Search Results

Search found 56102 results on 2245 pages for 'asp net mvc helpers'.

Page 524/2245 | < Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >

  • My Lucene queries only ever find one hit

    - by Bob
    I'm getting started with Lucene.Net (stuck on version 2.3.1). I add sample documents with this: Dim indexWriter = New IndexWriter(indexDir, New Standard.StandardAnalyzer(), True) Dim doc = Document() doc.Add(New Field("Title", "foo", Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED, Field.TermVector.NO)) doc.Add(New Field("Date", DateTime.UtcNow.ToString, Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED, Field.TermVector.NO)) indexWriter.AddDocument(doc) indexWriter.Close() I search for documents matching "foo" with this: Dim searcher = New IndexSearcher(indexDir) Dim parser = New QueryParser("Title", New StandardAnalyzer()) Dim Query = parser.Parse("foo") Dim hits = searcher.Search(Query) Console.WriteLine("Number of hits = " + hits.Length.ToString) No matter how many times I run this, I only ever get one result. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I modify input before model binding in asp.net mvc?

    - by David G
    How can I intercept submitted form input and modify it before it is bound to my model? For example, if I wanted to trim the whitespace from all text. I have tried creating a custom model binder like so: public class CustomBinder : DefaultModelBinder { protected override void SetProperty(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext, PropertyDescriptor propertyDescriptor, object value) { string newValue = ((string)value).Trim(); //example code to create new value but could be anything base.SetProperty(controllerContext, bindingContext, propertyDescriptor, newValue); } } but this doesn't seem to be invoked. Is there a better place to modify the input value? Note: I need to modify the value before it is bound and validated.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net: User control with content area, it's clearly possible but I need some details.

    - by bert
    I have seen two suggestions for my original question about whether it is possible to define a content area inside a user control and there are some helpful suggestions i.e. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1971498/passing-in-content-to-asp-net-user-control and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1912283/asp-net-user-control-inner-content Now, I like the theory of the latter better than the former just for aesthetic reasons. It seems to make more sense to me but the example given uses two variables content and templateContent that the answerer has not defined in their example code. Without these details I have found that the example does not work. I guess they are properties of the control? Or some such? The former example seems workable but I'd prefer to go with the latter if someone could fill in the blanks for me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • In ASP.NET MVC (3.0/Razor), do you prefer multiple views, or conditionals within views? Why?

    - by Chad
    For my new web app, I'm debating on using multiple views, or conditionals within views. An example scenario would be showing different info to users who are authenticated vs non-authenticated. This could be handled a couple ways. In the controller, check IsAuthenticated and return a view based on that In the view, check IsAuthenticated and show blocks of info based on that Pros of multiple views: Smaller, less complicated view - next to no logic in the view Pros of single views: less view files to maintain The obvious cons are the opposites of the pros: more files to maintain or more complicated view files. Which do you prefer? Why? Any pros/cons I haven't outlined here? Update: Assume each view uses a layout page and partial views to abstract the obviously repetitive code.

    Read the article

  • How do I make this ASP.NET MVC controller more testable?

    - by Ragesh
    I have a controller that overrides OnActionExecuting and does something like this: protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); string tenantDomain = filterContext.RouteData.Values["tenantDomain"] as string; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(tenantDomain)) { using (var tx = BeginTransaction()) { this.Tenant = repo.FindOne(t => t.Domain == tenantDomain); } } } Tenant is a protected property with a private setter. The class itself is an abstract base controller that my real controllers derive from. I have code in other controllers that looks a lot like this: if (Tenant == null) { // Do something } else { // Do something else } How do I test this code? What I need to do is to somehow set the Tenant property, but I can't because: It's a protected property, and It has a private setter Changing the visibility of Tenant doesn't "feel" right. What are my alternatives to unit test my derived controllers?

    Read the article

  • Mvc Cocoa: How to get controller object for UIBarButtonItem target in view?

    - by plehoux
    I got a basic application where I want the action method of UIBarButtonItem to be in the parent controller. My view has been created programmatically, so I can't use IBAction. RootViewController - NavigationViewController - NavigationView - UIBarButtonItem Here's how have done it for the moment, it works for now... but it's not a really scalable technic (in NavigationView.m): BookAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UIBarButtonItem *soundEffects = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Sound Effects" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:[delegate.rootViewController navigationViewController] action:@selector(soundEffectsClicked:)]; What would be a better technic to get the NavigationViewController object?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC Ajax form that return Json to a javascript method.

    - by Diego Correa
    Hello guys, I have an ajax form that saves a object in the database then return a Message like this: return Json(new {Message = "Message!"}, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); We are ok here, but I don't know HOW I'll get this result in the view to display in a jQuery modal. My ajax form is like the following and I want to get the result on the OnSuccess method: <%using (Ajax.BeginForm("Form", "Controller", new AjaxOptions() { OnSuccess = "MethodThatIWantToGetTheJson" })) Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How should I cleanly track selected item in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Aaron Anodide
    Is there a better way to track the selected item than how I do it in the code below which implements a row of navigation links. @Html.ActionLink( "PreApproval", "Summary", new { mode = "preapproval" }, new { @class = Model.Mode == "preapproval" ? "selected" : "notselected" }) | @Html.ActionLink( "ActionNeeded", "Summary", new { mode = (string)null }, new { @class = string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(Model.Mode) ? "selected" : "notselected" }) | ... Should I try to encasulate the functionality of menu navigation or is this a standard approach?

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC LINQ to SQL IQueryable Array out of bounds?

    - by Jacob Huggart
    Hey guys, I have an Iqueryable that is populated from the database and then converted to an Array. That works fine. The issue is when I only have 1 element in the Array. I try to use the 0th element and it says "ArrayOutOfBoundsException". When I have 2+ elements in the array and pull elements 0 and 1 it works fine. What gives?

    Read the article

  • DDD and MVC Models hold ID of separate entity or the entity itself?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If you have an Order that references a customer, does the model include the ID of the customer or a copy of the customer object like a value object (thinking DDD)? I would like to do ths: public class Order { public int ID {get;set;} public Customer customer {get;set;} ... } right now I do this: public class Order { public int ID {get;set;} public int customerID {get;set;} ... } It would be more convenient to include the complete customer object rather than an ID to the View Model passed to the form. Otherwise, I need to figure out how to get the vendor information to the view that the order references by ID. This also implies that the repository understand how to deal with the customer object that it finds within the order object when they call save (if we select the first option). If we select the second option, we will need to know where in the view model to put it. It is certain they will select an existing customer. However, it is also certain they may want to change the information in-place on the display form. One could argue to have the controller extract the customer object, submit customer changes separately to the repository, then submit changes to the order, keeping the customerID in the order.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation in ASP.NET

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have a strange situation may its a easy fix or something i may be missing but here is the question. i have a asp.net form with master page and my validation works great without any problem but the problems starts when i try to hook my click event to the server side, here is what i meant: i have a form with few fields on it and if the form is empty than it should STOP submitting, otherwise allow me to execute the server side script but its not happening, even my form is in invalid state (i do get error message saying i have to enter the required fileds) but still executing my server side script. i would like to execute my server side script only if the form is in valid state. here is my code: my master page <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="MasterPage.master.cs" Inherits="MasterPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>jQuery Validation in ASP.NET Master Page</title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="head" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> my content page: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" Runat="Server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" Runat="Server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); }); </script> Name: <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" MaxLength="30" runat="server" /><br /> Email: <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmail" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" onclick="SubmitTheForm();" Text="Submit" /> </asp:Content> function SubmitTheForm() { SaveTheForm(); } function SaveTheForm() { debugger; var request = buildNewContactRequest(); ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "PostNewContact", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; }

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

    - by Pickels
    Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net: Is it possible to cache the js-proxies generated by scriptmanager?

    - by AndreasKnudsen
    We have the following code: <asp:ScriptManager runat="server"> ... <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/JSONServices/ProfileService.svc" /> </Services> ... This results in a Javascript proxy found in /JSONServices/ProfileService.svc/js. This Javascript has content expiry set to the same time it was called (so it is never cached on the client). Is it possible to have the clients cache these proxies for some time?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have a Shared/Static Dependency Property?

    - by Matt H.
    [using VB.NET, but I can easily read C# code in responses] I have a class called QuestionClipboard with ALL shared methods/properties. I previously had a QuesitonClipboard.doesClipboardHaveContent function that returned true/false if there was a Object on my 'clipboard'. I'd prefer to implement a Dependency Property so I can allow this true/false value to participate in data binding. The "GetValue(dp as DependencyProperty)" method requires an object instance, which would mean that my Property CAN'T be shared! Here is what the code would look like in my perfect world... Of course, the word "Shared" before the property declaration renders this code useless. Private Shared clipboardHasContentPropertyKey As DependencyPropertyKey = DependencyProperty.RegisterReadOnly("clipboardHasContent", GetType(Boolean), GetType(QuestionClipboard), _ New PropertyMetadata(False, Nothing, New CoerceValueCallback(AddressOf coerceClipboardHasContent))) Private Shared clipboardHasContentProperty As DependencyProperty = clipboardHasContentPropertyKey.DependencyProperty Public SHARED Property clipboardHasContent As Boolean Get Return GetValue(clipboardHasContentProperty) End Get Set(ByVal value As Boolean) SetValue(value) End Set End Property

    Read the article

  • Restricting access to a website by IP address range / domain

    - by test
    Hi, I would like advice on the best way to restrict access to a weba pplication (using .net 2.0 and II6) based on the clients IP address. The two ways I am considering: 1) Through the server side code - check the client I.P against a list of IP addresses within the web.config. 2) Through IIS by creating a virtual directory and restricting the I.P addresses on this virtual directory. My question is if I go the virtual directory route there are a lot of users that access this website and I have read reverse domain lookups made during each client request can be very expensive on server resources. How much of a risj is this? Any other suggestions /ideas to doing this would be much appreciated Thanks advance,

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

    - by Ryan_Pitts
    I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • A question mark within a @PathVariable in Spring MVC?

    - by sp00m
    Within the @Controller of a search engine: @RequestMapping(value = "/search/{query}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String search(@PathVariable String query) {} If a user wants to search /search/w?rld (wich should match world, warld, whrld, etc.), the variable query equals w, because of the question mark which indicated a GET var. I tried "/search/{query:.+}", but still doesn't work. Any idea how to solve that problem?

    Read the article

  • How do you modify a modal popup from ASP codebehind instead of letting it close?

    - by user328422
    I'm using SimpleModal to create a popup on an ASP.net application. The OK button calls a server-side function - and based on the resulta of that function I'd like to modify the popup (make some things visible, etc.) instead of letting it close. If that's too difficult, I'd like to open the popup again without the user having to re-click on anything. I'm just not sure what the best way to do this is. Currently the OK button in the popup looks like this: <asp:ImageButton ID="submitInfoBtn" OnClick="btnSubmitInfo_Click" ImageUrl="css/assets/btn_ok.png" runat="server"/> and there is nothing defined that tells anything that the OK button should close the popup (the Cancel button has class="simplemodal-close", so I would expect it to do just that, but not the OK button) - anyone have any ideas on the best way through this? Thanks in advance!!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - How to Unit Test boundaries in the Repository pattern?

    - by JK
    Given a basic repository interface: public interface IPersonRepository { void AddPerson(Person person); List<Person> GetAllPeople(); } With a basic implementation: public class PersonRepository: IPersonRepository { public void AddPerson(Person person) { ObjectContext.AddObject(person); } public List<Person> GetAllPeople() { return ObjectSet.AsQueryable().ToList(); } } How can you unit test this in a meaningful way? Since it crosses the boundary and physically updates and reads from the database, thats not a unit test, its an integration test. Or is it wrong to want to unit test this in the first place? Should I only have integration tests on the repository? I've been googling the subject and blogs often say to make a stub that implements the IRepository: public class PersonRepositoryTestStub: IPersonRepository { private List<Person> people = new List<Person>(); public void AddPerson(Person person) { people.Add(person); } public List<Person> GetAllPeople() { return people; } } But that doesnt unit test PersonRepository, it tests the implementation of PersonRepositoryTestStub (not very helpful).

    Read the article

  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >