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• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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• UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

  - by hadronzoo

  I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

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• Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

  - by Telos

  I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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• How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

  - by Tchalvak

  I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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• Nhibernat mapping aspnet_Users table

  - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick

  My User table I want to map to aspnet_Users: <class name="User" table="`User`"> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="Guid" not-null="true" /> <property name="FullName" column="FullName" type="String" not-null="true" /> <property name="PhoneNumber" column="PhoneNumber" type="String" not-null="false" /> </class> My aspnet_Users table: <class name="aspnet_Users" table="aspnet_Users"> <id name="ID" column="UserId" type="Guid" /> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="string" not-null="false" /> </class> I tried adding one-to-one, one-to-many and many-to-one mappings. The closest I can get is with this error: Object of type 'System.Guid' cannot be converted to type 'System.Int32'. How do I create a 1 way mapping from User to aspnet_User via the UserId column in User? I am only wanting to create a reference so I can extract read-only information, affect sorts, etc. I still need to leave UserId column in User set up like it is now. Maybe a virtual reference keying off of UserId? Is this even possible with Nhibernate? Unfortunately it acts like it only wants to use ID from User to map to aspnet_Users. Changing the table User to have it's primary key be UserId instead of ID is not an option at this point. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• python eval weirdness

  - by amadain

  Hi Folks I have the following code in one of my classes along with checks when the code does not eval: filterParam="self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" if eval(filterParam): print "Evalled" else: print "Not Evalled\nfilterParam\n'%s'\ntmpBPSS\n'%s'\nself.recipientMSISDN\n'%s'\nself.recipientIMSI\n'%s'" % (filterParam, tmpBPSS, self.recipientMSISDN, self.recipientIMSI) I am not getting anything to 'eval'. Here are the results: Not Evalled filterParam 'self.recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and self.recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]' tmpBPSS 'bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' self.recipientMSISDN '919844000039' self.recipientIMSI '892000000' So I used the outputs from the above to check the code in a python shell and as you can see the code evalled correctly: >>> filterParam="recipientMSISDN==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[0] and recipientIMSI==tmpBPSS.split('_')[3].split('#')[1]" >>> tmpBPSS='bprm_DAILY_MO_919844000039#892000000' >>> recipientMSISDN='919844000039' >>> recipientIMSI='892000000' >>> if eval(filterParam): ... print "Evalled" ... else: ... print "Not Evalled" ... Evalled Am I off my rocker or what am I missing? A

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• NTLM Authentication fails when behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. I have sniffed the traffic, and noticed the following: Behind Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx Without Proxy # Result Protocol Host URL 1 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Authentication.asmx 2 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 3 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 4 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 5 401 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx 6 200 HTTP host.domain.com /_vti_bin/Webs.asmx When running the code from a network without a proxy server, I successfully Authentication with the server, but when I'm behind the proxy server, the traffic is cut-off at the 5th message, and thus don't succeed. I know from the Java docs that On Microsoft Windows platforms, NTLM authentication attempts to acquire the user credentials from the system without prompting the user's authenticator object. If these credentials are not accepted by the server then the user's authenticator will be called. Given that my Authentication code is called only ones, and only as the 5th attempt, it appears as if the connection is dropped when behind the proxy server before my Authentication object is used. Is there any way I can control the behavior of Authentication module, to not have it use the system credentials? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text Br Jan

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• Saving a record in Authlogic table

  - by denniss

  I am using authlogic to do my authentication. The current model that serves as the authentication model is the user model. I want to add a "belongs to" relationship to user which means that I need a foreign key in the user table. Say the foreign key is called car_id in the user's model. However, for some reason, when I do u = User.find(1) u.car_id = 1 u.save! I get ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Password can't be blank My guess is that this has something to do with authlogic. I do not have validation on password on the user's model. This is the migration for the user's table. def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :email t.string :first_name t.string :last_name t.string :crypted_password t.string :password_salt t.string :persistence_token t.string :single_access_token t.string :perishable_token t.integer :login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.integer :failed_login_count, :null => false, :default => 0 # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_request_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :current_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.datetime :last_login_at # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :current_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.string :last_login_ip # optional, see Authlogic::Session::MagicColumns t.timestamps end end And later I added the car_id column to it. def self.up add_column :users, :user_id, :integer end Is there anyway for me to turn off this validation?

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• iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

  - by Oliver

  Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

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• silverlight security with WCF service, Forms Authentication and Custom Form Ticket

  - by user74825

  I have a silverlight application with login on the silverlight page. It uses Forms Authentication with WCF authentication service and customer Membership Provider. Something like : http://blogs.msdn.com/phaniraj/archive/2009/09/10/using-the-ado-net-data-services-silverlight-client-library-in-x-domain-and-out-of-browser-scenarios-ii-forms-authentication.aspx So, SL page login page calls the WCF service authentication service, it validates using DB - brings back username and password. Now, in each subsequent calls (in Global.asax in Authenticate_Request, I get HttpContext.User.IsAuthenticated and HttpContext.User.UserName). I have all this working properly. But, I just don't want the username, but more information surrounding the user, like UserId, UserAddress, UserAssociateCustomer etc. I tried couple of different approaches. 1) Use HttpContext.Cache as a dictionary to save the item and get it off based on httpcontext.user.name, problem is cache can be erased if there memory is being used heavily. 2) Tried CustomFormsAuth Ticket, when forms authentication writes a ticket, I intercept CreatingCookie method and write additional info in formauthentication ticket, so that I can read it in subsequent requests, I am having problems with this approach, I don't find the ticket in subsequent requests. I read about how we should use REsponse.Redirect, but where do I redirect user from WCF call. How do you guys implement the above scenario? Any best practices.? Any issues you see with going on HTTPS? All examples (or most of them) just explains simple forms authentication with "I am logged in message".. Any suggestions ?

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• Detect IE version in Javascript

  - by Chad Decker

  I want to bounce users of our web site to an error page if they're using a version of Internet Explorer prior to v9. It's just not worth our time and money to support IE pre-v9. Users of all other non-IE browsers are fine and shouldn't be bounced. Here's the proposed code: if(navigator.appName.indexOf("Internet Explorer")!=-1){ //yeah, he's using IE var badBrowser=( navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 9")==-1 && //v9 is ok navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 1")==-1 //v10, 11, 12, etc. is fine too ); if(badBrowser){ // navigate to error page } } Will this code do the trick? To head off a few comments that will probably be coming my way: [1] Yes, I know that users can forge their useragent string. I'm not concerned. [2] Yes, I know that programming pros prefer sniffing out feature-support instead of browser-type but I don't feel this approach makes sense in this case. I already know that all (relevant) non-IE browsers support the features that I need and that all pre-v9 IE browsers don't. Checking feature by feature throughout the site would be a waste. [3] Yes, I know that someone trying to access the site using IE v1 (or = 20) wouldn't get 'badBrowser' set to true and the warning page wouldn't be displayed properly. That's a risk we're willing to take. [4] Yes, I know that Microsoft has "conditional comments" that can be used for precise browser version detection. IE no longer supports conditional comments as of IE 10, rendering this approach absolutely useless. Any other obvious issues to be aware of? Thanks.

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• Redirect website from http to https

  - by MaG3Stican

  I have a website stored on azure for which I got an SSL certificate. I am trying to redirect www.mywebsite.com to https://www.mywebsite.com but with no success. I am using the following code that should change the configuration of IIS where my project is deployed : <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to HTTPS"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="off" ignoreCase="true" /> <add input="{URL}" pattern="/$" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="https://{SERVER_NAME}/{R:1}" redirectType="SeeOther" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> But when I type my URL it does not redirect to https. By the way, rewrite appears unrecorgnized by Intellisense.

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• git: how to not delete files when rebasing commits with file deletion

  - by Benjol

  I have a branch that I would like to rebase onto the lastest commit on my master. The problem is that one of the intervening commits on master was to delete and ignore a particular set of files (see this question). If I just do a straight rebase, those files will get deleted again. Is there anyway of doing this, inside git, rather than copying all the files out by hand, then copying them back in again afterwards? Or should I do something like create a new branch off master, then merge in just the commits from the old branch? Attempts ascii art: master branch | w work in progress on branch C | committed further changes on master | | B / committed delete/ignore files on master | 2 committed changes on branch | / A / committed changes on master which I now need to get branch working | 1 committed changes on branch 0___/ created branch (Doing the art, I realise that I could just rebase branch from A, then merge when I've finished, but I'd still like to know if there's a way to do this 'properly') UPDATE Warning to anyone trying this. The solution proposed here is fine, but when you checkout master again, the B commit will be re-applied, and you lose all your files again :(

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• Translate XSD element names to English

  - by Coov

  I have an XML Schema Definition file .XSD who's elements are in Spanish. I have an XML data file that is also in Spanish that matches the schema definition. I created a dataset from the xsd using xsd.exe and I'm loading the XML into the dataset. I want to translate the element names to English. I can think of two options off the top of my head. Either scrape the XSD & XML files and translate the elements prior to generating the dataset with esd.exe, or iterate the dataset after I have loaded it with the xml, and translate my objects. I do have a written document that provides the English names for every element name in Spanish. The problem is there are hundreds of elements and I was trying to avoid coding that manually. Getting precise translations is not that important, it just needs to be readable by an English speaking person. Here is an example of what an element may look like "Apellidos": <xs:element name="Apellidos" type="xs:string"/> that I will translate to "SirName": <xs:element name="SirName" type="xs:string"/> I'm looking for ideas and or opinions on a quick way to do this. It's a one time deal so I'm not working about it scaling or being functional for things other than this single xml file. I'll be taking this dataset and writing out a flat file for English speaking users to read.

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• How to run R through PHP with exec?

  - by dkar

  I am going to ask something, that I know that it has been asked already some times. But since, all of the past posts are quite old and none of them answer my problem..I try again. I am completely new in R language and relative new in php. What I want to do is to use the exec() function from php in order to execute a R script. Most of the people here will start talking about rapache, rserve and I don't know what else..but since I am not familiar with all these technologies, I prefer just using exec. The code I will show here is working just fine when I run it with Rscript from the terminal. # R script png("temp.png") plot(5,5) dev.off() But when I try to run it either with Rscript or with R CMD BATCH from PHP, like this: echo exec("Rscript my_rscript.R"); //OR //echo exec("R CMD BATCH my_rscript.R"); I get nothing back. I have checked if exec() function is available and if it works. Everything is ok with this. I read also, that I might have to change the permissions of the webserver...but I don't know how to do this in mamp. I hope I am clear with my problem and someone can help. Thanks Dimitris

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• Flash - Uploading to and Downloading from localhost

  - by Md Derf

  I have an online flash application that acts as a front end for a server application built in delphi. The server can be installed/used on a remote computer or a personal version can be downloaded and the Flash app pointed at localhost to use it. However, Flash has issues with using the POST and GET functions on the localhost, which makes uploading data files and downloading results files difficult. To get past the difficulty with downloading results files I'm planning to just have the server app serve the results file as an attachment and have the Flash app open the address of the file up in another browser window using external interface. First off, is this likely to cause similar security issues? I.E. Flash will see "localhost" in the external interface call and stop it from working the same as when I try to use POST/GET functions with localhost? Secondly, for upload this seems just a bit little trickier, I'm planning on doing something similar, having flash use external interface to open a php script for a file upload. Is this feasible and, again, will Flash still have security issues? Lastly, if anyone knows how to get flash to execute POST and GET functions with localhost addresses, I'd love to have that information to avoid all this jumping through hoops.

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• Which JavaScript framework for me?

  - by LeonixSolutions

  This is not to be a subjective question; nor is it intended to start a religious war. Which JavaScript framework for me? Until now, I haven't coded any JS at all (no biggy, it's just another language). I have been set in my ways and eschewed any client-side code, lest the user have JS turned off, or try to "just change this a little, to see what happens" - and then expect me to support it. So, until now it has all been server-side, with PHP and an ODBC compliant database. However, I am beginning to see advantages to client-side input validation and improved graphical experience for users which would help me to produce more professional web-based applications. I am looking for a framework which : doesn't have a steep learning curve is full-featured, although that does not mean that the one with the most features wins (remember the 80/20 rule) is mature an stable (even if still in development) integrates well with common IDEs if possible. I use NetBeans for PHP (and occasionally MS visual studio for C# (I seem to have drifted away from Eclipse)) allows me to develop web sites/apps for mobile devices support for Goggle charts (or other charting) would be a bonus has good AJAX/JSON support, but I imagine that they all do Taking that into consideration, is there a "right" framework for me, or does it not really matter? I looked briefly at JQuery and JQueryGui and liked what I saw, but I really don't have time, owing to deadlines, to try them all out and see which one suits me, much as I know that I ought to.

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• Problem in migrating to LAMP from XAMPP.. Memory limit error

  - by Geshan

  I was using XAMPP for my local machine but as I wanted to run applications like mysql work bench and some test frameworks I decided to switch to LAMP self install. I'm using ubuntu and followed the instructions at: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/ApacheMySQLPHP But the problem is LAMP is consuming too much of my memory (RAM) I've allocated 124 MB currently but still it gives me memory exhausted error when I run Drush (Drupal command line). When I do drush cc to clear cache it give me the following: Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 33554432 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 122880 bytes) in /var/www/----/sites/all/modules/ubercart/uc_order/uc_order.order_pane.inc on line 150 Call Stack: 0.0020 185624 1. {main}() /opt/drush/drush.php:0 0.0254 1303672 2. drush_main() /opt/drush/drush.php:37 0.2674 5107784 3. drush_bootstrap() /opt/drush/drush.php:71 0.2676 5109872 4. _drush_bootstrap_drupal_full() /opt/drush/includes/environment.inc:173 0.2676 5151032 5. drupal_bootstrap() /opt/drush/includes/environment.inc:655 0.3030 7739048 6. _drupal_bootstrap() /var/www/missmoti/includes/bootstrap.inc:989 0.3122 8855792 7. _drupal_bootstrap_full() /var/www/missmoti/includes/bootstrap.inc:1078 0.3445 12387320 8. module_load_all() /var/www/missmoti/includes/common.inc:2608 0.5194 32586544 9. drupal_load() /var/www/missmoti/includes/module.inc:14 0.5251 33361112 10. include_once('/var/www/missmoti/sites/all/modules/ubercart/uc_order/uc_order.module') /var/www/-----/includes/bootstrap.inc:617 Drush command could not be completed. In each error it shows me a back trace and I guess this default debugger I'm not aware of in Apache or my PHP config it eating up the memory. If anyone can help I"d be glad. Another error below: Fatal error: Call to undefined function dsm() in /var/www/-----/sites/all/modules/custom/gtpath/gtpath.module on line 180 Call Stack # Time Memory Function Location 1 0.0002 120144 {main}( ) ../index.php:0 2 1.7604 68224112 theme( ) ../index.php:36 3 2.0188 77346112 call_user_func_array ( ) ../theme.inc:658 4 2.0188 77347024 gtpath_preprocess_page( ) ../theme.inc:0 how do I deal with this default debugger? how do I turn it off??

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• How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

  - by Adam

  Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

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• Encrypting an id in an URL in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Chuck Conway

  I'm attempting to encode the encrypted id in the Url. Like this: http://www.calemadr.com/Membership/Welcome/9xCnCLIwzxzBuPEjqJFxC6XJdAZqQsIDqNrRUJoW6229IIeeL4eXl5n1cnYapg+N However, it either doesn't encode correctly and I get slashes '/' in the encryption or I receive and error from IIS: The request filtering module is configured to deny a request that contains a double escape sequence. I've tried different encodings, each fails: HttpUtility.HtmlEncode HttpUtility.UrlEncode HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode HttpUtility.UrlEncodeUnicode Update The problem was I when I encrypted a Guid and converted it to a base64 string it would contain unsafe url characters . Of course when I tried to navigate to a url containing unsafe characters IIS(7.5/ windows 7) would blow up. Url Encoding the base64 encrypted string would raise and error in IIS (The request filtering module is configured to deny a request that contains a double escape sequence.). I'm not sure how it detects double encoded strings but it did. After trying the above methods to encode the base64 encrypted string. I decided to remove the base64 encoding. However this leaves the encrypted text as a byte[]. I tried UrlEncoding the byte[], it's one of the overloads hanging off the httpUtility.Encode method. Again, while it was URL encoded, IIS did not like it and served up a "page not found." After digging around the net I came across a HexEncoding/Decoding class. Applying the Hex Encoding to the encrypted bytes did the trick. The output is url safe. On the other side, I haven't had any problems with decoding and decrypting the hex strings.

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• MySQL can't access root account or reset with mysqladmin

  - by glumptious

  So if I type mysql -u root I'm supposedly logged in, however upon trying to create or access a database I get this lovely error: ERROR 1044 (42000): Access denied for user ''@'localhost' to database 'test1'. I haven't the foggiest idea why after logging in as root it's trying access DB's as ''@'localhost' and it's driving me a bit crazy right now. Possibly related, when I try to set the root password I get the error mysqladmin: Can't turn off logging; error: 'Access denied; you need (at least one of) the SUPER privilege(s) for this operation'. I've tried removing mysql-server via running apt-get purge mysql-server and then reinstalling with no luck. This is running Ubuntu Server 12.10 64-bit and mysql is indeed running. --Edit-- I wonder if perhaps there is no root user. So I try to start MySQL with --skip-grant-tables and the create the root user but then I'm given this: ERROR 1290 (HY000): The MySQL server is running with the --skip-grant-tables option so it cannot execute this statement. Fun fun fun fun fun.

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• How do I read binary C++ protobuf data using Python protobuf?

  - by nbolton

  The Python version of Google protobuf gives us only: SerializeAsString() Where as the C++ version gives us both: SerializeToArray(...) SerializeAsString() We're writing to our C++ file in binary format, and we'd like to keep it this way. That said, is there a way of reading the binary data into Python and parsing it as if it were a string? Is this the correct way of doing it? binary = get_binary_data() binary_size = get_binary_size() string = None for i in range(len(binary_size)): string += i message = new MyMessage() message.ParseFromString(string) Update: Here's a new example, and a problem: message_length = 512 file = open('foobars.bin', 'rb') eof = False while not eof: data = file.read(message_length) eof = not data if not eof: foo_bar = FooBar() foo_bar.ParseFromString(data) When we get to the foo_bar.ParseFromString(data) line, I get this error: Exception Type: DecodeError Exception Value: Too many bytes when decoding varint. Update 2: It turns out, that the padding on the binary data was throwing protobuf off; too many bytes were being sent in, as the message suggests (in this case it was referring to the padding). This padding comes from using the C++ protobuf function, SerializeToArray on a fixed-length buffer. To eliminate this, I have used this temproary code: message_length = 512 file = open('foobars.bin', 'rb') eof = False while not eof: data = file.read(message_length) eof = not data string = '' for i in range(0, len(data)): byte = data[i] if byte != '\xcc': # yuck! string += data[i] if not eof: foo_bar = FooBar() foo_bar.ParseFromString(string) There is a design flaw here I think. I will re-implement my C++ code so that it writes variable length arrays to the binary file. As advised by the protobuf documentation, I will prefix each message with it's binary size so that I know how much to read when I'm opening the file with Python.

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• How close can I get C# to the performance of C++ for small intensive tasks?

  - by SLC

  I was thinking about the speed difference of C++ to C# being mostly about C# compiling to byte-code that is taken in by the JIT compiler (is that correct?) and all the checks C# does. I notice that it is possible to turn a lot of these functions off, both in the compile options, and possibly through using the unsafe keyword as unsafe code is not verifiable by the common language runtime. Therefore if you were to write a simple console application in both languages, that flipped an imaginary coin an infinite number of times and displayed the results to the screen every 10,000 or so iterations, how much speed difference would there be? I chose this because it's a very simple program. I'd like to test this but I don't know C++ or have the tools to compile it. This is my C# version though: static void Main(string[] args) { unsafe { Random rnd = new Random(); int heads = 0, tails = 0; while (true) { if (rnd.NextDouble() > 0.5) heads++; else tails++; if ((heads + tails) % 1000000 == 0) Console.WriteLine("Heads: {0} Tails: {1}", heads, tails); } } } Is the difference enough to warrant deliberately compiling sections of code "unsafe" or into DLLs that do not have some of the compile options like overflow checking enabled? Or does it go the other way, where it would be beneficial to compile sections in C++? I'm sure interop speed comes into play too then. To avoid subjectivity, I reiterate the specific parts of this question as: Does C# have a performance boost from using unsafe code? Do the compile options such as disabling overflow checking boost performance, and do they affect unsafe code? Would the program above be faster in C++ or negligably different? Is it worth compiling long intensive number-crunching tasks in a language such as C++ or using /unsafe for a bonus? Less subjectively, could I complete an intensive operation faster by doing this?

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• Detect if certain UIView was touched amongst other UIViews

  - by Rudiger

  HI Guys, Sorry if this has been answered elsewhere but I can't seem to get it to work. I have 3 UIViews, layered on top of one large uiview. I want to know if the user touches the top one and not care about the other ones. I will have a couple of buttons in the second UIView and a UITable in the 3rd UIView. Problem is I turn userInteractionEngabled on on the first view and that works, but all the other views respond in the same way even if I turn it off. If I disable userInteractionEnabled on self.view none of them respond. I also can't detect which view was touched in the touchesBegan delegate method. my code: UIView *aView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 150)]; aView = userInteractionEnabled = YES; [self.view addSubview:aView]; UIView *bView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 150, 320, 50)]; bView.userInteractionEnabled = NO; [self.view addSubview:bView]; -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { //This gets called for a touch anywhere } Thanks for any help.

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• C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

  - by Kevin Won

  This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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