Search Results

Search found 15651 results on 627 pages for 'setup'.

Page 521/627 | < Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >

• Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

  - by cdpnet

  Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

  Read the article

• What is the correct connection string for clsql when accessing ms sqlserver using odbc?

  - by nunb

  I am accessing a database on another machine from an OS X server. After setting up freetds through macports and creating the freetds.conf file like so: dump file = /tmp/freetds.log # nunb our Microsoft server [winnt] host = 192.168.0.2 port = 1433 tds version = 8.0 I have the following test commands that work: Test freetds works: tsql -S winnt -U sa 1> use myDB; 2> select count (*) from "sysObjects"; 3> go ODBC is setup through /Applications/Utilities/ODBC\ Administrator.app, with dsn "gmb" using the freeTDS driver and a ServerName of "winnt" -- testing it yields: iodbctest "dsn=gmb;uid=sa;pwd=foo" SQL>select count (*) from "sysObjects"; = 792 Now I run the following code in lisp: (require 'asdf) (setf asdf:*central-registry* nil) (push #P"/Users/way/ff/clbuild/systems/" asdf:*central-registry*) (asdf:oos 'asdf:load-op 'cffi) (asdf:oos 'asdf:load-op 'clsql) (asdf:operate 'asdf:test-op 'cffi) (asdf:oos 'asdf:load-op 'clsql-odbc) (asdf:oos 'asdf:test-op 'clsql-odbc) (in-package :clsql-user) (connect '("gmb" "sa" "foo") :database-type :odbc) This drops me in the debugger with the error: debugger invoked on a SQL-DATABASE-ERROR in thread #<THREAD "initial thread" RUNNING {1194EA31}>: A database error occurred: NIL / IM002 [iODBC][Driver Manager]Data source name not found and no default driver specified. Driver could not be loaded Type HELP for debugger help, or (SB-EXT:QUIT) to exit from SBCL

  Read the article

• Reduce number of config files to as few as possible

  - by Scott

  For most of my applications I use iBatis.Net for database access/modeling and log4Net for logging. In doing this, I need a number of *.config files for each project. For example, for a simple application I need to have the following *.config files: app.config ([AssemblyName].[Extention].config) [AssemblyName].SqlMap.config [AssemblyName].log4Net.config [AssemblyName].SqlMapProperties.config providers.config When these applications go from DEV to TEST to PRODUCTION environments, the settings contained in these files change depending on the environment. When the number of files get compounded by having 5-10 (or more) supporting executables per project, the work load on the infrastructure team (the ones doing the roll-outs to the different environments) gets rather high. We also have a high risk of one of the config files being missed, or a mistype in the config file. What is the best way to avoid these risks? Should I combine all of the config files into one file? (is that possible with iBatis?) I know that with VisualStudio 2010 they introduce transforms for these config files that allow the developer to setup all the settings for the different environments and then dynamically (depending on the build kicked off) the config files get updated to the correct versions. (VS 2010 - transforms) Thank you for any help that you can provide.

  Read the article

• Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

  - by Vaccano

  I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

  Read the article

• How to know when StatusBar size changed (iPhone)

  - by JOM

  I have UITabBarController with 2 tabs. One resizes just fine, when StatusBar size changes (emulator "Toggle In-Call Status Bar" menu item). The other one doesn't. The problematic tab item contains a static view, which dynamically loads one or another view depending on certain things. While getting this setup working I discovered that main tab view did NOT automagically send e.g. viewWillAppear and viewWillDisappear messages to my dynamic subviews. Apple docs explained this was because dynamically added views were not recognized by the system. @interface MyTabViewController : UIViewController { UIView *mainView; FirstViewController *aController; SecondViewController *bController; } ... if (index == 0) { self.aController = [[FirstViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.mainView addSubview:aController.view]; [self.aController viewWillAppear:YES]; } How can I get StatusBar size changed event into my dynamic subviews? The "didChangeStatusBarFrame" doesn't work, as documented elsewhere.

  Read the article

• ocunit testing on iPhone

  - by Magnus Poromaa

  Hi I am trying to get ocunit working in my project from XCode. Since I also need to debug in the unit tests I am using a script that automates the setup (see below). I just include it in the project under resources and change the name to the .ocunit file I want it to run. The problem I get is that it cant find the bundle file and therefore exists with an error. Can anyone who has a clue about XCode and objective-c take a look at it and tell me what is wrong. Also how am I supposed to produce the .ocunit file that I need to run. By setting up a new unit test target for the iPhone and add tests to it or? Hope someone has a clue since I just started ny iPhone development and need to get it up and running quickly Apple Script -- The only customized value we need is the name of the test bundle tell me to activate tell application "Xcode" activate set thisProject to project of active project document tell thisProject set testBundleName to name of active target set unitTestExecutable to make new executable at end of executables set name of unitTestExecutable to testBundleName set path of unitTestExecutable to "/Applications/TextEdit.app" tell unitTestExecutable -- Add a "-SenTest All" argument make new launch argument with properties {active:true, name:"-SenTest All"} -- Add the magic set injectValue to "$(BUILT_PRODUCTS_DIR)/" & testBundleName & ".octest" make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"XCInjectBundle", value:injectValue} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"XCInjectBundleInto", value:"/Applications/TextEdit.app/Contents/MacOS/TextEdit"} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"DYLD_INSERT_LIBRARIES", value:"$(DEVELOPER_LIBRARY_DIR)/PrivateFrameworks/DevToolsBundleInjection.framework/DevToolsBundleInjection"} make new environment variable with properties {active:true, name:"DYLD_FALLBACK_FRAMEWORK_PATH", value:"$(DEVELOPER_LIBRARY_DIR)/Frameworks"} end tell end tell end tell Cheers Magnus

  Read the article

• This is more a matlab/math brain teaser than a question

  - by gd047

  Here is the setup. No assumptions for the values I am using. n=2; % dimension of vectors x and (square) matrix P r=2; % number of x vectors and P matrices x1 = [3;5] x2 = [9;6] x = cat(2,x1,x2) P1 = [6,11;15,-1] P2 = [2,21;-2,3] P(:,1)=P1(:) P(:,2)=P2(:) modePr = [-.4;16] TransPr=[5.9,0.1;20.2,-4.8] pred_modePr = TransPr'*modePr MixPr = TransPr.*(modePr*(pred_modePr.^(-1))') x0 = x*MixPr Then it was time to apply the following formula to get myP , where µij is MixPr. I used this code to get it: myP=zeros(n*n,r); Ptables(:,:,1)=P1; Ptables(:,:,2)=P2; for j=1:r for i = 1:r; temp = MixPr(i,j)*(Ptables(:,:,i) + ... (x(:,i)-x0(:,j))*(x(:,i)-x0(:,j))'); myP(:,j)= myP(:,j) + temp(:); end end Some brilliant guy proposed this formula as another way to produce myP for j=1:r xk1=x(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP0(:,j)=PP(:); xk1=x0(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP1(:,j)=PP(:); end myP = (P+PP0)*MixPr-PP1 I tried to formulate the equality between the two methods and seems to be this one. To make things easier, I ignored from both methods the summation of matrix P. where the first part denotes the formula that I used, while the second comes from his code snippet. Do you think this is an obvious equality? If yes, ignore all the above and just try to explain why. I could only start from the LHS, and after some algebra I think I proved it equals to the RHS. However I can't see how did he (or she) think of it in the first place.

  Read the article

• Any way to identify a redirect when using jQuery's $.ajax() or $.getScript() methods?

  - by Bungle

  Within my company's online application, we've set up a JSONP-based API that returns some data that is used by a bookmarklet I'm developing. Here is a quick test page I set up that hits the API URL using jQuery's $.ajax() method: http://troy.onespot.com/static/3915/index.html If you look at the requests using Firebug's "Net" tab (or the like), you'll see that what's happening is that the URL is requested successfully, but since our app redirects any unauthorized users to a login page, the login page is also requested by the browser and seemingly interpreted as JavaScript. This inevitably causes an exception since the login page is HTML, not JavaScript. Basically, I'm looking for any sort of hook to determine when the request results in a redirect - some way to determine if the URL resolved to a JSONP response (which will execute a method I've predefined in the bookmarklet script) or if it resulted in a redirect. I tried wrapping the $.ajax() method in a try {} catch(e) {} block, but that doesn't trap the exception, I'm assuming because the requests were successful, just not the parsing of the login page as JavaScript. Is there anywhere I could use a try {} catch(e) {} block, or any property of $.ajax() that might allow me to hone in on the exception or otherwise determine that I've been redirected? I actually doubt this is possible, since $.getScript() (or the equivalent setup of $.ajax()) just loads a script dynamically, and can't inspect the response headers since it's cross-domain and not truly AJAX: http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.getScript/ My alternative would be to just fire off the $.ajax() for a period of time until I either get the JSONP callback or don't, and in the latter case, assume the user is not logged in and prompt them to do so. I don't like that method, though, since it would result in a lot of unnecessary requests to the app server, and would also pile up the JavaScript exceptions in the meantime. Thanks for any suggestions!

  Read the article

• How to display NotifyIcon and SSDP Service running during AutoLogon

  - by Paul Farry

  I've got an application (that is targetting .Net Framework 2.0) that is running on startup of the System, and I'm trying to get a NotifyIcon to display. When my program starts up when a user either Runs it normally or is started as a child process after the system has already logged on everything is fine. If my application starts up as the system is performing an AutoLogon using POSReady2009 (basically XP with Single User set). Then the NotifyIcon never becomes active. If you subsequently check (in a timer) the .Visible of the Icon at any point later it always reports that it is visible = true. If you disable the SSDPSrv and restart the Computer, the Icon displays correctly. I have a sneaking suspicion this is related to .Net 3.5sp1 installed over the top of a .Net 2 system. Is there some process that I should be following to ensure that my NotifyIcon is always available to the user. I have setup RegisterWindowMessage("TaskbarCreated") but I don't get this message called, except when you forcilbly Kill Explorer.exe and restart it. Even so, a NotifyIcon interally registers for these notifications anyway, so it shouldn't be required. I'm happy to stall the startup of my program, but once the program starts up, I expect that the icon shows correctly. If there is a KB article that I cannot find detailing this I'd be happy with that too.

  Read the article

• Weblogic EJB calls start to fail under moderate load with OptionalDataException

  - by MarkoU

  Our system setup consists of two Weblogic 10.3 servers: one hosts the presentation layer and the other hosts the EJBs. The system runs fine under moderate load for some time (one to several days) after which EJB method calls from the presentation server to the EJB server start to fail with the following error: java.rmi.RemoteException: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: error unmarshalling arguments; nested exception is: java.io.OptionalDataException Stack trace: java.io.OptionalDataException at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject0(ObjectInputStream.java:1349) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject(ObjectInputStream.java:351) at weblogic.utils.io.ChunkedObjectInputStream.readObject(ChunkedObjectInputStream.java:197) at weblogic.rjvm.MsgAbbrevInputStream.readObject(MsgAbbrevInputStream.java:564) at weblogic.utils.io.ChunkedObjectInputStream.readObject(ChunkedObjectInputStream.java:193) at weblogic.jndi.internal.RootNamingNode_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) at weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) at weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) at weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) at weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) at weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) Once the first OptionalDataException is encountered all subsequent calls fail with the same result. Some sources suggest that this might be related to cluster multicast port being misconfigured. However, these servers do not belong to a cluster. Booting the EJB server always temporarily resolves the issue, but the issue seems to occur again after some time. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Create win task to run once and delete immediately using C#

  - by pencilslate

  Here is the use case: - Create a new win task, run immediately and once complete, delete the task. Here is basic code to create a task using C#. using (TaskService ts = new TaskService(null)) { string projectName = "runnowtest" + Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); //create new task TaskDefinition td = ts.NewTask(); Trigger mt = null; //setup task as Registration trigger mt = td.Triggers.AddNew(TaskTriggerType.Registration); mt.StartBoundary = DateTime.Now; //delete the task 1 minute after the program ends td.Settings.DeleteExpiredTaskAfter = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); //run the notepad++ in the task td.Actions.Add(new ExecAction("notepad.exe")); //register task Task output = ts.RootFolder.RegisterTaskDefinition(projectName, td); //check output Console.WriteLine(output != null ? "Task created" : "Task not created"); } The API doesn't seem to have a property/flag to mark task as run once. I am trying to ensure the above task runs only once and deletes immediately after that. Any thoughts are much appreciated!

  Read the article

• vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

  - by intuited

  I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

  Read the article

• F# and .Net versions

  - by rwallace

  I'm writing a program in F# at the moment, which I specified in the Visual Studio project setup to target .Net 3.5, this being the highest offered, on the theory that I might as well get the best available. Then I tried just now running the compiled program on an XP box, not expecting it to work, but just to see what would happen. Unsurprisingly I just got an error message demanding an appropriate version of the framework, but surprisingly it wasn't 3.5 it demanded, but 2.0.50727. An additional puzzle is the version of MSBuild I'm using to compile the release version of the program, which I found in the framework 3.5 directory but claims to be framework 2.0 and build engine 3.5. I just guessed it was the right version of MSBuild to use because it seemed to correspond with the highest framework version F# seems to be able to target, but should I be using a different version? Anyone have any idea what's going on? C:\Windows>dir/s msbuild.exe Volume in drive C is OS Volume Serial Number is 0422-C2D0 Directory of C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727 27/07/2008 19:03 69,632 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 69,632 bytes Directory of C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5 29/07/2008 23:40 91,136 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 91,136 bytes Directory of C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319 18/03/2010 16:47 132,944 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 132,944 bytes Directory of C:\Windows\winsxs\x86_msbuild_b03f5f7f11d50a3a_6.0.6000.16386_none_815e96e1b0e084be 20/10/2006 02:14 69,632 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 69,632 bytes Directory of C:\Windows\winsxs\x86_msbuild_b03f5f7f11d50a3a_6.0.6000.16720_none_81591d45b0e55432 27/07/2008 19:00 69,632 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 69,632 bytes Directory of C:\Windows\winsxs\x86_msbuild_b03f5f7f11d50a3a_6.0.6000.20883_none_6a9133e9ca879925 27/07/2008 18:55 69,632 MSBuild.exe 1 File(s) 69,632 bytes C:\Windows>cd Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5>msbuild /ver Microsoft (R) Build Engine Version 3.5.30729.1 [Microsoft .NET Framework, Version 2.0.50727.3053] Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation 2007. All rights reserved. 3.5.30729.1

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services and the Report Viewer

  - by Kendra

  I am having an issue embedding my report into an aspx page. Here's my setup: 1 Server running SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services 1 Workstation running XP and VS 2005 The server is not on a domain. Reporting Services is a default installation. I have one report called TestMe in a folder called TestReports using a shared datasource. If I view the report in Report Manager, it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver url it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver?/TestReports/TestMe it renders fine. If I try to view the report using http ://myserver/reportserver/TestReports/TestMe, it just goes to the folder navigation page of the home directory. My web application is impersonating somebody specific to get around the server not being on a domain. When I call the report from the report viewer using http ://myserver/reportserver as the server and /TestReports/TestMe as the path I get this error: For security reasons DTD is prohibited in this XML document. To enable DTD processing set the ProhibitDtd property on XmlReaderSettings to false and pass the settings into XmlReader.Create method. When I change the server to http ://myserver/reportserver? I get this error when I run the report: Client found response content type of '', but expected 'text/xml'. The request failed with an empty response. I have been searching for a while and haven't found anything that fixes my issue. Please let me know if there is more information needed. Thanks in advance, Kendra

  Read the article

• presentModalViewController does not want to work when called from a protocol method

  - by johnbdh

  I have a subview that when double tapped a protocol method on the subview's parent view controller is called like this... - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *theTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (theTouch.tapCount == 1) { } else if (theTouch.tapCount == 2) { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(editEvent:)]) { [self.delegate editEvent:dictionary]; } } } Here is the protocol method with the dictionary consuming code removed... - (void)editEvent:(NSDictionary){ EventEditViewController *eventEditViewController = [[EventEditViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"EventEditViewController" bundle:nil]; eventEditViewController.delegate = self; navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:eventEditViewController]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [eventEditViewController release]; } The protocol method is called and runs without any errors but the modal view does not present itself. I temporarily copied the protocol method's code to an IBAction method for one of the parent's view button's to isolate it from the subview. When I tap this button the modal view works fine. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? Why does it work when executed from a button on the parent view, and not from a protocol method called from a subview. Here is what I have tried so far to work around the problem... Restarted xCode and the simulator Ran on the device (iTouch) Presenting eventEditViewController instead of navigationController Using Push instead of presentModal. delaying the call to the protocol with performSelector directly to the protocol, to another method in the subview which calls the protocol method, from the protocol method to another method with the presentModal calls. Using a timer. I have it currently setup so that the protocol method calls a known working method that presents a different view. Before calling presentModalViewController it pops a UIAlertView which works every time, but the modal view refuses to display when called via the protocol method. I'm stumped. Perhaps it has something to do with the fact that I am calling the protocol method from a UIView class instead of a UIViewController class. Maybe I need to create a UIViewController for the subView?? Thanks, John

  Read the article

• How can I call from my PC through my cisco ip phone?

  - by Enjoy coding

  Hi gurus, I am trying to call a telephone number fro my PC through my ip phone once my application completes its work. So I am searching for a way to access my ip phone from my PC. Please correct me if I am wrong or missing the obvious. On my PC in office selecting a phone in Microsoft office communicator and making calls from PC through my Cisco IP Phone is disabled. Is there any way i can programmatically call a external phone or mobile number from my PC as my ip phone is connected to my PC. I tried out etQuickDial and Make/Drop calls. But I am not able to find the appropriate way or setup to make calls. I also googled for any libraries and i saw some TAPI but was not able to get correct way. Please help me out with this. My cisco ip phone is 7940. My environment is Windows XP. Please let me know if you need more details. No problems with me even if you propose a solution involving coding or a non coding way of downloading and installing any applications. Thanks in advance. If you dont want me to post it here and If I need to put it in super user or server fault or some where else please direct me appropriately. I did not use any of these two before so I posted this question here.

  Read the article

• Create a VPN with Python

  - by user213060

  I want to make a device "tunnel box" that you plug an input ethernet line, and an output ethernet line, and all the traffic that goes through it gets modified in a special way. This is similar to how a firewall, IDS, VPN, or similar boxes are connected inline in a network. I think you can just assume that I am writing a custom VPN in Python for the purpose of this question: LAN computer <--\ LAN computer <---> [LAN switch] <--> ["tunnel box"] <--> [internet modem] <--> LAN computer <--/ My question is, what is a good way to program this "tunnel box" from python? My application needs to see TCP flows at the network layer, not as individual ethernet frames. Non-TCP/IP traffic such as ICPM and other types should just be passed through. Example Twisted-like Code for my "tunnel box" tunnel appliance: from my_code import special_data_conversion_function class StreamInterceptor(twisted.Protocol): def dataReceived(self,data): data=special_data_conversion_function(data) self.outbound_connection.send(data) My initial guesses: TUN/TAP with twisted.pair.tuntap.py - Problem: This seems to only work at the ethernet frame level, not like my example? Socks proxy - Problem: Not transparent as in my diagram. Programs have to be specifically setup for it. Thanks!

  Read the article

• create app that has plugin which contains PyQt widget

  - by brian

  I'm writing an application that will use plugins. In the plugin I want to include a widget that allows the options for that plugin to be setup. The plugin will also include methods to operate on the data. What is is the best way to include a widget in a plugin? Below is pseudo code for what I've tried to do. My original plan was to make the options widget: class myOptionsWidget(QWidget): “”” create widget for plug in options “”” …. Next I planned on including the widget in my plugin: class myPlugin def __init__(self): self.optionWidget = myOptionsWidget() self.pluginNum = 1 …. def getOptionWidget(self): return(self.optionWidget) Then at the top level I'd do something like a = myPlugin() form = createForm(option=a.getOptionWidget()) … where createForm would create the form and include my plugin options widget. But when I try "a = myPlugin()" I get the error "QWidget: Must construct a QApplication before a QpaintDevice" so this method won't work. I know I would store the widget as a string and call eval on it but I'd rather not do that in case later on I want to convert the program to C++. What is the best way to write a plugin that includes a widget that has the options? Brian

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005 standard filegroups / files for performance on SAN

  - by Blootac

  Ok so I've just been on a SQL Server course and we discussed the usage scenarios of multiple filegroups and files when in use over local RAID and local disks but we didn't touch SAN scenarios so my question is as follows; I currently have a 250 gig database running on SQL Server 2005 where some tables have a huge number of writes and others are fairly static. The database and all objects reside in a single file group with a single data file. The log file is also on the same volume. My interpretation is that separate data files should be used across different disks to lessen disk contention and that file groups should be used for partitioning of data. However, with a SAN you obviously don't really have the same issue of disk contention that you do with a small RAID setup (or at least we don't at the moment), and standard edition doesn't support partitioning. So in order to improve parallelism what should I do? My understanding of various Microsoft publications is that if I increase the number of data files, separate threads can act across each file separately. Which leads me to the question how many files should I have. One per core? Should I be putting tables and indexes with high levels of activity in separate file groups, each with the same number of data files as we have cores? Thank you

  Read the article

• Perf4j Not Logging to Separate File

  - by Jehud

  I setup some stop watch calls in my code to measure some code blocks and all the messages are going into my primary log and not into the timing log. The perfStats.log file gets created just fine but all the messages go to the root log which I didn't think was supposed to happen according to the docs I've read. Is there something obvious I'm missing here? Example log4j.xml <!-- This file appender is used to output aggregated performance statistics --> <appender name="fileAppender" class="org.apache.log4j.FileAppender"> <param name="File" value="perfStats.log"/> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%m%n"/> </layout> </appender> <!-- Loggers --> <!-- The Perf4J logger. Note that org.perf4j.TimingLogger is the value of the org.perf4j.StopWatch.DEFAULT_LOGGER_NAME constant. Also, note that additivity is set to false, which is usually what is desired - this means that timing statements will only be sent to this logger and NOT to upstream loggers. --> <logger name="org.perf4j.TimingLogger" additivity="false"> <level value="INFO"/> <appender-ref ref="CoalescingStatistics"/> </logger> <root> <priority value="info"/> <appender-ref ref="STDOUT-DEBUG"/> </root>

  Read the article

• PHP gettext function only returns orignal untranslated string

  - by Camsoft

  I'm trying to use gettext add localisation support to my website. I've followed various guides on how to setup gettext and have done the following: I've created the following files and directories in the root of my project dir: test.php locale/ de_DE LC_MESSAGES messages.mo messages.po en_GB LC_MESSAGES messages.mo messages.po I've used Poedit to create the above .po and mo files. I've made sue it use Unix line endings, UTF-8 and set the language and country accordingly. I've then created a PHP script called test.php which has the following code: <?php define('LOCALE', 'de_DE'); // Set up environmental variables putenv("LC_ALL=" . LOCALE); setlocale(LC_ALL, LOCALE); bindtextdomain("messages", "./locale"); bind_textdomain_codeset("messages", LOCALE .".utf8"); textdomain("messages"); die(gettext('This is a test.')); ?> I've imported the text "This is a test." to Poedit and supplied the translation and saved it. But for some reason the test.php script will only output the original text untranslated. It refuses to load the version for the translation files. It's worth noting that the server is running Linux (Ubuntu), Apache 2.2.11 and PHP 5.2.6-3ubuntu4.5. I've checked phpinfo() and gettext is enabled. Can someone help me? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Themeing and Master Pages

  - by Jeff

  I have the requirement to support themeing of my site's pages. The way I am doing this is by dynamically choosing a master page based on the current theme. I have setup a directory structure like so /shared/masterpages/theme1/Master1.master /shared/masterpages/theme1/Master2.master /shared/masterpages/theme1/Master3.master /shared/masterpages/theme2/Master1.master /shared/masterpages/theme2/Master2.master /shared/masterpages/theme2/Master3.master And I am still using the page directive in the view <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/shared/masterpages/theme1/Master1.Master"%> I would still like to leverage the view's MasterPageFile property and just change the theme directory. I can only think of three ways to do this none of them which sound great. Create a custom BaseView class that uses OnPreInit to change the theme like this Create some xml file or database table that links each view to a master page file and then set this in the controller. Build some tool that reads all the views and parses them for their masterpagefile, (similar to 2 but could be done at run time potentially.) Option 1 seems the best option to me so far. Does anyone else have any thoughts on how to do this?

  Read the article

• More issues with IntelliJ 9.0.1 "Hello World" in Scala - Predef version 5.0 vs 4.1

  - by Alex R

  Any ideas what could cause this? Scala signature Predef has wrong version Expected 5.0 found: 4.1 in .... scala-library.jar I tried both versions 2.7.6 and 2.8 RC1 of scala-*.jar, the result was the same. JDK is 1.6.u20. UPDATE Today uninstalled IntelliJ 9.0.1, and installed 9.0.2 Early Availability, with the 4/14 stable version of the Scala plug-in. Then I setup a project from scratch through the wizards: new project from scratch JDK is 1.6.u20 accept the default (project) instead of global / module accept the download of Scala 2.8.0beta1 into project's lib folder Created a new class: object hello { def main(args: Array[String]) { println("hello: " + args); } } For my efforts, I now have a brand-new error :) Here it is: Scalac internal error: class java.lang.ClassNotFoundException [java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202), java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method), java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307), sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248), java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method), java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169), org.jetbrains.plugins.scala.compiler.rt.ScalacRunner.main(ScalacRunner.java:72)] Thanks

  Read the article

• PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

  - by pastylegs

  I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

  Read the article

• PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

  - by Daniel Redington

  I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >