) Most realistic option (but painful) so far: Pass in the query as an object into the ColdFusion Builder report. Let's think about this: Create the Report with the report builder to my heart's content using the RDS, etc on my local box. When I'm done, copy the query into a snippet of code, or into a database column to be dynamically be injected at runtime with correct datasource. Modify my "run report" event to find the query from the database column, insert it into another dynamic cfquery and potentially... evaluate (!?!) it? Fun side is I can set the cfquery datasource to what I would need for each environment. When I modify the report's columns in CF Report Builder, I always have to update the query in the database. Is there a snippet of code that can extract this for me? Hmm. 3) Less than ideal. Suck it up and let all the reports in staging run off the live server. Maybe copy the live data into staging (sans structural changes) to let it seem similar. Are there any eloquent ways to accomplish the above? Thanks in Advance!

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• One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

  - by Pitelk

  Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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• ImageMagick: convert png fail via PHP and works via bash shell

  - by wedix

  I've got a very weird bug which I've yet to find a solution. UPDATE see solution below What I am trying to do is convert a full size picture into a 160x120 thumbnail. It works great with jpg and jpeg files of any size, but not with png. ImageMagick command: /opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png' PHP function (shortened) ... $cmd = "/opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png'"; exec($cmd, $output, $retval); $errors += $retval; if ($errors > 0) { die(print_r($output)); } When this function runs $retval equal 1 which means the convert command failed (thumbnail isn't created). This is where it gets interesting, if I run the exact same command in my shell, it works. wedbook:~ wedix$ /opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png' wedbook:~ wedix$ I've tried using different PHP function such as system, passthru but it didn't work. I thought maybe someone here knew the solution. I'm using MAMP 1.7.2 Apache/2.0.59 PHP/5.2.6 Thanks! UPDATE I updated the following dependencies libpng from 1.2.35 to 1.2.37 libiconv from 1.12_2 to 1.13_0 ImageMagick 6.5.2-4_1 to 6.5.2-9_0 However, it did not fix my problem. 2nd UPDATE I finally found something that might help, when the function runs this is what gets printed in the Apache logs: dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/bin/convert Reason: Incompatible library version: convert requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 3rd UPDATE libiconv.2.dylib is version 8.0.0... bash-3.2$ otool -L /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib (compatibility version 8.0.0, current version 8.0.0) /usr/lib/libgcc_s.1.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 1.0.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 111.1.4) 4th UPDATE Problem was related to MAMP, see solution below

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• Problem with jQuery.ajax with 'delete' method in ie

  - by Max Williams

  I have a page where the user can edit various content using buttons and selects that trigger ajax calls. In particular, one action causes a url to be called remotely, with some data and a 'put' request, which (as i'm using a restful rails backend) triggers my update action. I also have a delete button which calls the same url but with a 'delete' request. The 'update' ajax call works in all browsers but the 'delete' one doesn't work in IE. I've got a vague memory of encountering something like this before...can anyone shed any light? here's my ajax calls: //update action - works in all browsers jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data:data, dataType:'script', type:'put', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ initializeQuizQuestions(); setPublishButtonStatus(); } }); //delete action - fails in ie function deleteQuizQuestion(quizQuestionId, quizId){ //send ajax call to back end to change the difficulty of the quiz question //back end will then refresh the relevant parts of the page (progress bars, flashes, quiz status) jQuery.ajax({ async:true, dataType:'script', type:'delete', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } I put the alerts in success and error in the delete ajax just to see what happens, and the 'error' part of the ajax call is triggered, but WITH NO CALL BEING MADE TO THE BACK END (i know this by watching my back end server logs). So, it fails before it even makes the call. I can't work out why - the 'msg' i get back from the error block is blank. Any ideas anyone? Is this a known problem? I've tested it in ie6 and ie8 and it doesn't work in either. thanks - max EDIT - the solution - thanks to Nick Craver for pointing me in the right direction. Rails (and maybe other frameworks?) has a subterfuge for the unsupported put and delete requests: a post request with the parameter "_method" (note the underscore) set to 'put' or 'delete' will be treated as if the actual request type was that string. So, in my case, i made this change - note the 'data' option': jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data: {"_method":"delete"}, dataType:'script', type:'post', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } Rails will now treat this as if it were a delete request, preserving the REST system. The reason my PUT example worked was just because in this particular case IE was happy to send a PUT request, but it officially does not support them so it's best to do this for PUT requests as well as DELETE requests.

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• PL/SQL pre-compile and Code Quality checks in an automatted build environment?

  - by Lars Corneliussen

  We build software using Hudson and Maven. We have C#, java and last, but not least PL/SQL sources (sprocs, packages, DDL, crud) For C# and Java we do unit tests and code analysis, but we don't really know the health of our PL/SQL sources before we actually publish them to the target database. Requirements There are a couple of things we wan't to test in the following priority: Are the sources valid, hence "compilable"? For packages, with respect to a certain database, would they compile? Code Quality: Do we have code flaws like duplicates, too complex methods or other violations to a defined set of rules? Also, the tool must run head-less (commandline, ant, ...) we wan't to do analysis on a partial code base (changed sources only) Tools We did a little research and found the following tools that could potencially help: Cast Application Intelligence Platform (AIP): Seems to be a server that grasps information about "anything". Couldn't find a console version that would export in readable format. Toad for Oracle: The Professional version is said to include something called Xpert validates a set of rules against a code base. Sonar + PL/SQL-Plugin: Uses Toad for Oracle to display code-health the sonar-way. This is for browsing the current state of the code base. Semantic Designs DMSToolkit: Quite general analysis of source code base. Commandline available? Semantic Designs Clones Detector: Detects clones. But also via command line? Fortify Source Code Analyzer: Seems to be focussed on security issues. But maybe it is extensible? more... So far, Toad for Oracle together with Sonar seems to be an elegant solution. But may be we are missing something here? Any ideas? Other products? Experiences? Related Questions on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/531430/any-static-code-analysis-tools-for-stored-procedures http://stackoverflow.com/questions/839707/any-code-quality-tool-for-pl-sql http://stackoverflow.com/questions/956104/is-there-a-static-analysis-tool-for-python-ruby-sql-cobol-perl-and-pl-sql

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• NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

  - by MartinF

  Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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• Rails ActiveResource Associations

  - by brad

  I have some ARes models (see below) that I'm trying to use associations with (which seems to be wholly undocumented and maybe not possible but I thought I'd give it a try) So on my service side, my ActiveRecord object will render something like render :xml => @group.to_xml(:include => :customers) (see generated xml below) The models Group and Customers are HABTM On my ARes side, I'm hoping that it can see the <customers> xml attribute and automatically populate the .customers attribute of that Group object , but the has_many etc methods aren't supported (at least as far as I can tell) So I'm wondering how ARes does it's reflection on the XML to set the attributes of an object. In AR for instance I could create a def customers=(customer_array) and set it myself, but this doesn't seem to work in ARes. One suggestion I found for an "association" is the just have a method def customers Customer.find(:all, :conditions => {:group_id => self.id}) end But this has the disadvantage that it makes a second service call to look up those customers... not cool I'd like my ActiveResource model to see that the customers attribute in the XML and automatically populate my model. Anyone have any experience with this?? # My Services class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :groups end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :customer end # My ActiveResource accessors class Customer < ActiveResource::Base; end class Group < ActiveResource::Base; end # XML from /groups/:id?customers=true <group> <domain>some.domain.com</domain> <id type="integer">266</id> <name>Some Name</name> <customers type="array"> <customer> <active type="boolean">true</active> <id type="integer">1</id> <name>Some Name</name> </customer> <customer> <active type="boolean" nil="true"></active> <id type="integer">306</id> <name>Some Other Name</name> </customer> </customers> </group>

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• Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

  - by Dennis Zickefoose

  I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

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• Apple Push Notifications With Foreign Accent Characters Not Receiving

  - by confeng

  I'm sending push notifications and when the message contains foreign characters (Turkish in my case) like I, s, ç, g... The message does not arrive to devices. Here's my code: $message = 'THIS is push'; $passphrase = 'mypass'; $ctx = stream_context_create(); stream_context_set_option($ctx, 'ssl', 'local_cert', 'MyPemFile.pem'); stream_context_set_option($ctx, 'ssl', 'passphrase', $passphrase); // Open a connection to the APNS server $fp = stream_socket_client( 'ssl://gateway.push.apple.com:2195', $err, $errstr, 60, STREAM_CLIENT_CONNECT|STREAM_CLIENT_PERSISTENT, $ctx); if (!$fp) exit("Failed to connect: $err $errstr" . PHP_EOL); echo 'Connected to Apple service. ' . PHP_EOL; // Encode the payload as JSON $body['aps'] = array( 'alert' => $message, 'sound' => 'default' ); $payload = json_encode($body); $result = 'Start'.PHP_EOL; $tokenArray = array('mytoken'); foreach ($tokenArray as $item) { // Build the binary notification $msg = chr(0) . pack('n', 32) . pack('H*', $item) . pack('n', strlen($payload)) . $payload; // Send it to the server $result = fwrite($fp, $msg, strlen($msg)); if (!$result) echo 'Failed message'.PHP_EOL; else echo 'Successful message'.PHP_EOL; } // Close the connection to the server fclose($fp); I have tried encoding $message variable with utf8_encode() but the message received as "THÝS is push". And other ways like iconv() didn't work for me, some of them cropped Turkish characters, some didn't receive at all. I also have header('content-type: text/html; charset: utf-8'); and <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> in my page. I don't think the problem appears while I set the value but maybe with pack() function. Any ideas to solve this without replacing characters with English?

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• C++ Program Always Crashes While doing a std::string assign

  - by bbazso

  I have been trying to debug a crash in my application that crashes (i.e. asserts a * glibc detected free(): invalid pointer: 0x000000000070f0c0 **) while I'm trying to do a simple assign to a string. Note that I'm compiling on a linux system with gcc 4.2.4 with an optimization level set to -O2. With -O0 the application no longer crashes. E.g. std::string abc; abc = "testString"; but if I changed the code as follows it no longer crashes std::string abc("testString"); So again I scratched my head! But the interesting pattern was that the crash moved later on in the application, AGAIN at another string. I found it weird that the application was continuously crashing on a string assign. A typical crash backtrace would look as follows: #0 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) bt #0 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #1 0x00007f2c2663dbc3 in abort () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #2 0x00000000004d8cb7 in people_streamingserver_sighandler (signum=6) at src/peoplestreamingserver.cpp:487 #3 <signal handler called> #4 0x00007f2c2663bfb5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #5 0x00007f2c2663dbc3 in abort () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #6 0x00007f2c26680ce0 in ?? () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #7 0x00007f2c270ca7a0 in std::string::assign (this=0x7f2c21bc8d20, __str=<value optimized out>) at /home/bbazso/ThirdParty/sources/gcc-4.2.4/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/libstdc++-v3/include/bits/basic_string.h:238 #8 0x00007f2c21bd874a in PEOPLESProtocol::GetStreamName (this=<value optimized out>, pRawPath=0x2342fd8 "rtmp://127.0.0.1/mp4:pop.mp4", lStreamName=@0x7f2c21bc8d20) at /opt/trx-HEAD/gcc/4.2.4/lib/gcc/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/4.2.4/../../../../include/c++/4.2.4/bits/basic_string.h:491 #9 0x00007f2c21bd9daa in PEOPLESProtocol::SignalProtocolCreated (pProtocol=0x233a4e0, customParameters=@0x7f2c21bc8de0) at peoplestreamer/src/peoplesprotocol.cpp:240 This was really weird behavior and so I started to poke around further in my application to see if there was some sort of memory corruption (either heap or stack) error that could be occurring that could be causing this weird behavior. I even checked for ptr corruptions and came up empty handed. In addition to visual inspection of the code I also tried the following tools: Valgrind using both memcheck and exp-ptrcheck electric fence libsafe I compiled with -fstack-protector-all in gcc I tried MALLOC_CHECK_ set to 2 I ran my code through lint checks as well as cppcheck (to check for mistakes) And I stepped through the code using gdb So I tried a lot of stuff and still came up empty handed. So I was wondering if it could be something like a linker issue or a library issue of some sort that could be causing this problem. Are there any know issues with the std::string that make is susceptible to crashing in -O2 or maybe it has nothing to do with the optimization level? But the only pattern that I can see thus far in my problem is that it always seems to crash on a string and so I was wondering if anyone knew of any issues that my be causing this type of behavior. Thanks a lot!

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• Strange iPhone memory leak in xml parser

  - by Chris

  Update: I edited the code, but the problem persists... Hi everyone, this is my first post here - I found this place a great ressource for solving many of my questions. Normally I try my best to fix anything on my own but this time I really have no idea what goes wrong, so I hope someone can help me out. I am building an iPhone app that parses a couple of xml files using TouchXML. I have a class XMLParser, which takes care of downloading and parsing the results. I am getting memory leaks when I parse an xml file more than once with the same instance of XMLParser. Here is one of the parsing snippets (just the relevant part): for(int counter = 0; counter < [item childCount]; counter++) { CXMLNode *child = [item childAtIndex:counter]; if([[child name] isEqualToString:@"PRODUCT"]) { NSMutableDictionary *product = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(int j = 0; j < [child childCount]; j++) { CXMLNode *grandchild = [child childAtIndex:j]; if([[grandchild stringValue] length] > 1) { NSString *trimmedString = [[grandchild stringValue] stringByTrimmingCharactersInSet:[NSCharacterSet whitespaceAndNewlineCharacterSet]]; [product setObject:trimmedString forKey:[grandchild name]]; } } // Add product to current category array switch (categoryId) { case 0: [self.mobil addObject: product]; break; case 1: [self.allgemein addObject: product]; break; case 2: [self.besitzeIch addObject: product]; break; case 3: [self.willIch addObject: product]; break; default: break; } [product release]; } } The first time, I parse the xml no leak shows up in instruments, the next time I do so, I got a lot of leaks (NSCFString / NSCFDictionary). Instruments points me to this part inside CXMLNode.m, when I dig into a leaked object: theStringValue = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(const char *)theXMLString]; if ( _node->type != CXMLTextKind ) xmlFree(theXMLString); } return(theStringValue); I really spent a long time and tried multiple approaches to fix this, but to no avail so far, maybe I am missing something essential? Any help is highly appreciated, thank you!

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• Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

  - by Thorsten Beck

  Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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• MalformedByteSequenceException while trying to pars XML

  - by poeschlorn

  Hey guy, maybe someone can help: I have the following .gpx data from wikipedia: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no" ?> <gpx xmlns="http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/1" creator="byHand" version="1.1" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/1 http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/1/gpx.xsd"> <wpt lat="39.921055008" lon="3.054223107"> <ele>12.863281</ele> <time>2005-05-16T11:49:06Z</time> <name>Cala Sant Vicenç - Mallorca</name> <sym>City</sym> </wpt> </gpx> When I call my parsing method, I get a exception (see below) The call looks like this: Document tmpDoc = getParsedXML(currentGPX); My method to parse looks like this (standart parsing code, nothing exctiting....): public static Document getParsedXML(String fileWithPath){ DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder db; Document doc = null; try { db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); doc = db.parse(new File(fileWithPath)); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (SAXException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return doc; } This simple code throws following exception: com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.io.MalformedByteSequenceException: Invalid byte 2 of 3-byte UTF-8 sequence. at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.io.UTF8Reader.invalidByte(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.io.UTF8Reader.read(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLEntityScanner.load(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLEntityScanner.skipChar(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl$FragmentContentDriver.next(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentScannerImpl.next(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.scanDocument(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XMLParser.parse(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.DOMParser.parse(Unknown Source) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.jaxp.DocumentBuilderImpl.parse(Unknown Source) at javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder.parse(Unknown Source) at Zeugs.getParsedXML(Zeugs.java:38) at Zeugs.main(Zeugs.java:25) I guess the error lies within the format of the first file, but I don't know where exactly. Can you please give me a hint?

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• Getting XML data from a external page and parsing it with PHP

  - by James P

  I'm trying to create a database of World of Warcraft gems. If I go to this page: http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items And go to View Source in Firefox, I see a tonne of XML data which is exactly what I want. I wrote up this quick script to try and parse some of it: <?php $gemUrls = array( 'Blue' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=blue&searchType=items', 'Red' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=red&searchType=items', 'Yellow' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=yellow&searchType=items', 'Meta' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=meta&searchType=items', 'Green' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=green&searchType=items', 'Orange' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=orange&searchType=items', 'Purple' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items', 'Prismatic' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items' ); // Get blue gems $blueGems = file_get_contents($gemUrls['Blue']); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($blueGems); echo $xml->items[0]->item; ?> But I get a load of errors like this: Warning: SimpleXMLElement::__construct() [simplexmlelement.--construct]: Entity: line 20: parser error : xmlParseEntityRef: no name in C:\xampp\htdocs\WoW\index.php on line 19 Warning: SimpleXMLElement::__construct() [simplexmlelement.--construct]: if(Browser.iphone && Number(getcookie2("mobIntPageVisits")) < 3 && getcookie2( in C:\xampp\htdocs\WoW\index.php on line 19 I'm not sure what's wrong. I think file_get_contents() is bringing back data that isn't XML, maybe some Javascript files judging by the iPhone parts in the errors. Is there any way to just get back the XML from that page? Without any HTML or anything? Thanks :)

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• Containers of reference_wrappers (comparison operators required?)

  - by kloffy

  If you use stl containers together with reference_wrappers of POD types, the following code works just fine: int i = 3; std::vector< boost::reference_wrapper<int> > is; is.push_back(boost::ref(i)); std::cout << (std::find(is.begin(),is.end(),i)!=is.end()) << std::endl; However, if you use non-POD types such as (contrived example): struct Integer { int value; bool operator==(const Integer& rhs) const { return value==rhs.value; } bool operator!=(const Integer& rhs) const { return !(*this == rhs); } }; It doesn't suffice to declare those comparison operators, instead you have to declare: bool operator==(const boost::reference_wrapper<Integer>& lhs, const Integer& rhs) { return boost::unwrap_ref(lhs)==rhs; } And possibly also: bool operator==(const Integer& lhs, const boost::reference_wrapper<Integer>& rhs) { return lhs==boost::unwrap_ref(rhs); } In order to get the equivalent code to work: Integer j = { 0 }; std::vector< boost::reference_wrapper<Integer> > js; js.push_back(boost::ref(j)); std::cout << (std::find(js.begin(),js.end(),j)!=js.end()) << std::endl; Now, I'm wondering if this is really the way it's meant to be done, since it seems impractical. It just seems there should be a simpler solution, e.g. templates: template<class T> bool operator==(const boost::reference_wrapper<T>& lhs, const T& rhs) { return boost::unwrap_ref(lhs)==rhs; } template<class T> bool operator==(const T& lhs, const boost::reference_wrapper<T>& rhs) { return lhs==boost::unwrap_ref(rhs); } There's probably a good reason why reference_wrapper behaves the way it does (possibly to accomodate non-POD types without comparison operators?). Maybe there already is an elegant solution and I just haven't found it.

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• Translate Java class with static attributes and Annotation to Scala equivalent

  - by ifischer

  I'm currently trying to "translate" the following Java class to an equivalent Scala class. It's part of a JavaEE6-application and i need it to use the JPA2 MetaModel. import javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute; import javax.persistence.metamodel.StaticMetamodel; @StaticMetamodel(Person.class) public class Person_ { public static volatile SingularAttribute<Person, String> name; } A dissassembling of the compiled class file reveals the following information for the compiled file: > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object{ public static volatile javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name; public model.Person_(); } So now i need an equivalent Scala file that has the same structure, as JPA depends on it, cause it resolves the attributes by reflection to make them accessible at runtime. So the main problem i think is that the attribute is static, but the Annotation has to be on an (Java)Object (i guess) My first naive attempt to create a Scala equivalent is the following: @StaticMetamodel(classOf[Person]) class Person_ object Person_ { @volatile var name:SingularAttribute[Person, String] = _; } But the resulting classfile is far away from the Java one, so it doesn't work. When trying to access the attributes at runtime, e.g. "Person_.firstname", it resolves to null, i think JPA can't do the right reflection magic on the compiled classfile (the Java variant resolves to an instance of org.hibernate.ejb.metamodel.SingularAttributeImpl at runtime). > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public static final void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); public static final javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public model.Person_(); } > javap Person_$.class : public final class model.Person__$ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject public static final model.Person__$ MODULE$; public static {}; public javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); } So now what i'd like to know is if it's possible at all to create a Scala equivalent of the Java class? It seems to me that it's absolutely not, but maybe there is a workaround or something (except just using Java, but i want my app to be in Scala where possible) Any ideas, anyone? Thanks in advance!

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• Calling an Excel Add-In method from C# application or vice versa

  - by Jude

  I have an Excel VBA add-in with a public method in a bas file. This method currently creates a VB6 COM object, which exists in a running VB6 exe/vbp. The VB6 app loads in data and then the Excel add-in method can call methods on the VB6 COM object to load the data into an existing Excel xls. This is all currently working. We have since converted our VB6 app to C#. My question is: What is the best/easiest way to mimic this behavior with the C#/.NET app? I'm thinking I may not be able to pull the data from the .NET app into Excel from the add-in method since the .Net app needs to be running with data loaded (so no using a stand-alone C# class library). Maybe we can, instead, push the data from .NET to Excel by accessing the VBA add-in method from the C# code? The following is the existing VBA method accessing the VB6 app: Public Sub UpdateInDataFromApp() Dim wkbInData As Workbook Dim oFPW As Object Dim nMaxCols As Integer Dim nMaxRows As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim sName As String Dim nCol As Integer Dim nRow As Integer Dim sheetCnt As Integer Dim nDepth As Integer Dim sPath As String Dim vData As Variant Dim SheetRange As Range Set wkbInData = wkbOpen("InData.xls") sPath = g_sPathXLSfiles & "\" 'Note: the following will bring up fpw app if not already running Set oFPW = CreateObject("FPW.CProfilesData") If oFPW Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Unable to reference " & sApp Else . . . sheetCnt = wkbInData.Sheets.Count 'get number of sheets in indata workbook For j = 2 To sheetCnt 'set counter to loop over all sheets except the first one which is not input data fields With wkbInData.Worksheets(j) Set SheetRange = .UsedRange End With With SheetRange nMaxRows = .Rows.Count 'get range of sheet(j) nMaxCols = .Columns.Count 'get range of sheet(j) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearContents 'Clears data from data range (51 Columns) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearComments End With With oFPW 'vb6 object For nRow = 2 To nMaxRows ' loop through rows sName = SheetRange.Cells(nRow, 1) 'Field name vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, 0) 'Check if vb6 app identifies the name nDepth = .GetInputTableDepth(sName) 'Get number of data items for this field name from vb6 app nMaxCols = nDepth + 2 'nDepth=0, is single data item For nCol = 2 To nMaxCols 'loop over deep screen fields nDepth = nCol - 2 'current depth vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, nDepth) 'Get Data from vb6 app If LenB(vData) > 0 And IsNumeric(vData) Then 'Check if data returned SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke the data in Else SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke a zero in End If Next 'nCol Next 'nRow End With Set SheetRange = Nothing Next 'j End If Set wkbInData = Nothing Set oFPW = Nothing Exit Sub . . . End Sub Any help would be appreciated.

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• jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

  - by boomturn

  I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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• Finding what makes strings unique in a list, can you improve on brute force?

  - by Ed Guiness

  Suppose I have a list of strings where each string is exactly 4 characters long and unique within the list. For each of these strings I want to identify the position of the characters within the string that make the string unique. So for a list of three strings abcd abcc bbcb For the first string I want to identify the character in 4th position d since d does not appear in the 4th position in any other string. For the second string I want to identify the character in 4th position c. For the third string it I want to identify the character in 1st position b AND the character in 4th position, also b. This could be concisely represented as abcd -> ...d abcc -> ...c bbcb -> b..b If you consider the same problem but with a list of binary numbers 0101 0011 1111 Then the result I want would be 0101 -> ..0. 0011 -> .0.. 1111 -> 1... Staying with the binary theme I can use XOR to identify which bits are unique within two binary numbers since 0101 ^ 0011 = 0110 which I can interpret as meaning that in this case the 2nd and 3rd bits (reading left to right) are unique between these two binary numbers. This technique might be a red herring unless somehow it can be extended to the larger list. A brute-force approach would be to look at each string in turn, and for each string to iterate through vertical slices of the remainder of the strings in the list. So for the list abcd abcc bbcb I would start with abcd and iterate through vertical slices of abcc bbcb where these vertical slices would be a | b | c | c b | b | c | b or in list form, "ab", "bb", "cc", "cb". This would result in four comparisons a : ab -> . (a is not unique) b : bb -> . (b is not unique) c : cc -> . (c is not unique) d : cb -> d (d is unique) or concisely abcd -> ...d Maybe it's wishful thinking, but I have a feeling that there should be an elegant and general solution that would apply to an arbitrarily large list of strings (or binary numbers). But if there is I haven't yet been able to see it. I hope to use this algorithm to to derive minimal signatures from a collection of unique images (bitmaps) in order to efficiently identify those images at a future time. If future efficiency wasn't a concern I would use a simple hash of each image. Can you improve on brute force?

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• Write STDOUT & STDERR to a logfile, also write STDERR to screen

  - by Stefan Lasiewski

  I would like to run several commands, and capture all output to a logfile. I also want to print any errors to the screen (or optionally mail the output to someone). Here's an example. The following command will run three commands, and will write all output (STDOUT and STDERR) into a single logfile. { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } > logfile.log 2>&1 Here is what I want to do with the output of these commands: STDERR and STDOUT for all commands goes to a logfile, in case I need it later--- I usually won't look in here unless there are problems. Print STDERR to the screen (or optionally, pipe to /bin/mail), so that any error stands out and doesn't get ignored. It would be nice if the return codes were still usable, so that I could do some error handling. Maybe I want to send email if there was an error, like this: { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } logfile.log 2&1 || mailx -s "There was an error" [email protected] The problem I run into is that STDERR loses context during I/O redirection. A '2&1' will convert STDERR into STDOUT, and therefore I cannot view errors if I do 2 error.log Here are a couple juicier examples. Let's pretend that I am running some familiar build commands, but I don't want the entire build to stop just because of one error so I use the '--keep-going' flag. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install ; } > build.log 2>&1 Or, here's a simple (And perhaps sloppy) build and deploy script, which will keep going in the event of an error. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install && rsync -av --keep-going /foo devhost:/foo} > build-and-deploy.log 2>&1 I think what I want involves some sort of Bash I/O Redirection, but I can't figure this out.

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• An IOCP documentation interpretation question - buffer ownership ambiguity

  - by Poni

  Since I'm not a native English speaker I might be missing something so maybe someone here knows better than me. Taken from WSASend's doumentation at MSDN: lpBuffers [in] A pointer to an array of WSABUF structures. Each WSABUF structure contains a pointer to a buffer and the length, in bytes, of the buffer. For a Winsock application, once the WSASend function is called, the system owns these buffers and the application may not access them. This array must remain valid for the duration of the send operation. Ok, can you see the bold text? That's the unclear spot! I can think of two translations for this line (might be something else, you name it): Translation 1 - "buffers" refers to the OVERLAPPED structure that I pass this function when calling it. I may reuse the object again only when getting a completion notification about it. Translation 2 - "buffers" refer to the actual buffers, those with the data I'm sending. If the WSABUF object points to one buffer, then I cannot touch this buffer until the operation is complete. Can anyone tell what's the right interpretation to that line? And..... If the answer is the second one - how would you resolve it? Because to me it implies that for each and every data/buffer I'm sending I must retain a copy of it at the sender side - thus having MANY "pending" buffers (in different sizes) on an high traffic application, which really going to hurt "scalability". Statement 1: In addition to the above paragraph (the "And...."), I thought that IOCP copies the data to-be-sent to it's own buffer and sends from there, unless you set SO_SNDBUF to zero. Statement 2: I use stack-allocated buffers (you know, something like char cBuff[1024]; at the function body - if the translation to the main question is the second option (i.e buffers must stay as they are until the send is complete), then... that really screws things up big-time! Can you think of a way to resolve it? (I know, I asked it in other words above).

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• Validate xsl fo in xslt styleesheet

  - by Biegal

  Hi, i have a little problem with validating xml, xslt in details. I have a xslt stylesheet that, transforms xml data source to xsl:fo document. Something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <xsl:template match="/"> <fo:root xmlns:fo="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Format" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <fo:layout-master-set> <fo:simple-page-master margin-top="25mm" margin-bottom="25mm" margin-left="25mm" margin-right="25mm" page-width="210mm" page-height="297mm" master-name="simplePageLayout"> <fo:region-body region-name="xsl-region-body" column-gap="0.25in" /> <fo:region-before region-name="xsl-region-before" display-align="after" extent="0.1mm" padding-top="0pt" padding-left="0.4in" padding-right="0.4in" padding-bottom="0pt" /> <fo:region-after region-name="xsl-region-after" display-align="before" extent="0.4in" padding-top="4pt" padding-left="0.4in" padding-right="0.4in" padding-bottom="0pt" /> </fo:simple-page-master> <fo:page-sequence-master master-name="default-sequence"> <fo:repeatable-page-master-reference master-reference="simplePageLayout" /> </fo:page-sequence-master> </fo:layout-master-set> <fo:page-sequence master-reference="default-sequence"> <fo:flow flow-name="xsl-region-body"> <fo:block font-family="Segoe UI" color="#000000" font-size="9pt" /> </fo:flow> </fo:page-sequence> </fo:root> </xsl:template> What I want to do, is to validate written xsl:fo elements, ignoring xsl tags. Is it posible? For now I use dtd validation (I have xsd schema too) for validating Fo, but it give me an error on each xsl tag. Summary. Is it posiible to validate only fo elements against the schema, ignoring xsl tags, and how should I do it? Maybe a code snnippet in C#, or a hint how to modify documents? Thanks in advance!

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• Should I deal with files longer than MAX_PATH?

  - by John

  Just had an interesting case. My software reported back a failure caused by a path being longer than MAX_PATH. The path was just a plain old document in My Documents, e.g.: C:\Documents and Settings\Bill\Some Stupid FOlder Name\A really ridiculously long file thats really very very very..........very long.pdf Total length 269 characters (MAX_PATH==260). The user wasn't using a external hard drive or anything like that. This was a file on an Windows managed drive. So my question is this. Should I care? I'm not saying can I deal with the long paths, I'm asking should I. Yes I'm aware of the "\?\" unicode hack on some Win32 APIs, but it seems this hack is not without risk (as it's changing the behaviour of the way the APIs parse paths) and also isn't supported by all APIs . So anyway, let me just state my position/assertions: First presumably the only way the user was able to break this limit is if the app she used uses the special Unicode hack. It's a PDF file, so maybe the PDF tool she used uses this hack. I tried to reproduce this (by using the unicode hack) and experimented. What I found was that although the file appears in Explorer, I can do nothing with it. I can't open it, I can't choose "Properties" (Windows 7). Other common apps can't open the file (e.g. IE, Firefox, Notepad). Explorer will also not let me create files/dirs which are too long - it just refuses. Ditto for command line tool cmd.exe. So basically, one could look at it this way: a rouge tool has allowed the user to create a file which is not accessible by a lot of Windows (e.g. Explorer). I could take the view that I shouldn't have to deal with this. (As an aside, this isn't an vote of approval for a short max path length: I think 260 chars is a joke, I'm just saying that if Windows shell and some APIs can't handle 260 then why should I?). So, is this a fair view? Should I say "Not my problem"? Thanks! John

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• Is there any reasonable use of a function returning an anonymous struct?

  - by Akanksh

  Here is an (artificial) example of using a function that returns an anonymous struct and does "something" useful: #include <iostream> template<typename T> T* func( T* t, float a, float b ) { if(!t) { t = new T; t->a = a; t->b = b; } else { t->a += a; t->b += b; } return t; } struct { float a, b; }* foo(float a, float b) { if(a==0) return 0; return func(foo(a-1,b), a, b); } int main() { std::cout << foo(5,6)->a << std::endl; std::cout << foo(5,6)->b << std::endl; void* v = (void*)(foo(5,6)); float* f = (float*)(v); //[1] delete f now because I know struct is floats only. std::cout << f[0] << std::endl; std::cout << f[1] << std::endl; delete[] f; return 0; } There are a few points I would like to discuss: As is apparent, this code leaks, is there anyway I can NOT leak without knowing what the underlying struct definition is? see Comment [1]. I have to return a pointer to an anonymous struct so I can create an instance of the object within the templatized function func, can I do something similar without returning a pointer? I guess the most important, is there ANY (real-world) use for this at all? As the example given above leaks and is admittedly contrived. By the way, what the function foo(a,b) does is, to return a struct containing two numbers, the sum of all numbers from 1 to a and the product of a and b. EDIT: Maybe the line new T could use a boost::shared_ptr somehow to avoid leaks, but I haven't tried that. Would that work?

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• How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

  - by Andy Barlow

  Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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