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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • Decomposing a rotation matrix

    - by DeadMG
    I have a rotation matrix. How can I get the rotation around a specified axis contained within this matrix? Edit: It's a 3D matrix (4x4), and I want to know how far around a predetermined (not contained) axis the matrix rotates. I can already decompose the matrix but D3DX will only give the entire matrix as one rotation around one axis, whereas I need to split the matrix up into angle of rotation around an already-known axis, and the rest. Sample code and brief problem description: D3DXMATRIX CameraRotationMatrix; D3DXVECTOR3 CameraPosition; //D3DXVECTOR3 CameraRotation; inline D3DXMATRIX GetRotationMatrix() { return CameraRotationMatrix; } inline void TranslateCamera(float x, float y, float z) { D3DXVECTOR3 rvec, vec(x, y, z); #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&rvec, &vec, &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) CameraPosition += rvec; RecomputeVPMatrix(); } inline void RotateCamera(float x, float y, float z) { D3DXVECTOR3 RotationRequested(x, y, z); D3DXVECTOR3 XAxis, YAxis, ZAxis; D3DXMATRIX rotationx, rotationy, rotationz; XAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(1, 0, 0); YAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(0, 1, 0); ZAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(0, 0, 1); #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&XAxis, &XAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&YAxis, &YAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&ZAxis, &ZAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationx); D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationy); D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationz); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationx, &XAxis, RotationRequested.x); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationy, &YAxis, RotationRequested.y); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationz, &ZAxis, RotationRequested.z); CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationz; CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationy; CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationx; RecomputeVPMatrix(); } inline void RecomputeVPMatrix() { D3DXMATRIX ProjectionMatrix; D3DXMatrixPerspectiveFovLH( &ProjectionMatrix, FoV, (float)D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferWidth / (float)D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferHeight, FarPlane, NearPlane ); D3DXVECTOR3 CamLookAt; D3DXVECTOR3 CamUpVec; #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&CamLookAt, &D3DXVECTOR3(1, 0, 0), &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&CamUpVec, &D3DXVECTOR3(0, 1, 0), &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) D3DXMATRIX ViewMatrix; #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXMatrixLookAtLH(&ViewMatrix, &CameraPosition, &(CamLookAt + CameraPosition), &CamUpVec); #pragma warning(default : 4238) ViewProjectionMatrix = ViewMatrix * ProjectionMatrix; D3DVIEWPORT9 vp = { 0, 0, D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferWidth, D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferHeight, 0, 1 }; D3DDev->SetViewport(&vp); } Effectively, after a certain time, when RotateCamera is called, it begins to rotate in the relative X axis- even though constant zero is passed in for that request when responding to mouse input, so I know that when moving the mouse, the camera should not roll at all. I tried spamming 0,0,0 requests and saw no change (one per frame at 1500 frames per second), so I'm fairly sure that I'm not seeing FP error or matrix accumulation error. I tried writing a RotateCameraYZ function and stripping all X-axis from the function. I've spent several days trying to discover why this is the case, and eventually decided on just hacking around it. Just for reference, I've seen some diagrams on Wikipedia, and I actually have a relatively strange axis layout, which is Y axis up, but X axis forwards and Z axis right, so Y axis yaw, Z axis pitch, X axis roll.

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • basic operations for modifying a source document with XSLT

    - by SpliFF
    All the tutorials and examples I've found of XSLT processing seem to assume your destination will be a significantly different format/structure to your source and that you know the structure of the source in advance. I'm struggling with finding out how to perform simple "in-place" modifications to a HTML document without knowing anything else about its existing structure. Could somebody show me a clear example that, given an arbitrary unknown HTML source will: 1.) delete the classname 'foo' from all divs 2.) delete a node if its empty (ie <p></p>) 3.) delete a <p> node if its first child is <br> 4.) add newattr="newvalue" to all H1 5.) replace 'heading' in text nodes with 'title' 6.) wrap all <u> tags in <b> tags (ie, <u>foo</u> -> <b><u>foo</u></b>) 7.) output the transformed document without changing anything else The above examples are the primary types of transform I wish to accomplish. Understanding how to do the above will go a long way towards helping me build more complex transforms. To help clarify/test the examples here is a sample source and output, however I must reiterate that I want to work with arbitrary samples without rewriting the XSLT for each source: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1>heading</h1> <p></p> <p><br>line</p> <div class="foo bar"><u>baz</u></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html> output: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1 newattr="newvalue">title</h1> <div class="bar"><b><u>baz</u></b></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html>

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  • Applying Unity in dynamic menu

    - by Rajarshi
    I was going through Unity 2.0 to check if it has an effective use in our new application. My application is a Windows Forms application and uses a traditional bar menu (at the top), currently. My UIs (Windows Forms) more or less support Dependency Injection pattern since they all work with a class (Presentation Model Class) supplied to them via the constructor. The form then binds to the properties of the supplied P Model class and calls methods on the P Model class to perform its duties. Pretty simple and straightforward. How P Model reacts to the UI actions and responds to them by co-ordinating with the Domain Class (Business Logic/Model) is irrelevant here and thus not mentioned. The object creation sequence to show up one UI from menu then goes like this - Create Business Model instance Create Presentation Model instance with Business Model instance passed to P Model constructor. Create UI instance with Presentation Model instance passed to UI constructor. My present solution: To show an UI in the method above from my menu I would have to refer all assemblies (Business, PModel, UI) from my Menu class. Considering I have split the modules into a number of physical assemblies, that would be a dificult task to add references to about 60 different assemblies. Also the approach is not very scalable since I would certainly need to release more modules and with this approach I would have to change the source code every time I release a new module. So primarily to avoid the reference of so many assemblies from my Menu class (assembly) I did as below - Stored all the dependency described above in a database table (SQL Server), e.g. ModuleShortCode | BModelAssembly | BModelFullTypeName | PModelAssembly | PModelFullTypeName | UIAssembly | UIFullTypeName Now used a static class named "Launcher" with a method "Launch" as below - Launcher.Launch("Discount") Launcher.Launch("Customers") The Launcher internally uses data from the dependency table and uses Activator.CreateInstance() to create each of the objects and uses the instance as constructor parameter to the next object being created, till the UI is built. The UI is then shown as a modal dialog. The code inside Launcher is somewhat like - Form frm = ResolveForm("Discount"); frm.ShowDialog(); The ResolveForm does the trick of building the chain of objects. Can Unity help me here? Now when I did that I did not have enough information on Unity and now that I have studied Unity I think I have been doing more or less the same thing. So I tried to replace my code with Unity. However, as soon as I started I hit a block. If I try to resolve UI forms in my Menu as Form customers = myUnityContainer.Resolve(); or Form customers = myUnityContainer.Resolve(typeof(Customers)); Then either way, I need to refer to my UI assembly from my Menu assembly since the target Type "Customers" need to be known for Unity to resolve it. So I am back to same place since I would have to refer all UI assemblies from the Menu assembly. I understand that with Unity I would have to refer fewer assemblies (only UI assemblies) but those references are needed which defeats my objectives below - Create the chain of objects dynamically without any assembly reference from Menu assembly. This is to avoid Menu source code changing every time I release a new module. My Menu also is built dynamically from a table. Be able to supply new modules just by supplying the new assemblies and inserting the new Dependency row in the table by a database patch. At this stage, I have a feeling that I have to do it the way I was doing, i.e. Activator.CreateInstance() to fulfil all my objectives. I need to verify whether the community thinks the same way as me or have a better suggestion to solve the problem. The post is really long and I sincerely thank you if you come til this point. Waiting for your valuable suggestions. Rajarshi

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  • [Reloaded] Error while sorting filtered data from a GridView

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello guys, I have an error I cannot solve, on a ASP.NET website. One of its pages - Countries.aspx, has the following controls: a CheckBox called "CheckBoxNAME": < asp:CheckBox ID="CheckBoxNAME" runat="server" Text="Name" /> a TextBox called "TextBoxName": < asp:TextBox ID="TextBoxNAME" runat="server" Width="100%" Wrap="False"> < /asp:TextBox> a SQLDataSource called "SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES", that selects all records from a Table with 3 columns - ID (Number, PK), NAME (Varchar2(1000)), and POPULATION (Number) called COUNTRIES < asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" runat="server" ConnectionString="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB %> " ProviderName="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB.ProviderName %> " SelectCommand="SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID"> < /asp:SqlDataSource> a GridView called GridViewCOUNTRIES: < asp:GridView ID="GridViewCOUNTRIES" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" DataKeyNames="ID" DataMember="DefaultView"> < Columns> < asp:CommandField ShowSelectButton="True" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="Id" SortExpression="ID" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="NAME" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="NAME" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="POPULATION" HeaderText="Population" SortExpression="POPULATION" /> < /Columns> < /asp:GridView> a Button called ButtonFilter: < asp:Button ID="ButtonFilter" runat="server" Text="Filter" onclick="ButtonFilter_Click"/> This is the onclick event: protected void ButtonFilter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("Countries.aspx?" + (this.CheckBoxNAME.Checked ? string.Format("NAME={0}", this.TextBoxNAME.Text) : string.Empty)); } Also, this is the main onload event of the page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack == false) { if (Request.QueryString.Count != 0) { Dictionary parameters = new Dictionary(); string commandTextFormat = string.Empty; if (Request.QueryString["NAME"] != null) { if (commandTextFormat != string.Empty && commandTextFormat.EndsWith("AND") == false) { commandTextFormat += "AND"; } commandTextFormat += " (UPPER(COUNTRIES.NAME) LIKE '%' || :NAME || '%') "; parameters.Add("NAME", Request.QueryString["NAME"].ToString()); } this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectCommand = string.Format("SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES WHERE {0} ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID", commandTextFormat); foreach (KeyValuePair parameter in parameters) { this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectParameters.Add(parameter.Key, parameter.Value.ToUpper()); } } } } Basicly, the page displays in the GridViewCOUNTRIES all the records of table COUNTRIES. The scenario is the following: - the user checks the CheckBox; - the user types a value in the TextBox (let's say "ch"); - the user presses the Button; - the page loads displaying only the records that match the filter criteria (in this case, all the countries that have names containing "Ch"); - the user clicks on the header of the column called "Name" in order to sort the data in the GridView Then, I get the following error: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Any help is greatly appreciated, tnks. PS: I'm using ASP.NET 3.5, under Visual Studio 2008, with an OracleXE database.

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  • xmlns='' was not expected when deserializing nested classes

    - by Mavrik
    I have a problem when attempting to serialize class on a server, send it to the client and deserialize is on the destination. On the server I have the following two classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class GameStatusUpdate { public GameStatusUpdate() {} public GameStatusUpdate(Player[] players, Command command) { this.Players = players; this.Update = command; } [XmlArray("Players")] public Player[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class Player { public Player() {} public Player(PlayerColors color) { Color = color; ... } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColors Color { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } } (The missing types are all enums). This generates the following XML on serialization: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <StatusUpdate> <Players> <Player Color="Cyan" X="67" Y="32" /> </Players> <Command>StartGame</Command> </StatusUpdate> On the client side, I'm attempting to deserialize that into following classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class StatusUpdate { public StatusUpdate() { } [XmlArray("Players")] [XmlArrayItem("Player")] public PlayerInfo[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class PlayerInfo { public PlayerInfo() { } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColor Color { get; set; } } However, the deserializer throws an exception: There is an error in XML document (2, 2). <StatusUpdate xmlns=''> was not expected. What am I missing or doing wrong?

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • Can someone who understands C code help me understand this code?

    - by Benjamin
    INT GetTree (HWND hWnd, HTREEITEM hItem, HKEY *pRoot, TCHAR *pszKey, INT nMax) { TV_ITEM tvi; TCHAR szName[256]; HTREEITEM hParent; HWND hwndTV = GetDlgItem (hWnd, ID_TREEV); memset (&tvi, 0, sizeof (tvi)); hParent = TreeView_GetParent (hwndTV, hItem); if (hParent) { // Get the parent of the parent of the... GetTree (hWnd, hParent, pRoot, pszKey, nMax); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi); //send the TVM_GETITEM message? lstrcat (pszKey, TEXT ("\\")); lstrcat (pszKey, szName); } else { *pszKey = TEXT ('\0'); szName[0] = TEXT ('\0'); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT | TVIF_PARAM; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); if (TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi)) //*pRoot = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; //original hItem = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; else { INT rc = GetLastError(); } } return 0; } The block of code that begins with the comment "Get the name of the item" does not make sense to me. If you are getting the listview item why does the code set the parameters of the item being retrieved, because if you already had the values there would be no need to retrieve them. Secondly near the comment "original" is the original line of code which will compile with a varning under embedded visual c++, but if you copy the exact same code into visual studio 2008 it will not compile. Since I did not write any of this code and am trying to learn is it possible the original author made a mistake on this line, since the *pRoot should point to and HKEY type yet he is casting to an HTREEITEM type which should never work since the data types don't match? (Side note someone with a better reputation should add a windows ce tag to SO since windows mobile is not the same as windows ce.)

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  • C++ copy-construct construct-and-assign question

    - by Andy
    Blockquote Here is an extract from item 56 of the book "C++ Gotchas": It's not uncommon to see a simple initialization of a Y object written any of three different ways, as if they were equivalent. Y a( 1066 ); Y b = Y(1066); Y c = 1066; In point of fact, all three of these initializations will probably result in the same object code being generated, but they're not equivalent. The initialization of a is known as a direct initialization, and it does precisely what one might expect. The initialization is accomplished through a direct invocation of Y::Y(int). The initializations of b and c are more complex. In fact, they're too complex. These are both copy initializations. In the case of the initialization of b, we're requesting the creation of an anonymous temporary of type Y, initialized with the value 1066. We then use this anonymous temporary as a parameter to the copy constructor for class Y to initialize b. Finally, we call the destructor for the anonymous temporary. To test this, I did a simple class with a data member (program attached at the end) and the results were surprising. It seems that for the case of b, the object was constructed by the copy constructor rather than as suggested in the book. Does anybody know if the language standard has changed or is this simply an optimisation feature of the compiler? I was using Visual Studio 2008. Code sample: #include <iostream> class Widget { std::string name; public: // Constructor Widget(std::string n) { name=n; std::cout << "Constructing Widget " << this->name << std::endl; } // Copy constructor Widget (const Widget& rhs) { std::cout << "Copy constructing Widget from " << rhs.name << std::endl; } // Assignment operator Widget& operator=(const Widget& rhs) { std::cout << "Assigning Widget from " << rhs.name << " to " << this->name << std::endl; return *this; } }; int main(void) { // construct Widget a("a"); // copy construct Widget b(a); // construct and assign Widget c("c"); c = a; // copy construct! Widget d = a; // construct! Widget e = "e"; // construct and assign Widget f = Widget("f"); return 0; } Output: Constructing Widget a Copy constructing Widget from a Constructing Widget c Assigning Widget from a to c Copy constructing Widget from a Constructing Widget e Constructing Widget f Copy constructing Widget from f I was most surprised by the results of constructing d and e.

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  • Loading multiple copies of a group of DLLs in the same process

    - by george
    Background I'm maintaining a plugin for an application. I'm Using Visual C++ 2003. The plugin is composed of several DLLs - there's the main DLL, that's the one that the application loads using LoadLibrary, and there are several utility DLLs that are used by the main DLL and by each other. Dependencies generally look like this: plugin.dll - utilA.dll, utilB.dll utilA.dll - utilB.dll utilB.dll - utilA.dll, utilC.dll You get the picture. Some of the dependencies between the DLLs are load-time and some run-time. All the DLL files are stored in the executable's directory (not a requirement, just how it works now). The problem There's a new requirement - running multiple instances of the plugin within the application. The application runs each instance of a plugin in its own thread, i.e. each thread calls The plugin's code, however, is nothing but thread-safe - lots of global variables etc.. Unfortunately, fixing the whole thing isn't currently an option, so I need a way to load multiple (at most 3) copies of the plugin's DLLs in the same process. Option 1: The distinct names approach Creating 3 copies of each DLL file, so that each file has a distinct name. e.g. plugin1.dll, plugin2.dll, plugin3.dll, utilA1.dll, utilA2.dll, utilA3.dll, utilB1.dll, etc.. The application will load plugin1.dll, plugin2.dll and plugin3.dll. The files will be in the executable's directory. For each group of DLLs to know each other by name (so the inter-dependencies work), the names need to be known at compilation time - meaning the DLLs need to be compiled multiple times, only each time with different output file names. Not very complicated, but I'd hate having 3 copies of the VS project files, and don't like having to compile the same files over and over. Option 2: The side-by-side assemblies approach Creating 3 copies of the DLL files, each group in its own directory, and defining each group as an assembly by putting an assembly manifest file in the directory, listing the plugin's DLLs. Each DLL will have an application manifest pointing to the assembly, so that the loader finds the copies of the utility DLLs that reside in the same directory. The manifest needs to be embedded for it to be found when a DLL is loaded using LoadLibrary. I'll use mt.exe from a later VS version for the job, since VS2003 has no built-in manifest embedding support. I've tried this approach with partial success - dependencies are found during load-time of the DLLs, but not when a DLL function is called that loads another DLL. This seems to be the expected behavior according to this article - A DLL's activation context is only used at the DLL's load-time, and afterwards it's deactivated and the process's activation context is used. I haven't yet tried working around this using ISOLATION_AWARE_ENABLED. Questions Got any other options? Any quick & dirty solution will do. :-) Will ISOLATION_AWARE_ENABLED even work with VS2003? Comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

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  • small scale web site - global javascript file style/format/pattern - improving maintainability

    - by yaya3
    I frequently create (and inherit) small to medium websites where I have the following sort of code in a single file (normally named global.js or application.js or projectname.js). If functions get big, I normally put them in a seperate file, and call them at the bottom of the file below in the $(document).ready() section. If I have a few functions that are unique to certain pages, I normally have another switch statement for the body class inside the $(document).ready() section. How could I restructure this code to make it more maintainable? Note: I am less interested in the functions innards, more so the structure, and how different types of functions should be dealt with. I've also posted the code here - http://pastie.org/999932 in case it makes it any easier var ProjectNameEnvironment = {}; function someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable () { $('.foo').hide(); $('.bar').click(function(){ $('.foo').show(); }); } function functionThatIsWorthMakingConfigurable(config) { var foo = config.foo || 700; var bar = 200; return foo * bar; } function globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger (tooltip_string) { var tooltipTrigger = $(tooltip_string); tooltipTrigger.tooltip({ showURL: false ... }); } function minorUtilityOneLiner (selector) { $(selector).find('li:even').not('li ul li').addClass('even'); } var Lightbox = {}; Lightbox.setup = function(){ $('li#foo a').attr('href','#alpha'); $('li#bar a').attr('href','#beta'); } Lightbox.init = function (config){ if (typeof $.fn.fancybox =='function') { Lightbox.setup(); var fade_in_speed = config.fade_in_speed || 1000; var frame_height = config.frame_height || 1700; $(config.selector).fancybox({ frameHeight : frame_height, callbackOnShow: function() { var content_to_load = config.content_to_load; ... }, callbackOnClose : function(){ $('body').height($('body').height()); } }); } else { if (ProjectNameEnvironment.debug) { alert('the fancybox plugin has not been loaded'); } } } // ---------- order of execution ----------- $(document).ready(function () { urls = urlConfig(); (function globalFunctions() { $('.tooltip-trigger').each(function(){ globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger(this); }); minorUtilityOneLiner('ul.foo') Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#a-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#another-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); })(); if ( $('body').attr('id') == 'home-page' ) { (function homeFunctions() { someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable (); })(); } });

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  • Use format strings that contain %1, %2 etc. instead of %d, %s etc. - Linux, C++

    - by rursw1
    Hello, As a follow-up of this question (Message compiler replacement in Linux gcc), I have the following problem: When using MC.exe on Windows for compiling and generating messages, within the C++ code I call FormatMessage, which retrieves the message and uses the va_list *Arguments parameter to send the varied message arguments. For example: messages.mc file: MessageId=1 Severity=Error SymbolicName=MULTIPLE_MESSAGE_OCCURED Language=English message %1 occured %2 times. . C++ code: void GetMsg(unsigned int errCode, wstring& message,unsigned int paramNumber, ...) { HLOCAL msg; DWORD ret; LANGID lang = GetUserDefaultLangID(); try { va_list argList; va_start( argList, paramNumber ); const TCHAR* dll = L"MyDll.dll"; _hModule = GetModuleHandle(dll); ret =::FormatMessage( FORMAT_MESSAGE_ALLOCATE_BUFFER | FORMAT_MESSAGE_FROM_HMODULE|FORMAT_MESSAGE_IGNORE_INSERTS, _hModule, errCode, lang, (LPTSTR) &msg, 0, &argList ); if ( 0 != ret ) { unsigned int count = 0 ; message = msg; if (paramNumber>0) { wstring::const_iterator iter; for (iter = message.begin();iter!=message.end();iter++) { wchar_t xx = *iter; if (xx ==L'%') count++; } } if ((count == paramNumber) && (count >0)) { ::LocalFree( msg ); ret =::FormatMessage( FORMAT_MESSAGE_ALLOCATE_BUFFER | FORMAT_MESSAGE_FROM_HMODULE, _hModule, errCode, GetUserDefaultLangID(), (LPTSTR) &msg, 0, &argList ); } else if (count != paramNumber) { wstringstream tmp; wstring messNumber; tmp << (errCode & 0xFFFF); tmp >> messNumber; message = message +L"("+ messNumber + L"). Bad Format String. "; } } ::LocalFree( msg ); } catch (...) { message << L"last error: " << GetLastError(); } va_end( argList ); } Caller code: wstring message; GetMsg(MULTIPLE_MESSAGE_OCCURED, message,2, "Error message", 5); Now, I wrote a simple script to generate a .msg file from the .mc file, and then I use gencat to generate a catalog from it. But is there a way to use the formatted strings as they contain %1, %2, etc. and NOT the general (%d, %s...) format? Please note, that the solution has to be generic enough for each possible message with each posible types\ arguments order... Is it possible at all? Thank you.

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • T60 Screen/LCD gets black after some minutes with a highpitched sound rising and fading

    - by edelwater
    Just now my T60 screen got "black" (so no display). On my second monitor: no problems so the VGA output works. Symptom: Screen blanks / no display, but it works on the second monitor Steps to reproduce: - boot - wait (it does not matter what you do you do not have to login or anything) - (now the monitor of the laptop slowly begins to make a ssssssssHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHWOEOEssssssss noise of about 10 seconds) - right after the sounds ends, the monitor gets black. Sometimes it seems to be the same each time. Software: Installed no new software before/after, running ZoneAlarm and antivirus. Other: It does not feel hot in any place, there don't seem to be running processes with strange behaviour. Warranty: Out of warranty What was I doing: Typing text on a website and doing some PHP coding in a text editor. What can I do here other than buy a new laptop? Does it sound familiar to known cases? Update 1: Exactly the same problem: http://forums.lenovo.com/t5/T61-and-prior-T-series-ThinkPad/T60-Screen-Blackout/m-p/288772 and the second poster (garyj), http://forums.lenovo.com/t5/T61-and-prior-T-series-ThinkPad/Black-Screen-on-T60/m-p/235053#M48627 And here: "I have that same problem. I replaced the CCRL on mine and it works fine when the screen is not screwed in. Once the frame of the LCD screen (metal portion) touches the metal on the laptop which holds the screen the screen goes black. If the metal is touching the screen when you boot up it boots up with it being very dimmly lit. " from http://forums.lenovo.com/t5/T61-and-prior-T-series-ThinkPad/T60-screen-problems/m-p/205047#M44995 (it seems replacing the LCD display is no use, he tried it three times). Same problem: http://forums.lenovo.com/t5/T61-and-prior-T-series-ThinkPad/T60-black-screen/m-p/80604#M25914 Hmmm... not handy 3 or 4 months ago I ordered and installed a new fan. Now the LCD. Which does not seem the core issue but some electric issue so it seems replacing the LCD is not the thing to do here. If it is not the LCD that needs to be replaced (see other threads), which parts can I order to fix this? Is there any information which could lead me to identify the issue? I have read replacing the "inverter" AND the "backlightning" would that make sense? Update 2: I replaced the inverter with another inverter, but IO have the same problem. I DID notice that the inverter is the component that makes the sssssssssssssHHHHHHHHHH sound AND it becomes very hot in a few seconds. (So both the old and the test one) The problem is hmmm wat is then the thing that makes the inverter hot by (assumption) after which it shuts itself down. Is it either the input or the output? The output seems to me not, because the screen seems to function so it must be the electricity coming in. But what causes it to become so hot would it be the VGA card outputting some unusual high voltage seems unlikely? I am looking for the component to order / replace update 3: Great news. Ewendish gave me the hint to look in the BIOS. While I was in the BIOS I noticed that the screen did not switch off and there was not a high pitched sound. So I lowered some settings in the BIOS. I then noticed that with brightness turned to 0 (via FN End), it does not make a high pitched sound and does not turn off, with brightness turned up just three "stripes" it starts making the sound. So I could from now on work under lowest brightness modus or... see where the problem lies. So as stated below with either power management or display drivers / ATI Catalyst settings / Windows display settings. I'm trying to see where it lies, but I will google some first. Update 4: I wiped clean the Windows XP installation and installed Windows 7 on it. Unfortunately the problem remains: as soon as the brightness goes up the screen starts hissing. This means... back to original thought: it probably IS a hardware problem. Although ... again... if it is NOT the inverter, what is it? Could it be the backlightning component? I could try to switch that with a another T60... but this is quite tricky.

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  • changing restriction on simple type in extended complex type

    - by rotary_engine
    I am trying to create a schema that has 2 address types. The first AdressType requires an element Line 1 to have a value at least 10 characters. The second type OtherAdressType derives from this with the same elements, but does not require a value for Line 1. I've tried different ways but always get schema errors, this error is: Invalid particle derivation by restriction - 'Derived element '{namespace}:Line1' is not a valid restriction of base element '{namespace}:Line1' according to Elt:Elt -- NameAndTypeOK.'. If I add a type xs:string to OtherAdressType:Line1 then I get other errors. <xs:complexType name="AdressType"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Line1" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="10" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Line2" type="xs:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="OtherAdressType"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:restriction base="AdressType"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Line1" nillable="true"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="0" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Line2" type="xs:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:restriction> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType>

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  • Change Label Control Property Based on Data from SqlDataSource Inside a Repeater

    - by Furqan Muhammad Khan
    I am using a repeater control to populate data from SqlDataSource into my custom designed display-box. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" OnDataBinding="Repeater_ItemDataBound"> <HeaderTemplate> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <div class="bubble-content"> <div style="float: left;"> <h2 class="bubble-content-title"><%# Eval("CommentTitle") %></h2> </div> <div style="text-align: right;"> <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %> </asp:Label> </div> <div style="float: left;"> <p><%# Eval("CommentContent") %></p> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="mySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:myConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CommentTitle],[CommentType],[CommentContent] FROM [Comments] WHERE ([PostId] = @PostId)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="PostId" QueryStringField="id" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Now, there can be three types of "CommentTypes" in the database. I want to change the CssClass property of "lbl_category" based on the value of [CommentType]. I tried doing this: <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" CssClass="<%# Eval("CommentType") %>" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %></asp:Label> But this gives an error: "The server control is not well formed" and haven't been able to find a way to achieve this in the code behind. Can someone please help?

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Why does Rails with Passenger/nginx only works in development mode? No logs available

    - by Michael W.
    Hey folks, I have a serious problem with one of our webservers... after having an internal alpha-testing with a mongrel/haproxy-cluster that worked well, we wanted to use nginx with passenger for our first production server (customers will access this server). However, I can only run the rails app via development mode with passenger/nginx. The app itself runs perfect with mongrel or webrick in production mode. My biggest problem with this case is that I don't find ANY information in the nginx or rails-logs (only when I use mongrel or webrick). Permissions are correct. Passenger-status shows that the app is running, but I always get the static 500.html-error page... It would be so nice if you guys could give me a hint and help me solve the problem. I put the config at the bottom of the post... This exact config works with rails_env development;but I'd like to use the production mode ;-) Thank you very much for your help! Version: Ubuntu 8.04.2 64bit / nginx-0.7.64 (compiled and installed via passenger-2.2.11) cat /opt/nginx/conf/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; error_log logs/error.log; #pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby1.8; passenger_log_level 3; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; #log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' # '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' # '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log logs/access.log; sendfile on; #tcp_nopush on; #keepalive_timeout 0; keepalive_timeout 65; #gzip on; server { listen 80; server_name <<servername>>; root /srv/app01/public; passenger_enabled on; }

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  • Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

    - by Bruno Sampaio
    I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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