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• PL/SQL pre-compile and Code Quality checks in an automatted build environment?

  - by Lars Corneliussen

  We build software using Hudson and Maven. We have C#, java and last, but not least PL/SQL sources (sprocs, packages, DDL, crud) For C# and Java we do unit tests and code analysis, but we don't really know the health of our PL/SQL sources before we actually publish them to the target database. Requirements There are a couple of things we wan't to test in the following priority: Are the sources valid, hence "compilable"? For packages, with respect to a certain database, would they compile? Code Quality: Do we have code flaws like duplicates, too complex methods or other violations to a defined set of rules? Also, the tool must run head-less (commandline, ant, ...) we wan't to do analysis on a partial code base (changed sources only) Tools We did a little research and found the following tools that could potencially help: Cast Application Intelligence Platform (AIP): Seems to be a server that grasps information about "anything". Couldn't find a console version that would export in readable format. Toad for Oracle: The Professional version is said to include something called Xpert validates a set of rules against a code base. Sonar + PL/SQL-Plugin: Uses Toad for Oracle to display code-health the sonar-way. This is for browsing the current state of the code base. Semantic Designs DMSToolkit: Quite general analysis of source code base. Commandline available? Semantic Designs Clones Detector: Detects clones. But also via command line? Fortify Source Code Analyzer: Seems to be focussed on security issues. But maybe it is extensible? more... So far, Toad for Oracle together with Sonar seems to be an elegant solution. But may be we are missing something here? Any ideas? Other products? Experiences? Related Questions on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/531430/any-static-code-analysis-tools-for-stored-procedures http://stackoverflow.com/questions/839707/any-code-quality-tool-for-pl-sql http://stackoverflow.com/questions/956104/is-there-a-static-analysis-tool-for-python-ruby-sql-cobol-perl-and-pl-sql

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• When is #include <new> library required in C++?

  - by Czarak

  Hi, According to this reference entry for operator new ( http://www.cplusplus.com/reference/std/new/operator%20new/ ) : Global dynamic storage operator functions are special in the standard library: All three versions of operator new are declared in the global namespace, not in the std namespace. The first and second versions are implicitly declared in every translation unit of a C++ program: The header does not need to be included for them to be present. This seems to me to imply that the third version of operator new (placement new) is not implicitly declared in every translation unit of a C++ program and the header <new> does need to be included for it to be present. Is that correct? If so, how is it that using both g++ and MS VC++ Express compilers it seems I can compile code using the third version of new without #include <new> in my source code? Also, the MSDN Standard C++ Library reference entry on operator new gives some example code for the three forms of operator new which contains the #include <new> statement, however the example seems to compile and run just the same for me without this include? // new_op_new.cpp // compile with: /EHsc #include<new> #include<iostream> using namespace std; class MyClass { public: MyClass( ) { cout << "Construction MyClass." << this << endl; }; ~MyClass( ) { imember = 0; cout << "Destructing MyClass." << this << endl; }; int imember; }; int main( ) { // The first form of new delete MyClass* fPtr = new MyClass; delete fPtr; // The second form of new delete char x[sizeof( MyClass )]; MyClass* fPtr2 = new( &x[0] ) MyClass; fPtr2 -> ~MyClass(); cout << "The address of x[0] is : " << ( void* )&x[0] << endl; // The third form of new delete MyClass* fPtr3 = new( nothrow ) MyClass; delete fPtr3; } Could anyone shed some light on this and when and why you might need to #include <new> - maybe some example code that will not compile without #include <new> ? Thanks.

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• NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

  - by MartinF

  Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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• Historical / auditable database

  - by Mark

  Hi all, This question is related to the schema that can be found in one of my other questions here. Basically in my database I store users, locations, sensors amongst other things. All of these things are editable in the system by users, and deletable. However - when an item is edited or deleted I need to store the old data; I need to be able to see what the data was before the change. There are also non-editable items in the database, such as "readings". They are more of a log really. Readings are logged against sensors, because its the reading for a particular sensor. If I generate a report of readings, I need to be able to see what the attributes for a location or sensor was at the time of the reading. Basically I should be able to reconstruct the data for any point in time. Now, I've done this before and got it working well by adding the following columns to each editable table: valid_from valid_to edited_by If valid_to = 9999-12-31 23:59:59 then that's the current record. If valid_to equals valid_from, then the record is deleted. However, I was never happy with the triggers I needed to use to enforce foreign key consistency. I can possibly avoid triggers by using the extension to the "PostgreSQL" database. This provides a column type called "period" which allows you to store a period of time between two dates, and then allows you to do CHECK constraints to prevent overlapping periods. That might be an answer. I am wondering though if there is another way. I've seen people mention using special historical tables, but I don't really like the thought of maintainling 2 tables for almost every 1 table (though it still might be a possibility). Maybe I could cut down my initial implementation to not bother checking the consistency of records that aren't "current" - i.e. only bother to check constraints on records where the valid_to is 9999-12-31 23:59:59. Afterall, the people who use historical tables do not seem to have constraint checks on those tables (for the same reason, you'd need triggers). Does anyone have any thoughts about this? PS - the title also mentions auditable database. In the previous system I mentioned, there is always the edited_by field. This allowed all changes to be tracked so we could always see who changed a record. Not sure how much difference that might make. Thanks.

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• Jquery getJSON populate select menu question...

  - by Scott

  I am populating a select menu with getJSON. I am wondering if there's a way that I can use jQuery's .each function to bring in these values? Surely there must be an easier way to accomplish this...maybe? PHP file: <?php $queryMonth = "SELECT monthID, month FROM months"; $result = $db->query($queryMonth); while($rowMonth = $db->fetch_assoc($result)) : $data[] = $rowMonth; endwhile; echo json_encode($data); ?> The jQuery: $.getJSON('selectMenus.php', function(data){ $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[0].monthID + ">" + data[0].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[1].monthID + ">" + data[1].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[2].monthID + ">" + data[2].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[3].monthID + ">" + data[3].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[4].monthID + ">" + data[4].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[5].monthID + ">" + data[5].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[6].monthID + ">" + data[6].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[7].monthID + ">" + data[7].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[8].monthID + ">" + data[8].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[9].monthID + ">" + data[9].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[10].monthID + ">" + data[10].month + "</option>"); $("select.month").append("<option value=" + data[11].monthID + ">" + data[11].month + "</option>"); }); my json output looks like this: [{"monthID":"1","month":"January"},{"monthID":"2","month":"February"},{"monthID":"3","month":"March"},{"monthID":"4","month":"April"},{"monthID":"5","month":"May"},{"monthID":"6","month":"June"},{"monthID":"7","month":"July"},{"monthID":"8","month":"August"},{"monthID":"9","month":"Septemeber"},{"monthID":"10","month":"October"},{"monthID":"11","month":"November"},{"monthID":"12","month":"December"}]

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• Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

  - by user193655

  My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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• Using Jquery.Form Plugin + MultiFile to automatically upload a single file

  - by Alan Neal

  I wanted to find a way to upload a single file*, in the background, have it start automatically after file selection, and not require a flash uploader, so I am trying to use two great mechanisms (jQuery.Form and JQuery MultiFile) together. I haven't succeeded, but I'm pretty sure it's because I'm missing something fundamental. Just using MultiFile, I define the form as follows... <form id="photoForm" action="image.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> The file input button is defined as... <input id="photoButton" "name="sourceFile" class="photoButton max-1 accept-jpg" type="file"> And the Javascript is... $('#photoButton').MultiFile({ afterFileSelect: function(){ document.getElementById("photoForm").submit(); } }); This works perfectly. As soon as the user selects a single file, MultiFile submits the form to the server. If instead of using MultiFile, as shown above, let's say I include a Submit button along with the JQuery Form plugin defined as follows... var options = { success: respondToUpload }; $('#photoForm').ajaxForm(options); ... this also works perfectly. When the Submit button is clicked, the form is uploaded in the background. What I don't know how to do is get these two to work together. If I use Javascript to submit the form (as shown in the MultiFile example above), the form is submitted but the JQuery.Form function is not called, so the form does not get submitted in the background. I thought that maybe I needed to change the form registration as follows... $('#photoForm').submit(function() { $('#photoForm').ajaxForm(options); }); ...but that didn't solve the problem. The same is true when I tried .ajaxSubmit instead of .ajaxForm. What am I missing? BTW: I know it might sound strange to use MultiFile for single-file uploads, but the idea is that the number of files will be dynamic based on the user's account. So, I'm starting with one but the number changes depending on conditions.

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• Translate Java class with static attributes and Annotation to Scala equivalent

  - by ifischer

  I'm currently trying to "translate" the following Java class to an equivalent Scala class. It's part of a JavaEE6-application and i need it to use the JPA2 MetaModel. import javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute; import javax.persistence.metamodel.StaticMetamodel; @StaticMetamodel(Person.class) public class Person_ { public static volatile SingularAttribute<Person, String> name; } A dissassembling of the compiled class file reveals the following information for the compiled file: > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object{ public static volatile javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name; public model.Person_(); } So now i need an equivalent Scala file that has the same structure, as JPA depends on it, cause it resolves the attributes by reflection to make them accessible at runtime. So the main problem i think is that the attribute is static, but the Annotation has to be on an (Java)Object (i guess) My first naive attempt to create a Scala equivalent is the following: @StaticMetamodel(classOf[Person]) class Person_ object Person_ { @volatile var name:SingularAttribute[Person, String] = _; } But the resulting classfile is far away from the Java one, so it doesn't work. When trying to access the attributes at runtime, e.g. "Person_.firstname", it resolves to null, i think JPA can't do the right reflection magic on the compiled classfile (the Java variant resolves to an instance of org.hibernate.ejb.metamodel.SingularAttributeImpl at runtime). > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public static final void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); public static final javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public model.Person_(); } > javap Person_$.class : public final class model.Person__$ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject public static final model.Person__$ MODULE$; public static {}; public javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); } So now what i'd like to know is if it's possible at all to create a Scala equivalent of the Java class? It seems to me that it's absolutely not, but maybe there is a workaround or something (except just using Java, but i want my app to be in Scala where possible) Any ideas, anyone? Thanks in advance!

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• Validate xsl fo in xslt styleesheet

  - by Biegal

  Hi, i have a little problem with validating xml, xslt in details. I have a xslt stylesheet that, transforms xml data source to xsl:fo document. Something like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <xsl:template match="/"> <fo:root xmlns:fo="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Format" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <fo:layout-master-set> <fo:simple-page-master margin-top="25mm" margin-bottom="25mm" margin-left="25mm" margin-right="25mm" page-width="210mm" page-height="297mm" master-name="simplePageLayout"> <fo:region-body region-name="xsl-region-body" column-gap="0.25in" /> <fo:region-before region-name="xsl-region-before" display-align="after" extent="0.1mm" padding-top="0pt" padding-left="0.4in" padding-right="0.4in" padding-bottom="0pt" /> <fo:region-after region-name="xsl-region-after" display-align="before" extent="0.4in" padding-top="4pt" padding-left="0.4in" padding-right="0.4in" padding-bottom="0pt" /> </fo:simple-page-master> <fo:page-sequence-master master-name="default-sequence"> <fo:repeatable-page-master-reference master-reference="simplePageLayout" /> </fo:page-sequence-master> </fo:layout-master-set> <fo:page-sequence master-reference="default-sequence"> <fo:flow flow-name="xsl-region-body"> <fo:block font-family="Segoe UI" color="#000000" font-size="9pt" /> </fo:flow> </fo:page-sequence> </fo:root> </xsl:template> What I want to do, is to validate written xsl:fo elements, ignoring xsl tags. Is it posible? For now I use dtd validation (I have xsd schema too) for validating Fo, but it give me an error on each xsl tag. Summary. Is it posiible to validate only fo elements against the schema, ignoring xsl tags, and how should I do it? Maybe a code snnippet in C#, or a hint how to modify documents? Thanks in advance!

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• Rails ActiveResource Associations

  - by brad

  I have some ARes models (see below) that I'm trying to use associations with (which seems to be wholly undocumented and maybe not possible but I thought I'd give it a try) So on my service side, my ActiveRecord object will render something like render :xml => @group.to_xml(:include => :customers) (see generated xml below) The models Group and Customers are HABTM On my ARes side, I'm hoping that it can see the <customers> xml attribute and automatically populate the .customers attribute of that Group object , but the has_many etc methods aren't supported (at least as far as I can tell) So I'm wondering how ARes does it's reflection on the XML to set the attributes of an object. In AR for instance I could create a def customers=(customer_array) and set it myself, but this doesn't seem to work in ARes. One suggestion I found for an "association" is the just have a method def customers Customer.find(:all, :conditions => {:group_id => self.id}) end But this has the disadvantage that it makes a second service call to look up those customers... not cool I'd like my ActiveResource model to see that the customers attribute in the XML and automatically populate my model. Anyone have any experience with this?? # My Services class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :groups end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :customer end # My ActiveResource accessors class Customer < ActiveResource::Base; end class Group < ActiveResource::Base; end # XML from /groups/:id?customers=true <group> <domain>some.domain.com</domain> <id type="integer">266</id> <name>Some Name</name> <customers type="array"> <customer> <active type="boolean">true</active> <id type="integer">1</id> <name>Some Name</name> </customer> <customer> <active type="boolean" nil="true"></active> <id type="integer">306</id> <name>Some Other Name</name> </customer> </customers> </group>

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• An IOCP documentation interpretation question - buffer ownership ambiguity

  - by Poni

  Since I'm not a native English speaker I might be missing something so maybe someone here knows better than me. Taken from WSASend's doumentation at MSDN: lpBuffers [in] A pointer to an array of WSABUF structures. Each WSABUF structure contains a pointer to a buffer and the length, in bytes, of the buffer. For a Winsock application, once the WSASend function is called, the system owns these buffers and the application may not access them. This array must remain valid for the duration of the send operation. Ok, can you see the bold text? That's the unclear spot! I can think of two translations for this line (might be something else, you name it): Translation 1 - "buffers" refers to the OVERLAPPED structure that I pass this function when calling it. I may reuse the object again only when getting a completion notification about it. Translation 2 - "buffers" refer to the actual buffers, those with the data I'm sending. If the WSABUF object points to one buffer, then I cannot touch this buffer until the operation is complete. Can anyone tell what's the right interpretation to that line? And..... If the answer is the second one - how would you resolve it? Because to me it implies that for each and every data/buffer I'm sending I must retain a copy of it at the sender side - thus having MANY "pending" buffers (in different sizes) on an high traffic application, which really going to hurt "scalability". Statement 1: In addition to the above paragraph (the "And...."), I thought that IOCP copies the data to-be-sent to it's own buffer and sends from there, unless you set SO_SNDBUF to zero. Statement 2: I use stack-allocated buffers (you know, something like char cBuff[1024]; at the function body - if the translation to the main question is the second option (i.e buffers must stay as they are until the send is complete), then... that really screws things up big-time! Can you think of a way to resolve it? (I know, I asked it in other words above).

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• PHP-based LaTeX parser -- where to begin?

  - by Alex Basson

  The project: I want to build a LaTeX-to-MathML translator in PHP. Why? Because I'm a mathematician, and I want to publish math on my Drupal site. It doesn't have to translate all of LaTeX, since the basic document-level stuff is ably handled by the CMS and wouldn't be written in LaTeX to begin with; it just has to translate math written in LaTeX into math written in MathML. Although I feel as though I've done my due diligence, this doesn't seem to exist already. Maybe I'm wrong---if you know of something that would serve this purpose, by all means let me know, and thank you in advance. But assuming it doesn't exist, I guess I have to go write it myself. Here's the thing, though: I've never done anything this ambitious. I don't really know where to begin. I've used PHP for years, but just to do the standard "build a CMS with PHP and MySQL"-type of stuff. I've never attempted anything as seemingly sophisticated as translation from one language to another. I'm just dumb enough to consider doing it with regex---after all, LaTeX is a much more formal language, and it doesn't allow for nearly the kinds of pathological edge-cases, as say, HTML. But on the other hand, I'm just smart enough to realize this is probably a terrible idea: now I have two problems, and I sure don't want to end up like this guy. So if that's not the way to go (right?), what is? How should I start thinking about this problem? Am I essentially writing a LaTeX compiler in PHP, and if so, what do I need to know to do that (like, should I just go read the Purple Dragon book first?)? I'm both really excited and pretty intimidated by the prospect of this project, but hey, this is how we all learn to be programmers, right? If something we need doesn't exist, we go and build it, necessity is the mother of... you get the point. Tremendous thanks to everyone in advance for any and all guidance you can offer.

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• Write STDOUT & STDERR to a logfile, also write STDERR to screen

  - by Stefan Lasiewski

  I would like to run several commands, and capture all output to a logfile. I also want to print any errors to the screen (or optionally mail the output to someone). Here's an example. The following command will run three commands, and will write all output (STDOUT and STDERR) into a single logfile. { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } > logfile.log 2>&1 Here is what I want to do with the output of these commands: STDERR and STDOUT for all commands goes to a logfile, in case I need it later--- I usually won't look in here unless there are problems. Print STDERR to the screen (or optionally, pipe to /bin/mail), so that any error stands out and doesn't get ignored. It would be nice if the return codes were still usable, so that I could do some error handling. Maybe I want to send email if there was an error, like this: { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } logfile.log 2&1 || mailx -s "There was an error" [email protected] The problem I run into is that STDERR loses context during I/O redirection. A '2&1' will convert STDERR into STDOUT, and therefore I cannot view errors if I do 2 error.log Here are a couple juicier examples. Let's pretend that I am running some familiar build commands, but I don't want the entire build to stop just because of one error so I use the '--keep-going' flag. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install ; } > build.log 2>&1 Or, here's a simple (And perhaps sloppy) build and deploy script, which will keep going in the event of an error. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install && rsync -av --keep-going /foo devhost:/foo} > build-and-deploy.log 2>&1 I think what I want involves some sort of Bash I/O Redirection, but I can't figure this out.

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• Coldfusion Report Builder - How can you set different datasources externally between prod/staging/de

  - by Smooth Operator

  Coldfusion Report Builder is great. One small issue. We use ANT+CFANT to deploy. When we create the report, say in a datasource called MyApp_dev on a dev box. Everything works great when the report is created. We deploy the report to our staging server, which has a datasource of MyApp_Staging. That server also, may or may not, have the live app working under MyApp_Live. Ant pushes the update to Staging just great. Run the report, crashes and burns. Why? It seems the report is looking for the MyApp_Dev data_source, even though the application is using the MyApp_Staging datasource. In digging around I found a few approaches, I would like to do this one, final, ideal way from the beginning instead of having to go back to do dozens of reports differently when I have a new Aha! moment. 1) Obvious: Pass in the datasource in to the cfreport tag. Doesn't work for ColdFusion Builder Reports as of v8, or v9 as tested on Linux. 2) Most realistic option (but painful) so far: Pass in the query as an object into the ColdFusion Builder report. Let's think about this: Create the Report with the report builder to my heart's content using the RDS, etc on my local box. When I'm done, copy the query into a snippet of code, or into a database column to be dynamically be injected at runtime with correct datasource. Modify my "run report" event to find the query from the database column, insert it into another dynamic cfquery and potentially... evaluate (!?!) it? Fun side is I can set the cfquery datasource to what I would need for each environment. When I modify the report's columns in CF Report Builder, I always have to update the query in the database. Is there a snippet of code that can extract this for me? Hmm. 3) Less than ideal. Suck it up and let all the reports in staging run off the live server. Maybe copy the live data into staging (sans structural changes) to let it seem similar. Are there any eloquent ways to accomplish the above? Thanks in Advance!

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• Starting ActiveMQ message listener in Tomcat?

  - by Nick Swarr

  I've created an ActiveMQ MessageListener and configured it using Spring. I'm hosting the listener in Tomcat. When I start up the web application (that features only the listener), should the listener automatically start? Or do I need additional configuration? Here's what I have. First, updated the web.xml to allow spring to configure itself on startup, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app version="2.5" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/classes/spring/applicationContext.xml</param-value> </context-param> </web-app> Then I created the applicationContext.xml to configure the ActiveMQ listener, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:amq="http://activemq.apache.org/schema/core" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config /> <context:component-scan base-package="com.somepackage"/> <context:property-placeholder location="classpath:env.properties"/> <bean id="jmsFactory" class="org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory"> <property name="brokerURL" value="tcp://localhost:61616" /> </bean> <bean id="documentListener" class="com.somepackage.SomeListener" /> <bean id="container" class="org.springframework.jms.listener.DefaultMessageListenerContainer"> <property name="connectionFactory" ref="cachingConnectionFactory"/> <property name="messageListener" ref="documentListener"/> <property name="destinationName" value="STOCKS.MSFT" /> </bean> <bean id="cachingConnectionFactory" class="org.springframework.jms.connection.CachingConnectionFactory"> <property name="targetConnectionFactory" ref="jmsFactory" /> <property name="sessionCacheSize" value="1" /> </bean> </beans> And that's it. Based on what I've seen around the web, I can't tell if that's all I need? Maybe I need some other configuration in Tomcat to kick off the listener?

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• ImageMagick: convert png fail via PHP and works via bash shell

  - by wedix

  I've got a very weird bug which I've yet to find a solution. UPDATE see solution below What I am trying to do is convert a full size picture into a 160x120 thumbnail. It works great with jpg and jpeg files of any size, but not with png. ImageMagick command: /opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png' PHP function (shortened) ... $cmd = "/opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png'"; exec($cmd, $output, $retval); $errors += $retval; if ($errors > 0) { die(print_r($output)); } When this function runs $retval equal 1 which means the convert command failed (thumbnail isn't created). This is where it gets interesting, if I run the exact same command in my shell, it works. wedbook:~ wedix$ /opt/local/bin/convert '/WEBSERVER/images/img_0003-192-10.png' -thumbnail x320 -resize '320x<' -resize 50% -gravity center -crop 160x120+0+0 +repage -quality 91 '/WEBSERVER/thumbs/small_img_0003-192-10.png' wedbook:~ wedix$ I've tried using different PHP function such as system, passthru but it didn't work. I thought maybe someone here knew the solution. I'm using MAMP 1.7.2 Apache/2.0.59 PHP/5.2.6 Thanks! UPDATE I updated the following dependencies libpng from 1.2.35 to 1.2.37 libiconv from 1.12_2 to 1.13_0 ImageMagick 6.5.2-4_1 to 6.5.2-9_0 However, it did not fix my problem. 2nd UPDATE I finally found something that might help, when the function runs this is what gets printed in the Apache logs: dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/bin/convert Reason: Incompatible library version: convert requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 3rd UPDATE libiconv.2.dylib is version 8.0.0... bash-3.2$ otool -L /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib (compatibility version 8.0.0, current version 8.0.0) /usr/lib/libgcc_s.1.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 1.0.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 111.1.4) 4th UPDATE Problem was related to MAMP, see solution below

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• Finding what makes strings unique in a list, can you improve on brute force?

  - by Ed Guiness

  Suppose I have a list of strings where each string is exactly 4 characters long and unique within the list. For each of these strings I want to identify the position of the characters within the string that make the string unique. So for a list of three strings abcd abcc bbcb For the first string I want to identify the character in 4th position d since d does not appear in the 4th position in any other string. For the second string I want to identify the character in 4th position c. For the third string it I want to identify the character in 1st position b AND the character in 4th position, also b. This could be concisely represented as abcd -> ...d abcc -> ...c bbcb -> b..b If you consider the same problem but with a list of binary numbers 0101 0011 1111 Then the result I want would be 0101 -> ..0. 0011 -> .0.. 1111 -> 1... Staying with the binary theme I can use XOR to identify which bits are unique within two binary numbers since 0101 ^ 0011 = 0110 which I can interpret as meaning that in this case the 2nd and 3rd bits (reading left to right) are unique between these two binary numbers. This technique might be a red herring unless somehow it can be extended to the larger list. A brute-force approach would be to look at each string in turn, and for each string to iterate through vertical slices of the remainder of the strings in the list. So for the list abcd abcc bbcb I would start with abcd and iterate through vertical slices of abcc bbcb where these vertical slices would be a | b | c | c b | b | c | b or in list form, "ab", "bb", "cc", "cb". This would result in four comparisons a : ab -> . (a is not unique) b : bb -> . (b is not unique) c : cc -> . (c is not unique) d : cb -> d (d is unique) or concisely abcd -> ...d Maybe it's wishful thinking, but I have a feeling that there should be an elegant and general solution that would apply to an arbitrarily large list of strings (or binary numbers). But if there is I haven't yet been able to see it. I hope to use this algorithm to to derive minimal signatures from a collection of unique images (bitmaps) in order to efficiently identify those images at a future time. If future efficiency wasn't a concern I would use a simple hash of each image. Can you improve on brute force?

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• Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

  - by omatase

  I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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• Turn class "Interfaceable"

  - by scooterman

  Hi folks, On my company system, we use a class to represent beans. It is just a holder of information using boost::variant and some serialization/deserialization stuff. It works well, but we have a problem: it is not over an interface, and since we use modularization through dlls, building an interface for it is getting very complicated, since it is used in almost every part of our app, and sadly interfaces (abstract classes ) on c++ have to be accessed through pointers, witch makes almost impossible to refactor the entire system. Our structure is: dll A: interface definition through abstract class dll B: interface implementation there is a painless way to achieve that (maybe using templates, I don't know) or I should forget about making this work and simply link everything with dll B? thanks Edit: Here is my example. this is on dll A BeanProtocol is a holder of N dataprotocol itens, wich are acessed by a index. class DataProtocol; class UTILS_EXPORT BeanProtocol { public: virtual DataProtocol& get(const unsigned int ) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual void getFields(std::list<unsigned int>&) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual DataProtocol& operator[](const unsigned int ) { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual DataProtocol& operator[](const unsigned int ) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual void fromString(const std::string&) { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual std::string toString() const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual void fromBinary(const std::string&) { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual std::string toBinary() const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual BeanProtocol& operator=(const BeanProtocol&) { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual bool operator==(const BeanProtocol&) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual bool operator!=(const BeanProtocol&) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual bool operator==(const char*) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } virtual bool hasKey(unsigned int field) const { throw std::runtime_error("Not implemented"); } }; the other class (named GenericBean) implements it. This is the only way I've found to make this work, but now I want to turn it in a truly interface and remove the UTILS_EXPORT (which is an _declspec macro), and finally remove the forced linkage of B with A.

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• Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

  - by Dennis Zickefoose

  I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

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• Strange iPhone memory leak in xml parser

  - by Chris

  Update: I edited the code, but the problem persists... Hi everyone, this is my first post here - I found this place a great ressource for solving many of my questions. Normally I try my best to fix anything on my own but this time I really have no idea what goes wrong, so I hope someone can help me out. I am building an iPhone app that parses a couple of xml files using TouchXML. I have a class XMLParser, which takes care of downloading and parsing the results. I am getting memory leaks when I parse an xml file more than once with the same instance of XMLParser. Here is one of the parsing snippets (just the relevant part): for(int counter = 0; counter < [item childCount]; counter++) { CXMLNode *child = [item childAtIndex:counter]; if([[child name] isEqualToString:@"PRODUCT"]) { NSMutableDictionary *product = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(int j = 0; j < [child childCount]; j++) { CXMLNode *grandchild = [child childAtIndex:j]; if([[grandchild stringValue] length] > 1) { NSString *trimmedString = [[grandchild stringValue] stringByTrimmingCharactersInSet:[NSCharacterSet whitespaceAndNewlineCharacterSet]]; [product setObject:trimmedString forKey:[grandchild name]]; } } // Add product to current category array switch (categoryId) { case 0: [self.mobil addObject: product]; break; case 1: [self.allgemein addObject: product]; break; case 2: [self.besitzeIch addObject: product]; break; case 3: [self.willIch addObject: product]; break; default: break; } [product release]; } } The first time, I parse the xml no leak shows up in instruments, the next time I do so, I got a lot of leaks (NSCFString / NSCFDictionary). Instruments points me to this part inside CXMLNode.m, when I dig into a leaked object: theStringValue = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(const char *)theXMLString]; if ( _node->type != CXMLTextKind ) xmlFree(theXMLString); } return(theStringValue); I really spent a long time and tried multiple approaches to fix this, but to no avail so far, maybe I am missing something essential? Any help is highly appreciated, thank you!

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• Where is the method call in the EXE file?

  - by Victor Hurdugaci

  Introduction After watching this video from LIDNUG, about .NET code protection http://secureteam.net/lidnug_recording/Untitled.swf (especially from 46:30 to 57:30), I would to locate the call to a MessageBox.Show in an EXE I created. The only logic in my "TrialApp.exe" is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("This is trial app"); } } Compiled on the Release configuration: http://rapidshare.com/files/392503054/TrialApp.exe.html What I do to locate the call Run the application in WinDBG and break after the message box appears. Get the CLR stack with !clrstack: 0040e840 5e21350b [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e840] System.Windows.Forms.SafeNativeMethods.MessageBox(System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef, System.String, System.String, Int32) 0040e894 5e21350b System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.ShowCore(System.Windows.Forms.IWin32Window, System.String, System.String, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxDefaultButton, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxOptions, Boolean) 0040e898 002701f0 [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e898] 0040e934 002701f0 TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Get the MethodDesc structure (using the address of Form1_Load) !ip2md 002701f0 MethodDesc: 001762f8 Method Name: TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Class: 00171678 MethodTable: 00176354 mdToken: 06000005 Module: 00172e9c IsJitted: yes CodeAddr: 002701d0 Transparency: Critical Source file: D:\temp\TrialApp\TrialApp\Form1.cs @ 22 Dump the IL of this method (by MethodDesc) !dumpil 001762f8 IL_0000: ldstr "This is trial app" IL_0005: call System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox::Show IL_000a: pop IL_000b: ret So, as the video mentioned, the call to to Show is 5 bytes from the beginning of the method implementation. Now I open CFFExplorer (just like in the video) and get the RVA of the Form1_Load method: 00002083. After this, I go to Address Converter (again in CFF Explorer) and navigate to offset 00002083. There we have: 32 72 01 00 00 70 28 16 00 00 0A 26 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 In the video is mentioned that the first 12 bytes are for the method header so I skip them 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 5 bytes from the beginning of the implementation should be the opcode for method call (28). Unfortunately, is not there. 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 Questions: What am I doing wrong? Why there is no method call at that position in the file? Or maybe the video is missing some information... Why the guy in that video replaces the call with 9 zeros?

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• Getting XML data from a external page and parsing it with PHP

  - by James P

  I'm trying to create a database of World of Warcraft gems. If I go to this page: http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items And go to View Source in Firefox, I see a tonne of XML data which is exactly what I want. I wrote up this quick script to try and parse some of it: <?php $gemUrls = array( 'Blue' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=blue&searchType=items', 'Red' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=red&searchType=items', 'Yellow' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=yellow&searchType=items', 'Meta' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=meta&searchType=items', 'Green' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=green&searchType=items', 'Orange' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=orange&searchType=items', 'Purple' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items', 'Prismatic' => 'http://www.wowarmory.com/search.xml?fl[source]=all&fl[type]=gems&fl[subTp]=purple&searchType=items' ); // Get blue gems $blueGems = file_get_contents($gemUrls['Blue']); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($blueGems); echo $xml->items[0]->item; ?> But I get a load of errors like this: Warning: SimpleXMLElement::__construct() [simplexmlelement.--construct]: Entity: line 20: parser error : xmlParseEntityRef: no name in C:\xampp\htdocs\WoW\index.php on line 19 Warning: SimpleXMLElement::__construct() [simplexmlelement.--construct]: if(Browser.iphone && Number(getcookie2("mobIntPageVisits")) < 3 && getcookie2( in C:\xampp\htdocs\WoW\index.php on line 19 I'm not sure what's wrong. I think file_get_contents() is bringing back data that isn't XML, maybe some Javascript files judging by the iPhone parts in the errors. Is there any way to just get back the XML from that page? Without any HTML or anything? Thanks :)

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• Advice on software / database design to avoid using cursors when updating database

  - by Remnant

  I have a database that logs when an employee has attended a course and when they are next due to attend the course (courses tend to be annual). As an example, the following employee attended course '1' on 1st Jan 2010 and, as the course is annual, is due to attend next on the 1st Jan 2011. As today is 20th May 2010 the course status reads as 'Complete' i.e. they have done the course and do not need to do it again until next year: EmployeeID CourseID AttendanceDate DueDate Status 123456 1 01/01/2010 01/01/2011 Complete In terms of the DueDate I calculate this in SQL when I update the employee's record e.g. DueDate = AttendanceDate + CourseFrequency (I pull course frequency this from a separate table). In my web based app (asp.net mvc) I pull back this data for all employees and display it in a grid like format for HR managers to review. This allows HR to work out who needs to go on courses. The issue I have is as follows. Taking the example above, suppose today is 2nd Jan 2011. In this case, employee 123456 is now overdue for the course and I would like to set the Status to Incomplete so that the HR manager can see that they need to action this i.e. get employee on the course. I could build a trigger in the database to run overnight to update the Status field for all employees based on the current date. From what I have read I would need to use cursors to loop over each row to amend the status and this is considered bad practice / inefficient or at least something to avoid if you can??? Alternatively, I could compute the Status in my C# code after I have pulled back the data from the database and before I display it on screen. The issue with this is that the Status in the database would not necessarily match what is shown on screen which just feels plain wrong to me. Does anybody have any advice on the best practice approach to such an issue? It helps, if I did use a cursor I doubt I would be looping over more than 1000 records at any given time. Maybe this is such small volume that using cursors is okay?

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• Calling an Excel Add-In method from C# application or vice versa

  - by Jude

  I have an Excel VBA add-in with a public method in a bas file. This method currently creates a VB6 COM object, which exists in a running VB6 exe/vbp. The VB6 app loads in data and then the Excel add-in method can call methods on the VB6 COM object to load the data into an existing Excel xls. This is all currently working. We have since converted our VB6 app to C#. My question is: What is the best/easiest way to mimic this behavior with the C#/.NET app? I'm thinking I may not be able to pull the data from the .NET app into Excel from the add-in method since the .Net app needs to be running with data loaded (so no using a stand-alone C# class library). Maybe we can, instead, push the data from .NET to Excel by accessing the VBA add-in method from the C# code? The following is the existing VBA method accessing the VB6 app: Public Sub UpdateInDataFromApp() Dim wkbInData As Workbook Dim oFPW As Object Dim nMaxCols As Integer Dim nMaxRows As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim sName As String Dim nCol As Integer Dim nRow As Integer Dim sheetCnt As Integer Dim nDepth As Integer Dim sPath As String Dim vData As Variant Dim SheetRange As Range Set wkbInData = wkbOpen("InData.xls") sPath = g_sPathXLSfiles & "\" 'Note: the following will bring up fpw app if not already running Set oFPW = CreateObject("FPW.CProfilesData") If oFPW Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Unable to reference " & sApp Else . . . sheetCnt = wkbInData.Sheets.Count 'get number of sheets in indata workbook For j = 2 To sheetCnt 'set counter to loop over all sheets except the first one which is not input data fields With wkbInData.Worksheets(j) Set SheetRange = .UsedRange End With With SheetRange nMaxRows = .Rows.Count 'get range of sheet(j) nMaxCols = .Columns.Count 'get range of sheet(j) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearContents 'Clears data from data range (51 Columns) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearComments End With With oFPW 'vb6 object For nRow = 2 To nMaxRows ' loop through rows sName = SheetRange.Cells(nRow, 1) 'Field name vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, 0) 'Check if vb6 app identifies the name nDepth = .GetInputTableDepth(sName) 'Get number of data items for this field name from vb6 app nMaxCols = nDepth + 2 'nDepth=0, is single data item For nCol = 2 To nMaxCols 'loop over deep screen fields nDepth = nCol - 2 'current depth vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, nDepth) 'Get Data from vb6 app If LenB(vData) > 0 And IsNumeric(vData) Then 'Check if data returned SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke the data in Else SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke a zero in End If Next 'nCol Next 'nRow End With Set SheetRange = Nothing Next 'j End If Set wkbInData = Nothing Set oFPW = Nothing Exit Sub . . . End Sub Any help would be appreciated.

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