Search Results

Search found 28932 results on 1158 pages for 'app v'.

Page 524/1158 | < Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >

  • Implementing java FixedTreadPool status listener

    - by InsertNickHere
    Hi there, it's about an application which is supposed to process (VAD, Loudness, Clipping) a lot of soundfiles (e.g. 100k). At this time, I create as many worker threads (callables) as I can put into memory, and then run all with a threadPool.invokeAll(), write results to file system, unload processed files and continue at step 1. Due to the fact it's an app with a GUI, i don't want to user to feel like the app "is not responding" while processing all soundfiles. (which it does at this time cause invokeAll is blocking). Im not sure what is a "good" way to fix this. It shall not be possible for the user to do other things while processing, but I'd like to show a progress bar like "10 of 100000 soundfiles are done". So how do I get there? Do I have to create a "watcher thread", so that every worker hold a callback on it? I'm quite new to multi threading, and don't get the idea of such a mechanisem.. If you need to know: I'm using SWT/JFace. Regards, InsertNickHere

    Read the article

  • Unattended Install of SQL Server 2005 Express with LOCAL Server InstanceName

    - by Jeff
    I'm creating an install package using InnoSetup and installing SQL Server 2005 Express. Here's the code below that appears in my RUN section: Filename: "{app}\SQL Server 2005 Express\SQLEXPR.exe" ; Parameters: "-q /norebootchk /qn reboot=ReallySuppress addlocal=all INSTANCENAME=(LOCAL) SCCCHECKLEVEL=IncompatibleComponents:1;MDAC25Version:0 ERRORREPORTING=2 SQLAUTOSTART=1 SAPWD=passwordhere SECURITYMODE=SQL"; WorkingDir: {app}\SQL Server 2005 Express; StatusMsg: Installing Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express... Please Wait...;Check:SQLVerifyInstall What I'm trying to accomplish is have the SQL Server package install but only have the instance name itself reference the name of the machine name and nothing more. What I'm receiving instead is a named instance instead of local such as MachineName\SQLEXPRESS which is not what I want to receive. I need a local instance instead of a named instance due to the way my code is written to be able to install and talk with the databases in question. I would change it, trust me, were it not the fact that this install package is a replacement to a previous package that used the MSDE installer. I have to be able to support both through code. Any suggestions are welcome but a clear and concise method to get the installer to quietly install using only the machine name is my main goal. Thanks for the help and support!

    Read the article

  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

    Read the article

  • ORA- 01157 / Cant connect to database

    - by Tom
    Hi everyone, this is a follow up from this question. Let me start by saying that i am NOT a DBA, so i'm really really lost with this. A few weeks ago, we lost contact with one of our SID'S. All the other services are working, but this one in particular is not. What we got was this message when trying to connect ORA-01033: ORACLE initialization or shutdown in progress An attempt to alter database open ended up in ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' I tried to shutdown / restart the database, but got this message. Total System Global Area 566231040 bytes Fixed Size 1220604 bytes Variable Size 117440516 bytes Database Buffers 444596224 bytes Redo Buffers 2973696 bytes Database mounted. ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' When all continued the same, I erased the dbf files (rm xxx_data.dbf xxx_index.dbf), and recreated them using touch xxx_data.dbf. I also tried to recreate the tablespaces using `CREATE TABLESPACE DATA DATAFILE XXX_DATA.DBF` and got Database not open As I said, i don't know how bad this is, or how far i'm from gaining access to my database (well, to this SID at least, the others are working). I would imagine that a last resource would be to throw everything away, and recreating it, but I don't know how to, and I was hoping there's a less destructive solution. Any help will be greatly appreciated . Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I relocate assemblies from a deployment project without breaking application references?

    - by James
    Hi, I have recently refactored a lot of my applications existing code and I am now looking at tidying up the deployment side of things. The existing installer application installs everything in the application folder (with the exclusion of a couple of config files which are located in a sub folder). However, I have multiple applications which all use some common assemblies and my goal is to relocate a these particular assemblies to the "Common Files" folder in the program files directory. NB: I have read a lot about the GAC but I have no experience with it and also read a few horror stories, so trying to get a simple solution for the time being. I managed to get the assemblies installed into the Common Files folder, however, as a result (typical I.T.) I have broken my app! If I copy the assemblies back into the application folder it works fine so the problem is obviously to do with how my app is referencing the assemblies. To get the installer to install the assemblies into the Common Files folder I just updated the Folder property of each assembly in the Detected Dependencies list. My thoughts were when I did that the installer would somehow update my application to tell it to look in that folder for them but that doens't appear to be the case. What exactly am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

    Read the article

  • Avoiding a fork()/SIGCHLD race condition

    - by larry
    Please consider the following fork()/SIGCHLD pseudo-code. // main program excerpt for (;;) { if ( is_time_to_make_babies ) { pid = fork(); if (pid == -1) { /* fail */ } else if (pid == 0) { /* child stuff */ print "child started" exit } else { /* parent stuff */ print "parent forked new child ", pid children.add(pid); } } } // SIGCHLD handler sigchld_handler(signo) { while ( (pid = wait(status, WNOHANG)) > 0 ) { print "parent caught SIGCHLD from ", pid children.remove(pid); } } In the above example there's a race-condition. It's possible for "/* child stuff */" to finish before "/* parent stuff */" starts which can result in a child's pid being added to the list of children after it's exited, and never being removed. When the time comes for the app to close down, the parent will wait endlessly for the already-finished child to finish. One solution I can think of to counter this is to have two lists: started_children and finished_children. I'd add to started_children in the same place I'm adding to children now. But in the signal handler, instead of removing from children I'd add to finished_children. When the app closes down, the parent can simply wait until the difference between started_children and finished_children is zero. Another possible solution I can think of is using shared-memory, e.g. share the parent's list of children and let the children .add and .remove themselves? But I don't know too much about this. EDIT: Another possible solution, which was the first thing that came to mind, is to simply add a sleep(1) at the start of /* child stuff */ but that smells funny to me, which is why I left it out. I'm also not even sure it's a 100% fix. So, how would you correct this race-condition? And if there's a well-established recommended pattern for this, please let me know! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

    - by Taimur Hamza
    I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

    Read the article

  • Is this a bug in plist or Xcode?

    - by Pedro
    G'day All If you create a date item in the plist editor of Xcode or Apple's standalone plist editor you get something of the form <date>2010-05-29T10:30:00Z</date> which is a nice well formed ISO date at UTC (indicated by the "Z"). Because I'm in timezone UTC +10 when that's read into my app & then displayed I get 8:30 PM out, still good. However if that is a time in my timezone it should be <date>2010-05-29T10:30:00+10</date> (replacing "Z" with my timezone offset). All of my attempts at reading such dates into my iPhone app have had the plist rejected as if it is malformed & editing a plist with such a date in Apple's editors changed the "+10" to "Z" without adjusting the time. Do others think I'm correct in thinking this is a bug in either plist or Xcode? My feeling is that the implementation of ISO date & time in plist is incomplete. Cheers, Pedro :)

    Read the article

  • Problem Render backbone collection using Mustache template

    - by RameshVel
    I am quite new to backbone js and Mustache. I am trying to load the backbone collection (Object array) on page load from rails json object to save the extra call . I am having troubles rendering the backbone collection using mustache template. My model & collection are var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ }); App.Collections.Items= Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item, url: '/items' }); and view App.Views.Index = Backbone.View.extend({ el : '#itemList', initialize: function() { this.render(); }, render: function() { $(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),this.collection )); //var test = {name:"test",price:100}; //$(this.el).html(Mustache.to_html(JST.item_template(),test )); } }); In the above view render, i can able to render the single model (commented test obeject), but not the collections. I am totally struck here, i have tried with both underscore templating & mustache but no luck. And this is the Template <li> <div> <div style="float: left; width: 70px"> <a href="#"> <img class="thumbnail" src="http://placehold.it/60x60" alt=""> </a> </div> <div style="float: right; width: 292px"> <h4> {{name}} <span class="price">Rs {{price}}</span></h4> </div> </div> </li> and my object array kind of looks like this

    Read the article

  • How to eliminate tearing from animation?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I'm running an animation in a WinForms app at 18.66666... frames per second (it's synced with music at 140 BPM, which is why the frame rate is weird). Each cel of the animation is pre-calculated, and the animation is driven by a high-resolution multimedia timer. The animation itself is smooth, but I am seeing a significant amount of "tearing", or artifacts that result from cels being caught partway through a screen refresh. When I take the set of cels rendered by my program and write them out to an AVI file, and then play the AVI file in Windows Media Player, I do not see any tearing at all. I assume that WMP plays the file smoothly because it uses DirectX (or something else) and is able to synchronize the rendering with the screen's refresh activity. It's not changing the frame rate, as the animation stays in sync with the audio. Is this why WMP is able to render the animation without tearing, or am I missing something? Is there any way I can use DirectX (or something else) in order to enable my program to be aware of where the current scan line is, and if so, is there any way I can use that information to eliminate tearing without actually using DirectX for displaying the cels? Or do I have to fully use DirectX for rendering in order to deal with this problem? Update: forgot a detail. My app renders each cell onto a PictureBox using Graphics.DrawImage. Is this significantly slower than using BitBlt, such that I might eliminate at least some of the tearing by using BitBlt?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

    Read the article

  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

    Read the article

  • How to register application for existing file types using WiX installer?

    - by Marek
    related to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138550/how-to-register-file-types-extensions-with-a-wix-installer but not a duplicate. I need to handle existing file types (.jpg files). I do not want to be the default handler for .jpg, I would just like to extend the "Open with" menu with a link to my app. I see HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithList\ and HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithProgIds\ in the registry but I am not sure whether to write to these and how to do it correctly with WiX. Should I use something like this? <ProgId Id='??what here?' Description='Jpeg handled by my App'> <Extension Id='jpg' ContentType='image/jpeg'> <Verb Id='openwithmyapp' Sequence='10' Command='OpenWithMyApp' Target='[!FileId]' Argument='"%1"' /> </Extension> </ProgId> There are many ways how to fail here (like Photo Mechanics did, the HKCR for image file types is a real mess after I have installed this software) How to do this correctly with WiX?

    Read the article

  • Rails: generating URLs for actions in JSON response

    - by Chris Butler
    In a view I am generating an HTML canvas of figures based on model data in an app. In the view I am preloading JSON model data in the page like this (to avoid an initial request back): <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> <% ActiveRecord::Base.include_root_in_json = false -%> var objects = <%= @objects.to_json(:include => :other_objects) %>; ... Based on mouse (or touch) interaction I want to redirect to other parts of my app that are model specific (such as view, edit, delete, etc.). Rather than hard code the URLs in my JavaScript I want to generate them from Rails (which means it always adapts the latest routes). It seems like I have one of three options: Add an empty attr to the model that the controller fills in with the appropriate URL (we don't want to use routes in the model) before the JSON is generated Generate custom JSON where I add the different URLs manually Generate the URL as a template from Rails and replace the IDs in JavaScript as appropriate I am starting to lean towards #1 for ease of implementation and maintainability. Are there any other options that I am missing? Is #1 not the best? Thanks! Chris

    Read the article

  • Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

    - by Dan Fabulich
    Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

    Read the article

  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

    Read the article

  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

    Read the article

  • Twitter api - no more than 150 requests per hour....

    - by RenegadeAndy
    Hi. I am writing a twitter app using jtwitter - and its running inside a server inside my work. Anyway - whenever i run it from work it returns the error below and I am only making a couple requests per hour: HTTP/1.1 400 Bad Request {"request":"/1/statuses/user_timeline.json?count=6&id=cicsdemo&","error":"Rate limit exceeded. Clients may not make more than 150 requests per hour."} ] 2010-06-03 18:44:49 zero.timer.TimerTask::run Thread-3 SEVERE [ CWPZA3100E: Exception during processing for timer task, "twitterTimer". Exception: java.lang.ClassCastException: winterwell.jtwitter.Twitter$Status incompatible with java.lang.String ] I run the same code from home - its fine. So obviously at some point twitter thinks our work is all coming from one direct IP - which is why its hitting a limit which it shouldnt. Do I have any choice or workaround - can i make the limit be counted from my direct machine IP - or to my account instead of IP? Can i use a proxy? Has any body else had this problem and solved it?! Before anyone asks the APP must live inside my work - it cannot run anywhere else! Cheers, Andy

    Read the article

  • Where should I store shared resources between LocalSystem and regular user with UAC?

    - by rwired
    My application consists of two parts: A Windows Service running under the LocalSystem account and a client process running under the currently logged in regular user. I need to deploy the application across Windows versions from XP up to Win7. The client will retrieve files from the web and collect user data from the user. The service will construct files and data of it's own which the client needs to read. I'm trying to figure out the best place (registry or filesystem, or mix) to store all this. One file the client or service needs to be able to retrieve from the net is an update_patch executable which needs to run whenever an upgrade is available. I need to be sure the initial installer SETUP.EXE, and also the update_patch can figure out this ideal location and set a RegKey to be read later by both client and server telling them the magic location (The SETUP.EXE will run with elevated privileges since it needs to install the service) On my Win7 test system the service %APPDATA% points to: C:\Windows\system32\config\systemprofile\AppData\Roaming and the %APPDATA% of the client points to: C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Roaming Interestingly Google Chrome stores everything (App and Data) in C:\Users\(username)\AppData\Local\Google\Chrome Chrome runs pretty much in exactly the way I want my suite to run (able to silently update itself in the background) What I'm trying to avoid is nasty popups warning the user that the app wants to modify the system, and I want to avoid problems when VirtualStore doesn't exist because the user is running XP/2000/2003 or has UAC turned off. My target audience are non-tech-savvy general Windows users.

    Read the article

  • Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

    Read the article

  • Android Maps: Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY

    - by AP257
    I'm trying to use Android Maps, following the instructions in Hello MapView. I've added <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> in the Manifest, and I'm building against the 'Google APIs' target, which claims to be API version 7. So I don't think I'm doing anything obviously wrong, but the project refuses to build with this error: [2010-12-22 13:34:32 - FMS]Installing FMS.apk... [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Installation error: INSTALL_FAILED_MISSING_SHARED_LIBRARY [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Please check logcat output for more details. [2010-12-22 13:35:01 - FMS]Launch canceled! logcat is telling me the following (not very enlightening): D/PackageParser( 55): Scanning package: /data/app/vmdl67147.tmp I/PackageParser( 55): com.android.fms: compat added android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE E/PackageManager( 55): Package com.android.fms requires unavailable shared library com.google.android.maps; failing! W/PackageManager( 55): Package couldn't be installed in /data/app/com.android.fms.apk D/AndroidRuntime( 206): Shutting down VM It is possible I haven't set up the Maps API key correctly - when I got it using keytools, I didn't specify an alias_name, though this didn't seem to cause an error. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >