Search Results

Search found 16560 results on 663 pages for 'far'.

Page 524/663 | < Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible in Perl to require a subroutine call is made?

    - by MitchelWB
    I don't know enough about Perl to even know what I'm asking for exactly, but I'm writing a series of subroutines to be available for many individual scripts that all process different incoming flat files. The process is far from perfect, but it's what I've got to deal with and I'm trying to build myself a small library of subs that make it easier for me to manage it all. Each script handles a different incoming flat file with it's own formatting, sorting, grouping and outputting requirements. One common aspect is that we have small text files that house counters that are used to name the output files so that we have no duplicate file names. Because the processing of the data is different for each file, I need to open the file to get my counter value, because this is a common operation, I'd like to put it in a sub to retrieve the counter. But then need to write specific code to process the data. And would like a second sub that allows me to update the counter with the counter once I've processed the data. Is there a way to make the second sub call a requirement if the first one is called? Ideally if it could even be an error that would prevent the script from running at all much like a syntax error. EDIT: Here is a little [ugly and simplified] psuedo-code to give a better feel for what the current process is: require "importLibrary.plx"; #open data source file open DataIn, $filename; #call getCounterInfo from importLibrary.plx to get the counter value from counter file $counter = &getCounterInfo($counterFileName); while (<DataIn>) { #Process data based on unique formatting and requirements #output to task files based on requirements and name files using the $counter #increment $counter } #update counter file with new value of $counter &updateCounterInfo($counter);

    Read the article

  • Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

    - by Michael Bleigh
    I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

    Read the article

  • How to make NSIS create a file in an %APPDATA% of another user?

    - by SCO
    I wrote an NSIS installer script for postgresql 9.1. The installer works properly, but after the reboot, the service is not started (right after the install, the database started properly though) I guess this is because the postgres service user has no pgpass.conf file in its %APPDATA%. As far as I understand my install script, the pgpass.conf file is added to the %APPDATA% of the user running the installer (an administrator account in my case). This will not help. I tried the following, to add the pgpass.conf to all users, bt I guess this adds it to a kind of wildcard, not to the %APPDATA% of each user : SetShellVarContext "all" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf SetShellVarContext "current" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf I couldn't find the macro name for c:/Users/postgres in the documentation. This could be a way to achieve it. But with WindowsXP, 7, I wish I need a portable way to address the /Users directory. I wish I could use something like SetShellVarContext "postgres", and then have NSIS write the pgpass.conf file in c:\Users\postgres\AppData\postgresql. Is there a way to do this ? Thnk you !

    Read the article

  • Is learning C++ a good idea?

    - by chang
    The more I hear and read about C++ (e.g. this: http://lwn.net/Articles/249460/), I get the impression, that I'd waste my time learning C++. I some wrote network routing algorithm in C++ for a simulator, and it was a pain (as expected, especially coming from a perl/python/Java background ...). I'm never happy about giving up on some technology, but I would be happy, if I could limit my knowledge of C-family languages to just C, C# and Objective-C (even OS Xs Cocoa, which is huge and takes a lot of time to learn looks like joy compared to C++ ...). Do I need to consider myself dumb or unwilling, just because I'm not partial to the pain involved learning this stuff? Technologies advance and there will be options other than C++, when deciding on implementation languages, or not? And for speed: If speed were that critical, I'd go for a plain C implementation instead, or write C extensions for much more productive languages like ruby or python ... The one-line version of the above: Will C++ stay such a relevant language that every committed programmer should be familiar with it? [ edit / thank you very much for your interesting and useful answers so far .. ] [ edit / .. i am accepting the top-rated answer; thanks again for all answers! ]

    Read the article

  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

    Read the article

  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • jquery equivalent for css3 transition ease-in

    - by Sebsemillia
    I want to make a jquery version of this css3 effect so that it also works in ff and ie: a:hover {color: #354250; -webkit-transition:background 500ms ease-in;} a.more:hover, a.more:focus, a.more:active {background-position: 0 -18px;} a.more:link, a.more:visited { background: url(images/moreButton.png) no-repeat 0 0; display: inline-block; height:18px; margin-top:10px; text-indent: -9999px; width:77px; } My tries didn't work, here is what I' ve got so far. $("a.more").hover(function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#354250', backgroundPosition: '0px -18px' }, slow, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px'}, 0); }); }, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px' }, 0); }); Do you have any idea how to fix this? Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • Compiling Wanderlust for Windows and use it for Gmail.

    - by User1
    I'm trying to get Wanderlust working in Windows to connect to Gmail. Compiling the code is much more painful than expected. Here are the barriers so far: Can't download dependent packages: SEMI, APEL, and FLIM. I eventually found newer versions, but I'm not sure they will work. Anyone have the older versions? Needs make and install. I used MSYS and it seems to have compiled okay. SSL support. I was getting a "Cannot open load file: ssl" error. I found an ssl.el that comes with w3. So installed w3. Bash command in ssl.el: ssl-get-command is running something from /bin/sh (not a directory I have in Windows). I really don't want to refactor this code. Is there a better way? Others speak very highly of Wanderlust, so I want to give it a try. I feel like I'm almost there, but am pretty much worn out with all the crazy configuration I have to do. Does anyone have this working on Windows? I'm pretty sure it will work with Gmail, because of this post. But will it work in Windows too? If you have a few pointers, please help.

    Read the article

  • Google Maps - custom icons with infoWindows

    - by hfidgen
    Hiya, As far as I can tell, this code is fine, and should display some custom icons with popup HTML windows. But the popups aren't working! Can anyone point out what I'm doing wrong? I can't seem to debug it myself. Thanks! function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(51.410416, -0.293884), 15); map.addControl(new GSmallMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); var i_parking = new GIcon(); i_parking.image = "http://google-maps-icons.googlecode.com/files/parking.png"; i_parking.iconSize = new GSize(32, 37); i_parking.iconAnchor = new GPoint(16, 37); icon_parking = { icon:i_parking }; var marker_office = new GMarker(new GLatLng(51.410416,-0.293884)); var marker_parking1 = new GMarker((new GLatLng(51.410178,-0.292000)),icon_parking); var marker_parking2 = new GMarker((new GLatLng(51.410152,-0.298948)),icon_parking); marker_parking1.openInfoWindowHtml('<strong>On Street Parking</strong><br>Church Road - 40p per hour'); marker_parking2.openInfoWindowHtml('<strong>Multi Storey - Fairfield</strong><br>Upper Car Park - 90p per half hour<br>Lower Car Park - £1.20 per hour'); map.addOverlay(marker_office); map.addOverlay(marker_parking1); map.addOverlay(marker_parking2); } }

    Read the article

  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

    Read the article

  • Largest triangle from a set of points

    - by Faken
    I have a set of random points from which i want to find the largest triangle by area who's verticies are each on one of those points. So far I have figured out that the largest triangle's verticies will only lie on the outside points of the cloud of points (or the convex hull) so i have programmed a function to do just that (using Graham scan in nlogn time). However that's where I'm stuck. The only way I can figure out how to find the largest triangle from these points is to use brute force at n^3 time which is still acceptable in an average case as the convex hull algorithm usually kicks out the vast majority of points. However in a worst case scenario where points are on a circle, this method would fail miserably. Dose anyone know an algorithm to do this more efficiently? Note: I know that CGAL has this algorithm there but they do not go into any details on how its done. I don't want to use libraries, i want to learn this and program it myself (and also allow me to tweak it to exactly the way i want it to operate, just like the graham scan in which other implementations pick up collinear points that i don't want).

    Read the article

  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

    Read the article

  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • pyPDF - Retrieve page numbers from document

    - by SquidneyPoitier
    At the moment I'm looking into doing some PDF merging with pyPdf, but sometimes the inputs are not in the right order, so I'm looking into scraping each page for its page number to determine the order it should go in (e.g. if someone split up a book into 20 10-page PDFs and I want to put them back together). I have two questions - 1.) I know that sometimes the page number is stored in the document data somewhere, as I've seen PDFs that render on Adobe as something like [1243] (10 of 150), but I've read documents of this sort into pyPDF and I can't find any information indicating the page number - where is this stored? 2.) If avenue #1 isn't available, I think I could iterate through the objects on a given page to try to find a page number - likely it would be its own object that has a single number in it. However, I can't seem to find any clear way to determine the contents of objects. If I run: pdf.getPage(0).getContents() This usually either returns: {'/Filter': '/FlateDecode'} or it returns a list of IndirectObject(num, num) objects. I don't really know what to do with either of these and there's no real documentation on it as far as I can tell. Is anyone familiar with this kind of thing that could point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • WiX major upgrade! Need different behaviors for different components...

    - by Joshua
    Okay! I have finally more closely identified the problem I'm having. In my installer, I was attempting to get a settings file to REMAIN INTACT on a major upgrade. I finally got this to work with the suggestion to set <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallFinalize" /> </InstallExecuteSequence> This is successful in forcing this component to leave the original, not replacing it if it exists: <Component Id="Settings" Guid="A3513208-4F12-4496-B609-197812B4A953" NeverOverwrite="yes"> <File Id="settingsXml" KeyPath="yes" ShortName="SETTINGS.XML" Name="Settings.xml" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Release\Pathways\Dependencies\Settings\settings.xml" Vital="yes" /> </Component> HOWEVER! This is a problem! I have another component listed here: <Component Id="Database" Guid="1D8756EF-FD6C-49BC-8400-299492E8C65D" KeyPath="yes"> <File Id="pathwaysMdf" Name="Pathways.mdf" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Shared\Databases\Pathways\SystemDBs\Pathways.mdf" Vital="yes"/> <File Id="pathwaysLdf" Name="Pathways_log.ldf" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Shared\Databases\Pathways\SystemDBs\Pathways.ldf" Vital="yes"/> </Component> And this component MUST BE REPLACED on a major upgrade. I can only accomplish this so far by setting <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallInitialize" /> THIS BREAKS THE FIRST FUNCTIONALITY I NEED WITH THE SETTINGS FILE. HOW CAN I DO BOTH?!

    Read the article

  • setup Qt and PyQt on mac osx so my app can also deployable on windows

    - by hk_programmer
    Hi, I've been coding with Python and C++ and now need to work on building a gui for data visualization purposes. I work on Mac Snow Leopard (intel), python 3.1 using gcc 4.2.1 (from Xcode 3.1) I wanted to first install Qt and then PyQt. And my goals are to be able to: - quickly prototype GUI and the accompanied logic that drives the GUI using PyQt and python - if I decided I need the speed, or if it's fairly easy to translate my GUI into C++ using the Qt tools, I have the options to translate my app into C++ - Be able to deploy my application onto Windows (both the python and c++ version of my app) Give the goals above, what are the correct steps I should take and what issues i should be aware of when setting up Qt and PyQt. Which other deployment tools do I need? From my readings so far, here's what I have: download the Qt source for mac and configure it with -platform macx-g++42 -arch x86_64 -no-framework (i've read somewhere that building as framework causes some trouble in deployment and/or debugging, can't find the article anymore) download latest SIP source and build download latest PyQt and build from source (any special options I should pay attention to?) For deployment, I've read that I would need to use py2exe/cx_freeze for windows, p2app for mac: http://arstechnica.com/open-source/guides/2009/03/how-to-deploying-pyqt-applications-on-windows-and-mac-os-x.ars but seems like what the article describe is deploying an app you build on windows on the windows platform and vice versa. How do you deploy to windows (is it even possible?) if you are writing your Qt app on a mac ? Really appreciate the help

    Read the article

  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

    Read the article

  • Ruby shortest/most efficient way to write rnd hex

    - by Whirlwin
    Hi. What I have is a method used to generate random hex values. E.g 666 or FF7 However, I don't think it is efficient at all.. What I want is to make it more efficient which perhaps will make my code shorter as well, but I don't know how. That is why I need tips or hints Here is my code so far: def random_values random_values = Array.new letters = ['A','B','C','D','E','F'] for i in 1..15 if i <= 9 random_values << i else random_values << letters[i-10] end end return random_values.shuffle[0].to_s + random_values.shuffle[0].to_s + random_values.shuffle[0].to_s end As you probably see, I do not generate random numbers. I just shuffle the array containing the values I want, meaning all the numbers in the array are unique, which is not needed, but was the easiest solution for me when I wrote the code. I am most concerned about the return line.. If only it was possible to write like: return 3.times { random_values.shuffle[0] } or return random_values.shuffle[0].to_s *3 Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Display X divs randomly out of a possible Y.

    - by Jordan
    How do I randomly display 3 divs out of a possible 10 in total? This is what I have tried so far: HTML: <div id="1">Content 1</div> <div id="2">Content 2</div> <div id="3">Content 3</div> <div id="4">Content 4</div> <div id="5">Content 5</div> <div id="6">Content 6</div> Javascript: function randomiseDiv() { // Define how many divs we have var divCount = 6; // Get our random ID (based on the total above) var randomId = Math.floor(Math.random()*divCount+1); // Get the div that's been randomly selectted var chosenDiv= document.getElementById(randomId); // If the content is available on the page if (chosenDiv) { // Update the display chosenDiv.style.display = 'block'; } } window.onload = randomiseDiv; I would prefer a PHP solution, although anything at this stage would be beneficial.

    Read the article

  • Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

    - by abszero
    I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Combine Lists with Same Heads in a 2D List (OCaml)

    - by Atticus
    Hi guys, I'm working with a list of lists in OCaml, and I'm trying to write a function that combines all of the lists that share the same head. This is what I have so far, and I make use of the List.hd built-in function, but not surprisingly, I'm getting the failure "hd" error: let rec combineSameHead list nlist = match list with | [] -> []@nlist | h::t -> if List.hd h = List.hd (List.hd t) then combineSameHead t nlist@uniq(h@(List.hd t)) else combineSameHead t nlist@h;; So for example, if I have this list: [[Sentence; Quiet]; [Sentence; Grunt]; [Sentence; Shout]] I want to combine it into: [[Sentence; Quiet; Grunt; Shout]] The function uniq I wrote just removes all duplicates within a list. Please let me know how I would go about completing this. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Modify onclick function with jQuery

    - by Chris Barr
    I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

    Read the article

  • Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

    - by Schnapple
    Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531  | Next Page >