Search Results

Search found 56208 results on 2249 pages for 'ini set'.

Page 525/2249 | < Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >

• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

  Read the article

• Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

  - by Mick

  I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

  Read the article

• ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

  - by Mortanis

  I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

  Read the article

• Auto Submitting a form (cURL)

  - by cast01

  Im writing a form to post data off to paypal, and this works fine, i create the form with hidden fields and then have a submit button that submits everything to paypal. However, when the user clicks that button, there is more that i want to do, for example change their cart status in the database. So, i want to be able to execute some code when they click submit and then post the data to paypal. I dont want to use javascript for this. My method at the moment is using cURL, the form posts back to the current page, i then check for $_POST data, do my other commands like updating the status of the cart, and then create a curl command, and post the form data to paypal. Now, it gets posted successfully, but the browser doesnt go off to paypal. At first i was just retirieving the result in a string and then echoing it out and i could see that the post was successful, then i set CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION to 1 assuming this would let the browser go off to paypal but it doesnt, what it seems to do is grab some stuff from paypal and put it on my page. Is using cURL the right thing for this? and if so, how do i get round this problem? I want to stay away from javascript for this as only users with javascript enabled would have their cart updated. The code im using for curl is below, the post_data is an array i created and then read key-value pairs into post_string. //Set cURL Options curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1)"); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, 20); //Set Data to be Posted curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); //Execute Request curl_exec($curl_connection);

  Read the article

• Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

  - by Cryptite

  There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Bad idea to have the same object, have a different side effect after method call.

  - by Nathan W

  Hi all, I'm having a bit of a gesign issue(again). Say I have this Buttonpad object: now this object is a wrapper object over one in a com object. At the moment it has a method on it called CreateInto(IComObject). Now to make a new button pad in the Com Object. You do: ButtonPad pad = new ButtonPad(); pad.Title = "Hello"; // Set some more properties. pad.CreateInto(Cominstance); The createinfo method will excute the right commands to buid the button pad in the com object. After it has been created it any calls against it are foward to the underlying object for change so: pad.Title = "New title"; will call the com object to set the title and also set the internal title variable. Basically any calls before the CreateInfo method only affect the .NET object anything after has the side effect of calling the com object also. I'm not very good at sequence diagrams but here is my attempt to explain whats going on: This doesn't feel good to me, it feels like I'm lying to the user about what the button pad does. I was going to have a object called WrappedButtonPad, which is returned from CreateInto and the user could make calls against that to make changes to the Com Object, but I feel having two objects that almost do the same thing but only differ by names might be even worse. Are these valid designs, or am I right to be worried? How else would you handle a object the can create and query a com object?

  Read the article

• Sending emails with CodeIgniter in a local XAMPP server

  - by KeyStroke

  Hi, I'm trying to send emails through localhost (XAMPP Windows 1.7.3 installation), but I've been trying for hours with no success. This is the last code I tried: $config = Array( 'protocol' => 'smtp', 'smtp_host' => 'ssl://smtp.gmail.com', 'smtp_port' => 465, 'smtp_user' => '[email protected]', 'smtp_pass' => 'mypassword', ); $this->load->library('email', $config); $this->email->set_newline("\r\n"); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'My Name'); $this->email->to('[email protected]'); $this->email->subject('Email Test'); $this->email->message('Testing the email class.'); if($this->email->send()) { echo 'Your email was sent.'; } else { show_error($this->email->print_debugger()); } Whenever I tried to load this the page shows that it's loading but nothing happens. Is there anything I need to setup in my server to insure email delivery? I messed with php.ini and sendmail's config a bit with no luck. And openSSL isn't available in case that matters. Any idea what's wrong?

  Read the article

• Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

  - by Ahmed

  Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

  Read the article

• .NET Web Serivce hydrate custom class

  - by row1

  I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

  Read the article

• How do I break down an NSTimeInterval into year, months, days, hours, minutes and seconds on iPhone?

  - by willc2

  I have a time interval that spans years and I want all the time components from year down to seconds. My first thought is to integer divide the time interval by seconds in a year, subtract that from a running total of seconds, divide that by seconds in a month, subtract that from the running total and so on. That just seems convoluted and I've read that whenever you are doing something that looks convoluted, there is probably a built-in method. Is there? I integrated Alex's 2nd method into my code. It's in a method called by a UIDatePicker in my interface. NSDate *now = [NSDate date]; NSDate *then = self.datePicker.date; NSTimeInterval howLong = [now timeIntervalSinceDate:then]; NSDate *date = [NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSince1970:howLong]; NSString *dateStr = [date description]; const char *dateStrPtr = [dateStr UTF8String]; int year, month, day, hour, minute, sec; sscanf(dateStrPtr, "%d-%d-%d %d:%d:%d", &year, &month, &day, &hour, &minute, &sec); year -= 1970; NSLog(@"%d years\n%d months\n%d days\n%d hours\n%d minutes\n%d seconds", year, month, day, hour, minute, sec); When I set the date picker to a date 1 year and 1 day in the past, I get: 1 years 1 months 1 days 16 hours 0 minutes 20 seconds which is 1 month and 16 hours off. If I set the date picker to 1 day in the past, I am off by the same amount. Update: I have an app that calculates your age in years, given your birthday (set from a UIDatePicker), yet it was often off. This proves there was an inaccuracy, but I can't figure out where it comes from, can you?

  Read the article

• Where to store: User connection information?

  - by TomTom

  ;) I am writing a .NET application wher ethe user connects to a given server. ALl information within the application is stored in the server. But I want / need to store the following information for the user: The server he connected to last The username he used to connect last (and no, no password, never ever). Any idea where to store this best? the application config file is not sensible (user != admin, application.config is write protected for him). So, my options are: In the registry. 2 keys under my own subkey. In a sort of ini file, stored in the user's data directory (AppData). This would possibly also allow later expansion (into like saving more information, some of which may not fit into the registry). Anyone a tip? Other alternatives? I tend so far to go for the AppData directory with my own subfolder - simply because it is a nice preparation for later to keep like a local copy of configuration etc.

  Read the article

• How can I prevent text displacement for some foreign language fonts?

  - by weltraumpirat

  I have a multilingual project (currently 13 languages), which uses many different font variations of "Helvetica Neue", mostly bold, condensed and regular cuts from the LinoType Pro font set ( which includes western european characters) and the same for cyrillic. We will probably add chinese and japanese variations in the future. I have set up the project to use different CSS stylesheets and separately load the fonts for each version, depending on which language the user selects, so I can have different line heights, kerning and/or font sizes to make everything keep the original look, even if the fonts look nothing alike. All of this works well, except for one problem: For some reason, all cyrillic letters seem to be displaced. They appear 2-3 pixels below the correct base line, and actually protrude across the textfield's bottom border, even when the field is set to autosize. When I use textfield.getCharBoundaries(), all values seem to be correct, even though they obviously aren't rendered correctly. To make everything look neat, I could of course manually move all problematic textfields up or down according to language and font size, but I was wondering if there was some way to prevent or at least detect this kind of displacement in order to automatically handle the adjustments - the Flash Player should have some sort of information on how things are rendered, shouldn't it? Have any of you had similar problems? Or better yet: a solution?

  Read the article

• How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

  - by user1521587

  I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

  Read the article

• Length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars error? python

  - by Randy

  from numpy import * from pylab import * from math import * def LogisticMap(a,x): return 4.*a*x*(1.-x) def CosineMap(a,x): return a*cos(x/(2.*pi)) def TentMap(a,x): if x>= 0 or x<0.5: return 2.*a*x if x>=0.5 or x<=1.: return 2.*a*(1.-x) a = 0.98 N = 40 xaxis = arange(0.0,N,1.0) Func = CosineMap subplot(211) title(str(Func.func_name) + ' at a=%g and its second iterate' %a) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,xaxis), 'g', antialiased=True) subplot(212) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label xlabel('X(n)') # set x-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,Func(a,xaxis)), 'bo', antialiased=True) My program is supposed to take any of the three defined functions and plot it. They all take in a value x from the array xaxis from 0 to N and then return the value. I want it to plot a graph of xaxis vs f(xaxis) with f being any of the three above functions. The logisticmap function works fine, but for CosineMap i get the error "only length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars" and for TentMap i get error "The truth value of an array with more than one element is ambiguous, use a.any() or a.all()". My tent map function is suppose to return 2*a*x if 0<=x<0.5 and it's suppose to return 2*a*(1-x) if 0.5<=0<=1.

  Read the article

• Entity and N-Tier architecture in C#

  - by acadia

  Hello, I have three tables as shown below Emp ---- empID int empName deptID empDetails ----------- empDetailsID int empID int empDocuments -------------- docID empID docName docType I am creating a entity class so that I can use n-tier architecture to do database transactions etc in C#. I started creating class for the same as shown below using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace employee { class emp { private int empID; private string empName; private int deptID; public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } } My question is as empDetails and empDocuments are related to emp by empID. How do I have those in my emp class. I would appreciate if you can direct me to an example. Thanks

  Read the article

• How to solve this problem with Python

  - by morpheous

  I am "porting" an application I wrote in C++ into Python. This is the current workflow: Application is started from the console Application parses CLI args Application reads an ini configuration file which specifies which plugins to load etc Application starts a timer Application iterates through each loaded plugin and orders them to start work. This spawns a new worker thread for the plugin The plugins carry out their work and when completed, they die When time interval (read from config file) is up, steps 5-7 is repeated iteratively Since I am new to Python (2 days and counting), the distinction between script, modules and packages are still a bit hazy to me, and I would like to seek advice from Pythonista as to how to implement the workflow described above, using Python as the programing language. In order to keep things simple, I have decided to leave out the time interval stuff out, and instead run the python script/scripts as a cron job instead. This is how I am thinking of approaching it: Encapsulate the whole application in a package which is executable (i.e. can be run from the command line with arguments. Write the plugins as modules (I think maybe its better to implement each module in a separate file?) I havent seen any examples of using threading in Python yet. Could someone provide a snippet of how I could spawn a thread to run a module. Also, I am not sure how to implement the concept of plugins in Python - any advice would be helpful - especially with a code snippet.

  Read the article

• Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

  - by Robert Rossney

  Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

  Read the article

• Why Is Apache Giving 403?

  - by ThinkCL

  I am getting 403 Errors from Apache when I send too many, 12, synchronous HTTP Posts via a desktop app I am building in XCode / Objective-C. The 12 POST requests are just a few kb each and go out instantly one after the other and the Apache Error Log shows... client denied by server configuration: /the-path/the-file.php Apache 2.0 PHP 5 and I have this same setup working fine on my local machine. The error is coming from a VPS with my host, which runs very fast and smooth and has plenty of resources. To debug I threw a sleep(1); function (stalls script execution by 1 second) into the php file and that fixed it. This makes me think that I am breaking some limit for too many requests for a single IP in a certain amount of time. I have googled and combed PHP ini and Apache configs, but I cannot find what that directive/setting might be. I should mention that the although it varies the first 4 or 5 POSTS usually work then it starts returning the 403 error intermittently after that. Just really acting like its bogging down. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

  - by aaginor

  I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

  Read the article

• How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

  - by Mano

  Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

  Read the article

• How can I get git to work with a remote server?

  - by Adrienne

  I am the CM person for a small company that just started using Git. We have two Git repositories currently hosted on a Windows box that is our all-purpose Windows server. But, we just set up a dedicated server for our CM software on an Ubuntu Linux server named "Callisto". So I created a test Git repository on Callisto. I gave its directory all of the proper permissions recursively. I had the sysadmin create a login for me on Callisto, and I created a key to use for logging in via SSH. I set up my key to use a passphrase; I don't know if that could be contributing to my problems? Anyway, I know my SSH login works because I tested it through puTTY. But, even after hours of trials and head scratching, I can't get my Windows Git bash (mSysGit) to talk to Callisto for the purposes of pushing or pulling Callisto's git repository files. I keep getting "Fatal error. The remote end hung up unexpectedly." And I've even gotten the error that Git doesn't recognize the test repository on Callisto as a git repository. I read online that the "Fatal error...hung up unexpectedly" is usually a problem with the server connection or permissions. So what am I missing or overlooking here? And why doesn't a pull using the git:// protocol work, since that only uses read-only access? Group and public permissions for the git repository's directory on Callisto are set to read and execute, but not write. If anyone could help, I would be so grateful. Thank you.

  Read the article

• c# Convert LINQ var result to actual type

  - by DrBob

  In c#, Given the following code: public class Person { public int PersonID { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } and List<Person> people = new List<Person>(); for (int i = 0; i != 15; i++) { Person p = new Person(); p.PersonID = i; p.Age = i * 12; p.Name = "Name " + i; people.Add(p); } var sortedPeople = from qPeople in people where qPeople.Age > 0 && qPeople.Age < 25 || qPeople.Age > 100 orderby qPeople.Age descending select qPeople; Can I load the results of sortedPeople back into a List<Person without a loop? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to increment the string value during run time without using dr.read() and store it in the oledb

  - by sameer

  Here is my code, everything is working fine the only problem is with the ReadData() method in which i want the string value to be increment i.e AM0001,AM0002,AM0003 etc. This is happening but only one time the value is getting increment to AM0001, the second time the same value i.e AM0001 is getting return. Due to this i am getting a error from oledb because of AM0001 is a primary key field. enter code here: class Jewellery : Connectionstr { string lmcode = null; public string LM_code { get { return lmcode;} set { lmcode = ReadData();} } string mname; public string M_Name { get { return mname; } set { mname = value;} } string desc; public string Desc { get { return desc; } set { desc = value; } } public string ReadData() { string jid = string.Empty; string displayString = string.Empty; String query = "select max(LM_code)from Master_Accounts"; Datamanager.RunExecuteReader(Constr,query); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(jid)) { jid = "AM0000";//This string value has to increment at every time, but it is getting increment only one time. } int len = jid.Length; string split = jid.Substring(2, len - 2); int num = Convert.ToInt32(split); num++; displayString = jid.Substring(0, 2) + num.ToString("0000"); return displayString; } public void add() { String query ="insert into Master_Accounts values ('" + LM_code + "','" + M_Name + "','" + Desc + "')"; Datamanager.RunExecuteNonQuery(Constr , query); } Any help will be appreciated.

  Read the article

• addField type image and thumbnail path

  - by Christiaan

  Hello, I have a Magento webshop and just created a custom module with the extension (Modulecreator). This module comes with a standard admin interface that can handle file uploads. I found out that if you want to show thumbnails you can use the 'image' field type (addField('myfield', 'image')) instead of the 'file' type field. But now i've got a problem. When I upload files, I save them in a subdirectory called 'slides' in the 'media' directory. But when I edit the item, the image path for the thumbnail next to the uploadfield is set to the 'media' folder. Not my folder as I set it to 'media/slides/'. I use the following code: $fieldset->addField('filename', 'image', array( 'label' => Mage::helper('slideshow')->__('File'), 'required' => true, 'name' => 'filename', )); I tried to set a 'path' key in the array, but this doesn't get picked up by Magento. Hate the lack of support for good and easy to use documentation by Magento... Maybe you can help me out to find a solution?

  Read the article

• jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

  - by Kayes

  I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >