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  • How would you implement API key in WCF Data Service?

    - by rushonerok
    Is there a way to require an API key in the URL / or some other way of passing the service a private key in order to grant access to the data? I have this right now... using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Data.Services.Common; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; using Numina.Framework; using System.Web; using System.Configuration; [System.ServiceModel.ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] public class odata : DataService { public static void InitializeService(DataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); //config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); config.DataServiceBehavior.MaxProtocolVersion = DataServiceProtocolVersion.V2; } protected override void OnStartProcessingRequest(ProcessRequestArgs args) { HttpRequest Request = HttpContext.Current.Request; if(Request["apikey"] != ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ApiKey"]) throw new DataServiceException("ApiKey needed"); base.OnStartProcessingRequest(args); } } ...This works but it's not perfect because you cannot get at the metadata and discover the service through the Add Service Reference explorer. I could check if $metadata is in the url but it seems like a hack. Is there a better way?

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  • datagridview apply cellstyle to cells

    - by SchlaWiener
    I used this example to create a DateTime column for a DataGridView in my winforms app. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/7tas5c80.aspx I can see the new column in the Windows Forms Designer and add it to an existing DataGridView. However, I want to be able to change the display format when I change the "DefaultCellStyle" within the designer. The designer generated code looks like this: DataGridViewCellStyle1.Format = "t" DataGridViewCellStyle1.NullValue = Nothing Me.colDate.DefaultCellStyle = DataGridViewCellStyle1 Me.colDatum.Name = "colDate" Me.colDatum.Resizable = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewTriState.[False] Which is fine. But since the code of the DataGridViewCalendarCell does this in the constructor: Public Sub New() Me.Style.Format = "d" End Sub The format never changes to "t" (time format). I didn't find out how to apply the format from the owning column to I use this woraround atm: Public Overrides Function GetInheritedStyle _ (ByVal inheritedCellStyle As _ System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellStyle, _ ByVal rowIndex As Integer, ByVal includeColors As Boolean) _ As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellStyle If Me.OwningColumn IsNot Nothing Then Me.Style.Format = Me.OwningColumn.DefaultCellStyle.Format End If Return MyBase.GetInheritedStyle(_ inheritedCellStyle, rowIndex, includeColors) End Function However, since this is just an hack I want to know which is the "how it should" be done way to apply the default cellstyle from a DataGridViewColumn to its cells. Any suggestions?

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  • Wpf Mvvm ComboBox

    - by 2Fast4YouBR
    Hi All, I am new in the Wpf world, so I created a couple of views and all of them have at least one ComboBox, as I am using the MvvM pattern, I get my self re-typing all the time the same line of codes to fill the Combo and to get the SelectedItem (creating properties, privates for fill and other to get). Is there some kind of framework that can improve this part ? or hack/trick ??? as I see too much repetitive code... maybe I am doing something wrong, take a look: XAML: <ComboBox name= "cbDepartments" DisplayMemberPath="DepartmentName" SelectedValuePath ="PrimaryKey" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Departments}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=DefaultBranch,Mode=TwoWay}" > ViewModel: private Department defaultBranch; public Department DefaultBranch { get { return this.defaultBranch; } set { if (this.defaultBranch != value) { this.defaultBranch = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("DefaultBranch"); this.saveChangeCommand.RaiseCanExecuteChanged(); this.UserMessage = string.Empty; } } } private ObservableCollection<Department> departments; public ObservableCollection<Department> Departments { get { return this.departments; } set { if (this. departments!= value) { this. departments = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("Departments"); } } }

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  • ASP.Net RadioButton loses ViewState

    - by Carl
    I'm having trouble with a simple radio set of two radio buttons (I don't want to use a RadioButtonList [RBL] because RBL doesn't allow child controls, and in my case, if you select one option, I want to enable a textbox next to the button; yes you could hack this with jQuery to move the textbox, but that's dirty!). I would check one, submit the form (either explicitly or through AutoPostBack), and the CheckedChanged event would never fire. When the page was reloaded, both buttons would be unchecked, regardless of their initial state on non-postback load or the state before form submission. I took out the checkbox and stripped this down to the simplest example I could come up with. I tossed EnableViewState=true all over the place just in case it was being disabled somewhere I couldn't find. <form id="form1" runat="server" enableviewstate="true"> <div> <asp:RadioButton ID="foo" Text="foo" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="true" GroupName="foobar" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:RadioButton ID="bar" Text="bar" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" GroupName="foobar" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="false" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="resultLbl" /> </div> </form> protected void rbChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (foo.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "foo is checked"; else if (bar.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "bar is checked"; else resultLbl.Text = "neither is checked"; }

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  • spring security login pages?

    - by es11
    I have some confusion with how spring security works: In my application, I need to have a login page for users after which they are redirected back the page from where they came. I went through a few spring security tutorials and read some articles, and the examples work by securing a certain page on a site (managed by the <intercept url ..> tag). Then Spring security will generate a login page (or you can specify your own) in order to access the secured page. I am confused because I don't want to necessary secure a given page on my site: I want a login page for users to log into after which they have access to elevated features of the site (through spring security's authorization features). My question is: given what I described, what would be the strategy to create this login page which, after login, would grant the logged in user the appropriate authorities? The hack I thought of would be to create a simple JSP page who's only function is to redirect back to the previous page. Then I would use Spring Security to secure that JSP page. But it seems like there should be a better way of doing this... Thanks

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  • Capture keystrokes (e.g., function keys) while a messagebox is up

    - by FastAl
    We have a large WinForms app, and there is a built-in bug reporting system that can be activated during testing via the F5 Key. I am capturing the F5 key with .Net's PreFilterMessage system. This works fine on the main forms, modal dialog boxes, etc. Unfortunately, the program also displays windows messageboxes when it needs to. When there is a bug with that, e.g., wrong text in the messagebox or it shouldn't be there, the messagefilter isn't executed at all when the messagebox is up! I realize I could fix it by either rewriting my own messagebox routine, or kicking off a separate thread that polls GetAsyncKeyState and calls the error reporter from there. However I was hoping for a method that was less of a hack. Here's code that manifests the problem: Public Class Form1 Implements IMessageFilter Private Sub Form1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Click MsgBox("now, a messagebox is up!") End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load Application.AddMessageFilter(Me) End Sub Public Function PreFilterMessage(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) _ As Boolean Implements IMessageFilter.PreFilterMessage Const VK_F5 As Int32 = &H74 Const WM_KEYDOWN As Integer = &H100 If m.Msg = WM_KEYDOWN And m.WParam.ToInt32 = VK_F5 Then ' In reality code here takes a screenshot, saves the program state, and shows a bug report interface ' IO.File.AppendAllText("c:\bugs.txt", InputBox("Describe the bug:")) End If End Function End Class Many thanks.

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  • Using NSNumberFormatter to get a decimal value from an international currency string

    - by Duncan A
    It seems that the NSNumberFormatter can't parse Euro (and probably other) currency strings into a numerical type. Can someone please prove me wrong. I'm attempting to use the following to get a numeric amount from a currency string: NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSNumber *currencyNumber = [currencyFormatter numberFromString:currencyString]; This works fine for UK and US currency amounts. It even deals with $ and £ and thousands separators with no problems. However, when I use it with euro currency amounts (with the Region Format set to France or Germany in the settings app) it returns an empty string. All of the following strings fail: 12,34 € 12,34 12.345,67 € 12.345,67 It's worth noting that these strings match exactly what comes out of the NSNumberFormatter's stringFromNumber method when using the corresponding locale. Setting the Region Format to France in the settings app, then setting currencyNumber to 12.34 in the following code, results in currencyString being set to '12,34 €' : NSNumberFormatter *currencyFormatter = [[[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [currencyFormatter setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterCurrencyStyle]; NSString *currencyString = [currencyFormatter stringFromNumber:currencyNumber]; It would obviously be fairly easy to hack around this problem specifically for the Euro but I'm hoping to sell this app in as many countries as possible and I'm thinking that a similar situation is bound to occur with other locales. Does anyone have an answer? TIA, Duncan

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  • Porting a select loop application to Android with NDK. Design question.

    - by plaisthos
    Hi, I have an network application which uses a select loop like this: bool shutdown=false; while (!shutdown) { [do something] select(...,timeout); } THe main loop cannot work like this in an Android application anymore since the application needs to receive Intents, need to handle GUI, etc. I think I have basically three possibilities: Move the main loop to the java part of the application. Let the loop run in its own thread and somehow communicate from/to java. Screw Android <= 2.3 and use a native activity and use AInputQueue/ALooper instead of select. The first possibility is not easy since java has no select which works on fds. Simply using the select and return after each loop to java is not an elegant possibility either since that requires setting the timeout to something like 20ms to have a good response time in the java part of the program. The second probability sound nicer but I have do some communication between java and the c++/c part of the program. Things that cold work: Using a socket, kind of ugly. using native calls in the "java gui thread" and callback from native in the "c thread". Both threads need to have thread safe implementations but this is managable. I have not explored the third possibility but I think that it is not the way to go. I think I can hack something together which will work but I asking what is the best path to chose.

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  • Django custom managers - how do I return only objects created by the logged-in user?

    - by Tom Tom
    I want to overwrite the custom objects model manager to only return objects a specific user created. Admin users should still return all objects using the objects model manager. Now I have found an approach that could work. They propose to create your own middleware looking like this: #### myproject/middleware/threadlocals.py try: from threading import local except ImportError: # Python 2.3 compatibility from django.utils._threading_local import local _thread_locals = local() def get_current_user(): return getattr(_thread_locals, 'user', None) class ThreadLocals(object): """Middleware that gets various objects from the request object and saves them in thread local storage.""" def process_request(self, request): _thread_locals.user = getattr(request, 'user', None) #### end And in the Custom manager you could call the get_current_user() method to return only objects a specific user created. class UserContactManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): return super(UserContactManager, self).get_query_set().filter(creator=get_current_user()) Is this a good approach to this use-case? Will this work? Or is this like "using a sledgehammer to crack a nut" ? ;-) Just using: Contact.objects.filter(created_by= user) in each view doesn`t look very neat to me. EDIT Do not use this middleware approach !!! use the approach stated by Jack M. below After a while of testing this approach behaved pretty strange and with this approach you mix up a global-state with a current request. Use the approach presented below. It is really easy and no need to hack around with the middleware. create a custom manager in your model with a function that expects the current user or any other user as an input. #in your models.py class HourRecordManager(models.Manager): def for_user(self, user): return self.get_query_set().filter(created_by=user) class HourRecord(models.Model): #Managers objects = HourRecordManager() #in vour view you can call the manager like this and get returned only the objects from the currently logged-in user. hr_set = HourRecord.objects.for_user(request.user)

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  • KeepAlive packets over a Soap request

    - by Nycto
    I've been debugging some Soap requests we are making between two servers on the same VLAN. The app on one server is written in PHP, the app on the other is written in Java. I can control and make changes to the PHP code, but I can't affect the Java server. The PHP app forms the XML using the DOMDocument objects, then sends the request using the cURL extension. When the soap request took longer than 5 minutes to complete, it would always wait until the max timeout limit and exit with a message like this: Operation timed out after 900000 milliseconds with 0 bytes received After sniffing the packets that were being sent, it turns out that the problem was caused by a 5 minute timeout in the network that was closing what it thought was a stale connection. There were two ways to fix it: bump up the timeout in iptables, or start sending KeepAlive packets over the request. To be thorough, I would like to implement both solutions. Bumping up the timeout was easy for ops to do, but sending KeepAlive packets is turning out to be difficult. The cURL library itself supports this (see the --keepalive-time flag for the CLI app), but it doesn't appear that this has been implemented in the PHP cURL library. I even checked the source to make sure it wasn't an undocumented feature. So my question is this: How the heck can I get these packets sent? I see a few clear options, but I don't like any of them: Write a wrapper that will kick off the request by shell_execing the CLI app. This is a hack that I just don't like Update the cURL extension to support this. This is a non-option according to Ops. Open the socket myself. I know just enough to be dangerous. I also haven't seen a way to do this with fsockopen, but I could be missing something. Switch to another library. What exists that supports this? Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • Make Python Socket Server More Efficient

    - by BenMills
    I have very little experience working with sockets and multithreaded programming so to learn more I decided to see if I could hack together a little python socket server to power a chat room. I ended up getting it working pretty well but then I noticed my server's CPU usage spiked up over 100% when I had it running in the background. Here is my code in full: http://gist.github.com/332132 I know this is a pretty open ended question so besides just helping with my code are there any good articles I could read that could help me learn more about this? My full code: import select import socket import sys import threading from daemon import Daemon class Server: def __init__(self): self.host = '' self.port = 9998 self.backlog = 5 self.size = 1024 self.server = None self.threads = [] self.send_count = 0 def open_socket(self): try: self.server = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET6, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.server.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEADDR, 1) self.server.bind((self.host,self.port)) self.server.listen(5) print "Server Started..." except socket.error, (value,message): if self.server: self.server.close() print "Could not open socket: " + message sys.exit(1) def remove_thread(self, t): t.join() def send_to_children(self, msg): self.send_count = 0 for t in self.threads: t.send_msg(msg) print 'Sent to '+str(self.send_count)+" of "+str(len(self.threads)) def run(self): self.open_socket() input = [self.server,sys.stdin] running = 1 while running: inputready,outputready,exceptready = select.select(input,[],[]) for s in inputready: if s == self.server: # handle the server socket c = Client(self.server.accept(), self) c.start() self.threads.append(c) print "Num of clients: "+str(len(self.threads)) self.server.close() for c in self.threads: c.join() class Client(threading.Thread): def __init__(self,(client,address), server): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.client = client self.address = address self.size = 1024 self.server = server self.running = True def send_msg(self, msg): if self.running: self.client.send(msg) self.server.send_count += 1 def run(self): while self.running: data = self.client.recv(self.size) if data: print data self.server.send_to_children(data) else: self.running = False self.server.threads.remove(self) self.client.close() """ Run Server """ class DaemonServer(Daemon): def run(self): s = Server() s.run() if __name__ == "__main__": d = DaemonServer('/var/servers/fserver.pid') if len(sys.argv) == 2: if 'start' == sys.argv[1]: d.start() elif 'stop' == sys.argv[1]: d.stop() elif 'restart' == sys.argv[1]: d.restart() else: print "Unknown command" sys.exit(2) sys.exit(0) else: print "usage: %s start|stop|restart" % sys.argv[0] sys.exit(2)

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  • IE and absolute positioning divs

    - by kainaw
    This problem is only in IE. Consider the following HTML: <html> <body> <div style='position:absolute;left:1em;right:1em;top:1em;bottom:1em;overflow:auto;'> Put more than a full screen of text in here. It should create a scroll inside the div. In IE, it stretches the div out vertically. </div> </body> </html> If you put a ton of text in the div, IE will stretch the div out beyond the declared "bottom". I know what it is doing. It considers the bottom of the page to be the bottom of the page after all of the text has been rendered. I want bottom to be the bottom of the visible window. So, I want to have a div that is centered inside the window. Is there some retarded hack to make IE comprehend the basic concept of CSS?

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  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending on if test is run in isola

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

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  • Use the Django ORM in a standalone script (again)

    - by Rishabh Manocha
    I'm trying to use the Django ORM in some standalone screen scraping scripts. I know this question has been asked before, but I'm unable to figure out a good solution for my particular problem. I have a Django project with defined models. What I would like to do is use these models and the ORM in my scraping script. My directory structure is something like this: project scrape #scraping scripts ... test.py web django_project settings.py ... #Django files I tried doing the following in project/scrape/test.py: print os.path.join(os.path.abspath('..'), 'web', 'django_project') sys.path.append(os.path.join(os.path.abspath('..'), 'web', 'django_project')) print sys.path print "-------" os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'django_project.settings' #print os.environ from django_project.myapp.models import MyModel print MyModel.objects.count() However, I get an ImportError when I try to run test.py: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 12, in <module> from django_project.myapp.models import MyModel ImportError: No module named django_project.myapp.models One solution I found around this problem is to create a symbolic link to ../web/govcheck in the scrape folder: :scrape rmanocha$ ln -s ../web/govcheck ./govcheck With this, I can then run test.py just fine. However, this seems like a hack, and more importantly, is not very portable (I will have to create this symbolic link everywhere I run this code). So, I was wondering if anyone has any better solutions for my problem?

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  • Extending Python and Objective-C

    - by chpwn
    I'm a fan of clean code. I like my languages to be able to express what I'm trying to do, but I like the syntax to mirror that too. For example, I work on a lot of programs in Objective-C for jailbroken iPhones, which patch other code using the method_setImplementation() function of the runtime. Or, in PyObjC, I have to use the syntax UIView.initWithFrame_(), which is also pretty awful and unreadable with the way the method names are structured. In both cases, the language does not support this in syntax. I've found three basic ways that this is done: Insane macros. Take a look at this "CaptainHook", it does what I'm looking for in a usable way, but it isn't quite clean and is a major hack. There's also "Logos", which implements a very nice syntax, but is written in Perl parsing my code with a ton of regular expressions. This scares me. I like the idea of adding a %hook ClassName, but not by using regular expressions to parse C or Objective-C. Finally, there is Cycript. This is an extension to JavaScript which interfaces with the Objective-C runtime and allows you to use Objective-C style code in your JavaScript, and inject that into other processes. This is likely the cleanest as it actually uses a parser for the JavaScript, but I'm not a huge fan of that language in general. Should, and how should, I create an extension to Python and Objective-C to allow me to do this? Is it worth writing a parser for my language to transform the syntax into something nicer, if it is only in a very specialized niche like this? Should I just live with the horrible syntax of the default Objective-C hooking or PyObjC?

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  • sproutcore vs javascriptMVC for web app development

    - by swami
    Hi, I want to use a javascript framework with MVC for a complex web application (which will be one of a set of related apps and pages) for an intranet in a digital archives. I have been looking at SproutCore and JavascriptMVC. I want to choose one framework and stick with it. Does anybody know what the distinguishing features are when comparing these two? I want something that is simple, straightforward that I can customize/hack easily, and that doesn't get in my way too much, but that at the same time gives me a basis for keeping my code nicely organized, and event-driven. I also plan on using jquery substantially. I know sproutcore is backed by Apple, and looks like it is getting more popular by the day, and it has a nice green website :), whereas JavascriptMVC looks less professional, with less of a following and less momentum behind it. I've done the tutorials for both and I was impressed by SproutCore more (in the JMVC tutorial you don't really do anything substantial) - but somewhere in the back of my mind I feel that JMVC might just be better because it doesn't try and do too much - it just gives you MVC functionality based on a couple of jquery plugins, and you can use jquery for everything else, so its flexible. Whereas SproutCore seems to have more of its own API etc... which is also nice in a way... but then you're kind of stuck within that.... hmmm I'm confused :). Any thoughts would be much appreciated.

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  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

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  • Password Cracking Windows Accounts

    - by Kevin
    At work we have laptops with encrypted harddrives. Most developers here (on occasion I have been guilty of it too) leave their laptops in hibernate mode when they take them home at night. Obviously, Windows (i.e. there is a program running in the background which does it for windows) must have a method to unencrypt the data on the drive, or it wouldn't be able to access it. That being said, I always thought that leaving a windows machine on in hibernate mode in a non-secure place (not at work on a lock) is a security threat, because someone could take the machine, leave it running, hack the windows accounts and use it to encrypt the data and steal the information. When I got to thinking about how I would go about breaking into the windows system without restarting it, I couldn't figure out if it was possible. I know it is possible to write a program to crack windows passwords once you have access to the appropriate file(s). But is it possible to execute a program from a locked Windows system that would do this? I don't know of a way to do it, but I am not a Windows expert. If so, is there a way to prevent it? I don't want to expose security vulnerabilities about how to do it, so I would ask that someone wouldn't post the necessary steps in details, but if someone could say something like "Yes, it's possible the USB drive allows arbitrary execution," that would be great! EDIT: The idea being with the encryption is that you can't reboot the system, because once you do, the disk encryption on the system requires a login before being able to start windows. With the machine being in hibernate, the system owner has already bypassed the encryption for the attacker, leaving windows as the only line of defense to protect the data.

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  • Malloc corrupting already malloc'd memory in C

    - by Kyte
    I'm currently helping a friend debug a program of his, which includes linked lists. His list structure is pretty simple: typedef struct nodo{ int cantUnos; char* numBin; struct nodo* sig; }Nodo; We've got the following code snippet: void insNodo(Nodo** lista, char* auxBin, int auxCantUnos){ printf("*******Insertando\n"); int i; if (*lista) printf("DecInt*%p->%p\n", *lista, (*lista)->sig); Nodo* insert = (Nodo*)malloc(sizeof(Nodo*)); if (*lista) printf("Malloc*%p->%p\n", *lista, (*lista)->sig); insert->cantUnos = auxCantUnos; insert->numBin = (char*)malloc(strlen(auxBin)*sizeof(char)); for(i=0 ; i<strlen(auxBin) ; i++) insert->numBin[i] = auxBin[i]; insert-numBin[i] = '\0'; insert-sig = NULL; Nodo* aux; [etc] (The lines with extra indentation were my addition for debug purposes) This yields me the following: *******Insertando DecInt*00341098->00000000 Malloc*00341098->2832B6EE (*lista)-sig is previously and deliberately set as NULL, which checks out until here, and fixed a potential buffer overflow (he'd forgotten to copy the NULL-terminator in insert-numBin). I can't think of a single reason why'd that happen, nor I've got any idea on what else should I provide as further info. (Compiling on latest stable MinGW under fully-patched Windows 7, friend's using MinGW under Windows XP. On my machine, at least, in only happens when GDB's not attached.) Any ideas? Suggestions? Possible exorcism techniques? (Current hack is copying the sig pointer to a temp variable and restore it after malloc. It breaks anyways. Turns out the 2nd malloc corrupts it too. Interestingly enough, it resets sig to the exact same value as the first one).

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  • UIWebView in custom UITableViewCell

    - by mlecho
    i am not sure if this is a good route to go,...i have some data i receive from the web which in turn, populates a table view. The problem is, the text is html (p tags, etc). My first thought was to create a uiwebview in the cell, and populate with loadHTMLString. Fact is , it KINDA works. But, i then the cell no longer was the recipient of touches. SO, before we get too deep in code, is there a better way to populate the cells, than using a UIWebView. It feels like a hack, and i fear even if it works, apple would turn it away. //from my custom UITableViewCell class: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { [self setFrame:frame]; webcell = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,frame.size.width-20,frame.size.height)]; [self.contentView addSubview:webcell]; //bloack the webview from touches UIView *cover = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:webcell.frame]; [self.contentView addSubview:cover]; [cover release]; } return self; } -(void)setLabelData:(FeedItem *)feedItem { link = feedItem.link; NSMutableString *htmlstring = [NSMutableString string]; [htmlstring appendString:@"<html><head><link rel='stylesheet' href='style.css'/></head><body>"]; [htmlstring appendFormat:@"<p>%@</p>",feedItem.title]; [htmlstring appendFormat:@"<p>%@</p>",feedItem.description]; [htmlstring appendString:@"</body></html>"]; [webcell loadHTMLString:htmlstring baseURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle]bundlePath]]]; } thanks

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  • GHC 6.12 and MacPorts

    - by absz
    I recently installed GHC 6.12 and the Haskell Platform 2010.1.0.1 on my Intel MacBook running OS X 10.5.8, and initially, everything worked fine. However, I discovered that if I use cabal install to install a package which depends on a MacPorts library (e.g., cabal install --extra-lib-dirs=/opt/local/lib --extra-include-dirs=/opt/local/include gd), things work fine in GHCi, but if I try to compile, I get the error Linking test ... Undefined symbols: "_iconv_close", referenced from: _hs_iconv_close in libHSbase-4.2.0.0.a(iconv.o) "_iconv", referenced from: _hs_iconv in libHSbase-4.2.0.0.a(iconv.o) "_iconv_open", referenced from: _hs_iconv_open in libHSbase-4.2.0.0.a(iconv.o) ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status After some Googling, I found a long Haskell-cafe thread discussing this problem. The upshot seems to be that MacPorts installs an updated version of libiconv, and the binary interface is slightly different from the version included with the system. Consequently, if you try to link with any MacPorts library, the MacPorts libiconv gets linked in too; and since the base library was built to link against a different version of libiconv, things break. I've tried setting LD_LIBRARY_PATH and DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH and adding more flags to try to get it to look at /usr/lib again (e.g. cabal install --extra-lib-dirs=/opt/local/lib --extra-include-dirs=/opt/local/include --extra-lib-dirs=/usr/lib --extra-include-dirs=/usr/include gd), but neither worked. Uninstalling the MacPorts libiconv isn't really an option, since I have a bunch of ports installed which depend on it---including some ports I want Haskell to link to, like gd2. From what I've seen online, the upshot really seems to be "you're boned": you cannot link against any MacPorts library while compiling with GHC, and there doesn't seem to be a solution. However, that thread was from the end of 2009, so I figure there's a chance that someone has a solution, workaround, ridiculous hack… anything, really. So: does anybody know how to get GHC 6.12 to link against the system libiconv at the same time as it links to libraries from MacPorts? Or, failing that, a way to make linking not break in some other clever way?

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • How do you pass .net objects values around in F#?

    - by Russell
    I am currently learning F# and functional programming in general (from a C# background) and I have a question about using .net CLR objects during my processing. The best way to describe my problem will be to give an example: let xml = new XmlDocument() |> fun doc -> doc.Load("report.xml"); doc let xsl = new XslCompiledTransform() |> fun doc -> doc.Load("report.xsl"); doc let transformedXml = new MemoryStream() |> fun mem -> xsl.Transform(xml.CreateNavigator(), null, mem); mem This code transforms an XML document with an XSLT document using .net objects. Note XslCompiledTransform.Load works on an object, and returns void. Also the XslCompiledTransform.Transform requires a memorystream object and returns void. The above strategy used is to add the object at the end (the ; mem) to return a value and make functional programming work. When we want to do this one after another we have a function on each line with a return value at the end: let myFunc = new XmlDocument("doc") |> fun a -> a.Load("report.xml"); a |> fun a -> a.AppendChild(new XmlElement("Happy")); a Is there a more correct way (in terms of functional programming) to handle .net objects and objects that were created in a more OO environment? The way I returned the value at the end then had inline functions everywhere feels a bit like a hack and not the correct way to do this. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • How to show errors using JSON when an update fails in Rails 2.3.5 with jQuery

    - by Fortuity
    I've got in-place editing on a page in my app (using Rails 2.3.5 and jQuery). I want to know how to display an error on the page when the update fails. I'm using ajax (an XMLHttpRequest) to save an update to a Comment object. The controller has an update method like this: def update @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| # if @comment.update_attributes!(params[:comment]) if false #deliberately forcing a fail here to see what happens format.json { render :nothing => true } else format.json { render :json => @comment.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end In Firebug, I can see the server returns a "422" (an appropriate validation error status code). But it's a response to an XMLHttpRequest so there is no redirect to an error page. I think I actually want to do this: format.json { render :json => @comment.errors} and trigger some Javascript function that iterates through (and displays) any errors. I'm using a rails plugin http://github.com/janv/rest_in_place/ to implement the in-place editing. It doesn't appear to have any callback function to handle a failure. What are my options? Can I write some Javascript to respond to a failure condition without hacking the plugin? Do I have to hack the rest_in_place plugin to handle a failure condition? Is there a better plugin (for Rails or jQuery) that handles in-place editing, including failure conditions?

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  • WPF RibbonTextBox Width problem

    - by morsanu
    Hey guys, It seems to me that the Ribbon control has a problem with textboxes. I was expecting a common TextBox control behaviour: a fixed width and a visible caret when the text exceeds the width. But the RibbonTextBox control changes its width and when the text exceeds the right limit, the overflow is not visible. I found a hack on a blog that does something like this: var img = SearchButton.Template.FindName("image", SearchButton); if (img != null && img is Image) (img as Image).Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; var lbl = FindTemplateControl<Label>(SearchText); var border = SearchText.Template.FindName("Bd", SearchText); if (border != null && border is Border && img != null && lbl != null) { (border as Border).Width = SearchText.ActualWidth - (((Image)img).ActualWidth + lbl.ActualWidth); } but I reallly don't want to do such a workaround. Is there any other simpler way to achieve simple TextBox behaviour?

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