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Need to close a popup after javascript completes image upload then load new page

- by Michael Robinson

I got a problem. I have a image upload script that runs on a popup up when you select "upload button", after it is complete instead of closing it stays in the uploader.html window. I need it to close and go to a new page. Here is some of the xml that the script uses, can I change the "urlOnUploadSucess" line to close the popup and load a new page on the original page I came from? .....<upload preload="Preloading images:" upload="Uploading images to server:" prepare="Processing and image compression:" of="of" cancel="Cancel" start="Start" warning_empty_required_field="Warning! One of the required fields is empty!" confirm="Will be uploaded:"/> <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.baublet.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.baublet.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.baublet.com/flashalternative.html" useMessageBoxesAfterUpload="false" messageOnUploadSuccess="Images were successfully uploaded!" messageOnUploadFail="Error! Images failed to upload!" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> ..... Thanks, Michael

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Can Content script set value of a text box within HTML frame? using Google Chrome extensions..

- by devdreamers

Hi all, I was working on a very simple extension, where on clicking extension icon, a webpage is opened in a new tab, the webpage has HTML frames, within which lies a textbox. I want to set a value for the same. The webpage which opens has: <HTML> <FRAMESET rows="15%, *" border="0"> <FRAME src="./files/abc.htm" id="abc_frame" name="abc_frame" onload="abcLoad()" scrolling="NO"> </FRAMESET> </HTML> and abc.htm has: <div align="center" valign="bottom" style="font-size: 1em;"> <form onSubmit="javascript:navigate(this);return false;"> <label for="loc">Loc</label>: <input type="text" size="50" id="loc" value="http://google.com"/> <input name="go" type="submit" value="Go" id="loc_go" onclick='navigate(this); return false;'/> </form> </div> how can I replace current textbox value with, say http://yahoo.com ? I guess, Content Script in Chrome extensions is required, but not sure, how/what should be it's code/content. Please guide/help. Thanks a lot. Appreciate it.

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String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

- by Justin R.

My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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I am confused -- Will this code always work?

- by Shekhar

Hello, I have written this piece of code public class Test{ public static void main(String[] args) { List<Integer> list = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 1;i<= 4;i++){ new Thread(new TestTask(i, list)).start(); } while(list.size() != 4){ // this while loop required so that all threads complete their work } System.out.println("List "+list); } } class TestTask implements Runnable{ private int sequence; private List<Integer> list; public TestTask(int sequence, List<Integer> list) { this.sequence = sequence; this.list = list; } @Override public void run() { list.add(sequence); } } This code works and prints all the four elements of list on my machine. My question is that will this code always work. I think there might be a issue in this code when two/or more threads add element to this list at the same point. In that case it while loop will never end and code will fail. Can anybody suggest a better way to do this? I am not very good at multithreading and don't know which concurrent collection i can use? Thanks Shekhar

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SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

- by Mike

I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use DropDownListFor ?

- by SLC

I have a simple model / view with things like Username, Password etc. and use helpers fine to hook it up. I now have a field called "NumberOfChildren". I want to store a number in it (int) and I want it render a dropdown box containing "None", "1", "2" etc. My thoughts would be that the model would have a list or a method that returns a list, so I can specify the values such as NumberOfChildren_List that I put the data into, and then DropDownListFor pulls that list and renders it, matching the value to the value of the item in the dropdown. However after spending about 30 minutes on trying to figure out how on earth it works, I gave up and decided to ask here. Any ideas? Edit: Here's some code... <%: Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.NumberOfChildren, new SelectList(Model.NumberOfChildrenListValues))%> and in the model [Required] [DisplayName("How many children do you have?")] public string NumberOfChildren { get; set; } public IEnumerable<string> NumberOfChildrenListValues { get { List<string> list = new List<string>() { "None", "1", "2" }; return list; } set { } } I get an object not set to instance of object error though. Ideas?

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Testing for interface implementation in WCF/SOA

- by rabidpebble

I have a reporting service that implements a number of reports. Each report requires certain parameters. Groups of logically related parameters are placed in an interface, which the report then implements: [ServiceContract] [ServiceKnownType(typeof(ExampleReport))] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] void Process(IReport report); } public interface IReport { string PrintedBy { get; set; } } public interface IApplicableDateRangeParameter { DateTime StartDate { get; set; } DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } [DataContract] public abstract class Report : IReport { [DataMember] public string PrintedBy { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class ExampleReport : Report, IApplicableDateRangeParameter { [DataMember] public DateTime StartDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } The problem is that the WCF DataContractSerializer does not expose these interfaces in my client library, thus I can't write the generic report generating front-end that I plan to. Can WCF expose these interfaces, or is this a limitation of the serializer? If the latter case, then what is the canonical approach to this OO pattern? I've looked into NetDataContractSerializer but it doesn't seem to be an officially supported implementation (which means it's not an option in my project). Currently I've resigned myself to including the interfaces in a library that is common between the service and the client application, but this seems like an unnecessary extra dependency to me. Surely there is a more straightforward way to do this? I was under the impression that WCF was supposed to replace .NET remoting; checking if an object implements an interface seems to be one of the most basic features required of a remoting interface?

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Alloy MVC Framework Titanium Network (Model)

- by flyingDuck

I'm trying to authenticate using the Model in Alloy. I have been trying to figure this problem out since yesterday. If anybody could help me, I'd really appreciate it. So, I have a view login.xml, then a controller login.js. The login.js contains the following function: var user = Alloy.Models.user; //my user.js model function login(e) { if($.username.value !== '' && $.password.value !== ''){ if(user.login($.username.value, $.password.value)){ Alloy.createController('home').getView().open(); $.login.close(); } }else{ alert('Username and/or Password required!'); } } Then in my user.js model, it's like this: extendModel : function(Model) { _.extend(Model.prototype, { login: function(username, password) { var first_name, last_name, email; var _this = this; var url = 'http://myurl.com/test.php'; var auth = Ti.Network.createHTTPClient({ onerror: function(e){ alert(e.error); }, onload: function(){ var json = this.responseText; var response = JSON.parse(json); if(response.logged == true){ first_name = response.f_name; last_name = response.l_name; email = response.email; _this.set({ loggedIn: 1, username: email, realname: first_name + ' ' + last_name, email: email, }); _this.save(); }else{ alert(response.message); } }, }); auth.open('POST', url); var params = { usernames: username, passwords: password, }; auth.send(params); alert(_this.get('email')); //alert email }, }); When I click on login in login.xml it calls the function login in index.js. So, now my problem is that, when I click the button for the first time, I get an empty alert from alert(_this.get('email')), but then when I click the button the second time, everything works fine, it alerts the email. I have no idea what's going on. Thank you for the help.

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Data Annotations on ViewModels or Domain Objects

- by Ahmad

Where would data annotations be more suitable: ViewModels or Domain Objects or Both I am struggling to decide where these will be more suited. I have not as yet fully utilized them but this question came to mind. From most of the examples I have seen, they are generally placed on Models and simply use the required attributes for validation using ModelState.IsValid. I have also seen another question on SO where the use of data annotations alone is not sufficient and advocate. Option 1 - I will still need to validate again in my service layer. ( I think that my service layer should be complete and this include validation, since its planned to be used elsewhere) Option 2 - How will I then get the benefits of the built in validation both client and server side. Option 3 - there will be a repetition of validation logic, however I was wondering if one could use a MetaData class approach that can be used for both ViewModels and Domain Objects. ( This is completely of the top of my head, so it may be nonsensical) I wonder if this question even makes sense. If not, can someone please help in understanding this better. Have I completely misunderstood the use of data annotations?

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jQuery crashing Internet Explorer

- by Bradley Bell

Hello. Okay basically, I'm designing and developing a fairly complicated website which revolves around the use of jQuery.. My knowlege of jQuery is really poor and this is the first time I've properly used it. I posted a question here before about the script and apparently its awful, but I didn't show you exactly what I was actually writing it for, which I can now.. Because I've uploaded it onto a test directory. It now works fine in every browser other than IE. The CSS styling is getting there and it should be close to finish soon! However, Internet Explorer is showing bad problems.. In IE 7,8 it looks fine but when you go to hover over a link, it immediately crashes. IE 6, the display doesn't seem to be working properly at all. But IE 6 is a lesser problem. If you could take just 5 or 10 minutes to potentially rewrite a simple script which would potentially take me 10 hours, I would be so so grateful! Heres the site - http://openyourheart.org.uk/test/index.html I can send all the files zipped if required. Thankyou in advance. Bradley

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Loading Jscript files into Firefox extension

- by colon3l

Hi ! Let's get directly to the problem : I'm actually doing a firefox extension in which i would like to implement the jWebsocket API in order to build a small chat. I got my main script file, named test.js, and the jWebsocket lib into a js folder. Just for you to know, this is my first firefox extension ever. So in my XUL file I got this (for the script part only of course, the interface code is not shown) : <overlay id="test-overlay" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/test.js" /> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/js/jwebsocket.js" /> jwebsocket.js being the file I need to call according to jWebsocket website. In my main script file test.js I start with : if (jws.browserSupportsWebSockets()) { jWebSocketClient = new jws.jWebSocketJSONClient(); } else { var lMsg = jws.MSG_WS_NOT_SUPPORTED; alert(lMsg); } jws being the namespace created into the jwebsocket.js file. Of course I've got the required stand-alone server running in background, and working. So from what I understood looking on various websites, is that if a js file is loaded into the javascript allocated memory space (with the tag), all namespace/function should be available between each file. But this was mostly for HTML-oriented issues, so I'm not sure if it applies to XUL/Firefox environment. But the script keep failing at the first jws call. Any ideas on what goes wrong here ? I'm stuck for 2 days now :/

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SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

- by kOhm

I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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How to change size of Android ScrollView

- by user611923

I have a layout like this (abstracted): Scrollview - fill_parent LinearLayout - wrap_content ImageView 1 - wrap_content ImageView 2 - ... ImageView 3 ... In the course of user interaction some images are replaced by larger or smaller ones, shortening or lenghtening the area to be scrolled. And that is the problem. The Scrollview (SV) does not know about the change, so either it scrolls over a lot of empty space at the bottom, or cuts off a picture or two at the bottom. Question 1: Can I somehow make the SV readapt to the changed hight of the LiearLayout (LL)? Question 2: I can obtain the current size through getHight on the LL. But supplyong it to the SV via changed LayoutParams does not work - of course, that would only change the height of the SV on the screen. Is there a way to put the changed height of the LL into the SV in the code, somehow? Question 3: I havn't tried it yet. Would creating the SV, LL and its children in code and then adding/removing children of changed size as required, make the SV adapt to the changes? And last question: Is there a better aüpproach, except using ListViews?

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Is it possible that we override global variables?

- by Ram Moj

I have this function: function example(y) global TICTOC; tic TICTOC=5; toc end and I expect TICTOC=5 change the result of toc, since TICTOC is a global variable in tic and toc functions; but this is not the case; Does anyone know the reason? I like to know the answer, because I 'm worried to declare a global variable, which it's name has been declared global in some other functions, I'm not aware of. I saw this function in matlab 2008b help function tic % TIC Start a stopwatch timer. % TIC; any stuff; TOC % prints the time required. % See also: TOC, CLOCK. global TICTOC TICTOC = clock; function t = toc % TOC Read the stopwatch timer. % TOC prints the elapsed time since TIC was used. % t = TOC; saves elapsed time in t, does not print. % See also: TIC, ETIME. global TICTOC if nargout < 1 elapsed_time = etime(clock, TICTOC) else t = etime(clock, TICTOC); end thanks.

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How to get bit rotation function to accept any bit size?

- by calccrypto

i have these 2 functions i got from some other code def ROR(x, n): mask = (2L**n) - 1 mask_bits = x & mask return (x >> n) | (mask_bits << (32 - n)) def ROL(x, n): return ROR(x, 32 - n) and i wanted to use them in a program, where 16 bit rotations are required. however, there are also other functions that require 32 bit rotations, so i wanted to leave the 32 in the equation, so i got: def ROR(x, n, bits = 32): mask = (2L**n) - 1 mask_bits = x & mask return (x >> n) | (mask_bits << (bits - n)) def ROL(x, n, bits = 32): return ROR(x, bits - n) however, the answers came out wrong when i tested this set out. yet, the values came out correctly when the code is def ROR(x, n): mask = (2L**n) - 1 mask_bits = x & mask return (x >> n) | (mask_bits << (16 - n)) def ROL(x, n,bits): return ROR(x, 16 - n) what is going on and how do i fix this?

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jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

- by vr3690

Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

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Django: Applying Calculations To A Query Set

- by TheLizardKing

I have a QuerySet that I wish to pass to a generic view for pagination: links = Link.objects.annotate(votes=Count('vote')).order_by('-created')[:300] This is my "hot" page which lists my 300 latest submissions (10 pages of 30 links each). I want to now sort this QuerySet by an algorithm that HackerNews uses: (p - 1) / (t + 2)^1.5 p = votes minus submitter's initial vote t = age of submission in hours Now because applying this algorithm over the entire database would be pretty costly I am content with just the last 300 submissions. My site is unlikely to be the next digg/reddit so while scalability is a plus it is required. My question is now how do I iterate over my QuerySet and sort it by the above algorithm? For more information, here are my applicable models: class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category, blank=False, default=1) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) url = models.URLField(max_length=1024, unique=True, verify_exists=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=512) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s (%s)' % (self.name, self.url) class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s vote for %s' % (self.user, self.link) Notes: I don't have "downvotes" so just the presence of a Vote row is an indicator of a vote or a particular link by a particular user.

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Java Concurrency : Volatile vs final in "cascaded" variables?

- by Tom

Hello Experts, is final Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> status = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> statusInner = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); status.put(key,statusInner); the same as volatile Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> status = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> statusInner = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); status.put(key,statusInner); in case the inner Map is accessed by different Threads? or is even something like this required: volatile Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> status = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); volatile Map<Integer,Map<String,Integer>> statusInner = new ConcurrentHashMap<Integer, Map<String,Integer>>(); status.put(key,statusInner); In case the it is NOT a "cascaded" map, final and volatile have in the end the same effect of making shure that all threads see always the correct contents of the Map... But what happens if the Map iteself contains a map, as in the example... How do I make shure that the inner Map is correctly "Memory barriered"? Tanks! Tom

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How to access a TextView element in a BroadcastReceiver

- by ric03uec

Hello, I am testing a simple widget in android and using Alarms to update a TextView at regular intervals. The problem is that in the BroadcastReceiver class I cannot access the TextView element, which I want to get updated when the alarm expires. The class is being called properly because the Toast i have put there is giving the appropriate message. The following code is from the class where I configure the widget and set the timers. public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if(extras != null){ mWidgetId = extras.getInt(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(WidgetConfigure.this); RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(WidgetConfigure.this.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); views.setTextViewText(R.id.quote, "Widget Loaded From Activity"); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(mWidgetId, views); setTimer(); //set the timers... setResult();// set the result... } } Now i want to update the same TextView when the BroadCastReceiver is called after the timer expires. I have tried the code provided in the ExampleAppWidget example provided in android api demos and that isnt working out. How can i set the required text? Thankx in advance

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C standard addressing simplification inconsistency

- by Chris Lutz

Section §6.5.3.2 "Address and indirection operators" ¶3 says (relevant section only): The unary & operator returns the address of its operand. ... If the operand is the result of a unary * operator, neither that operator nor the & operator is evaluated and the result is as if both were omitted, except that the constraints on the operators still apply and the result is not an lvalue. Similarly, if the operand is the result of a [] operator, neither the & operator nor the unary * that is implied by the [] is evaluated and the result is as if the & operator were removed and the [] operator were changed to a + operator. ... This means that this: int *i = NULL; printf("%p", (void *) (&*i) ); printf("%p", (void *) (&i[10]) ); Should be perfectly legal, printing the null pointer (probably 0) and the null pointer plus 10 (probably 10). The standard seems very clear that both of those cases are required to be optimized. However, it doesn't seem to require the following to be optimized: struct { int a; short b; } *s = 0; printf("%p", (void *) (&s->b) ); This seems awfully inconsistent. I can see no reason that the above code shouldn't print the null pointer plus sizeof(int) (possibly 4). Simplifying a &-> expression is going to be the same conceptually (IMHO) as &[], a simple address-plus-offset. It's even an offset that's going to be determinable at compile time, rather than potentially runtime with the [] operator. Is there anything in the rationale about why this is so seemingly inconsistent?

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Custom control doesn't fire validation

- by Ed Woodcock

I've written a custom ASP.net control that descends from LinkButton and overrides the Render() method. I'm using it to replace ImageButtons in the site I'm working on so we don't have to have an image for each button. This control works fine, does the required post-backs etc., however it doesn't fire the validators in its validation group. This is obviously an issue. The code for the control is (condensed) as follows: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public class CustomButton : LinkButton { public string SpanCssClass { get; set; } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { if (!Visible) { return; } writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Name, UniqueID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Id, ClientID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, CssClass); string postback = string.IsNullOrEmpty(OnClientClick) ? "javascript:__doPostBack('" + UniqueID + "','');" : OnClientClick; writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Href, postback); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.A); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, SpanCssClass); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.Span); writer.Write(Text); writer.RenderEndTag(); writer.RenderEndTag(); } } Does anyone know why this would not be causing the validators to fire? I was under the impression that leaving all the other methods in LinkButton un-overridden would leave all the other functionality the same!

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Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

- by Magnus Smith

I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

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Java inheritance and super() isn't working as expected

- by dwwilson66

For a homework assignment, I'm working with the following. It's an assigned class structure, I know it's not the best design by a long shot. Class | Extends | Variables -------------------------------------------------------- Person | None | firstName, lastName, streetAddress, zipCode, phone CollegeEmployee | Person | ssn, salary,deptName Faculty | CollegeEmployee | tenure(boolean) Student | person | GPA,major So in the Faculty class... public class Faculty extends CollegeEmployee { protected String booleanFlag; protected boolean tenured; public Faculty(String firstName, String lastName, String streetAddress, String zipCode, String phoneNumber,String ssn, String department,double salary) { super(firstName,lastName,streetAddress,zipCode,phoneNumber, ssn,department,salary); String booleanFlag = JOptionPane.showInputDialog (null, "Tenured (Y/N)?"); if(booleanFlag.equals("Y")) tenured = true; else tenured = false; } } It was my understanding that super() in Faculty would allow access to the variables in CollegeEmployee as well as Person. With the code above, it compiles fine when I ONLY include the Person variables. As soon as I try to use ssn, department, or salary I get the following compile errors. Faculty.java:15: error: constructor CollegeEmployee in class CollegeEmployee can not be applied to the given types: super(firstName,lastName,streetAddress,zipCode,phoneNumber,ssn,department,salary); ^ Required: String,String,String,String,String Found: String,String,String,String,String,String,String,String reason: actual and formal argument lists differ in length I'm completely confused by this error...which is the actual and formal? Person has five arguments, CollegeEmployee has 3, so my guess is that something's funky with how the parameters are being passed...but I'm not quite sure where to begin fixing it. What am I missing?

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Database doesn't update using TransactionScope

- by Dissonant

I have a client trying to communicate with a WCF service in a transactional manner. The client passes some data to the service and the service adds the data to its database accordingly. For some reason, the new data the service submits to its database isn't being persisted. When I have a look at the table data in the Server Explorer no new rows are added... Relevant code snippets are below: Client static void Main() { MyServiceClient client = new MyServiceClient(); Console.WriteLine("Please enter your name:"); string name = Console.ReadLine(); Console.WriteLine("Please enter the amount:"); int amount = int.Parse(Console.ReadLine()); using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required)) { client.SubmitData(amount, name); transaction.Complete(); } client.Close(); } Service Note: I'm using Entity Framework to persist objects to the database. [OperationBehavior(TransactionScopeRequired = true, TransactionAutoComplete = true)] public void SubmitData(int amount, string name) { DatabaseEntities db = new DatabaseEntities(); Payment payment = new Payment(); payment.Amount = amount; payment.Name = name; db.AddToPayment(payment); //add to Payment table db.SaveChanges(); db.Dispose(); } I'm guessing it has something to do with the TransactionScope being used in the client. I've tried all combinations of db.SaveChanges() and db.AcceptAllChanges() as well, but the new payment data just doesn't get added to the database!

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How to query AD to get name email from lan id

- by Kumar

I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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