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• What is an Automated way to Access a Virtual Machine's Webserver from its Host Machine? [closed]

  - by Jonnybojangles

  As a Web-Developer what is the most efficient (automated) way to connect to a Virtual Machine (VM) running a development webserver from it’s Host Machine (the machine running the VM) when you do not have control over the networks (home, Startbucks, work, etc) you are connected to? Currently I start my VM (a VirtualBox VM running CentOS), run ifconfig to determine the VM’s current IP. I then take that IP and map it my Host machine’s host file so that I can access the VM’s webserver from the Host. I feel that this is not an efficient way to connect to my VM’s webserver because each time I connect to a new network (a few times a day) I need to repeat the IP look up and host file update, and sometimes restart the VM's network service.

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• Get user IP via comment Form

  - by jasmine

  I have inserted a hidden input in my comment form: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; <input type="hidden" name="c-ip" value="<?php echo $ip; ?>"> With this input, ip column is empty in mysql. What is wrong in input. Thanks in advance

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• Confused about encryption with public and private keys (which to use for encryption)

  - by jax

  I am making a licensing system when clients ask my server for a license and I send them a license if they are permitted to have one. On my current system I encrypt the license using a single private key and have the public key embedded into the client application that they use to decrypt the license. It works! Others have told me that I should be encrypting with the public key on the server and distributing the private key to clients. I have searched the web and can see that sometimes they use the private key to encrypt and other times they use the public key to encrypt. In this case what am I supposed to do?

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• Is Private Bytes >> Working Set normal?

  - by Jacob

  OK, this may sound weird, but here goes. There are 2 computers, A (Pentium D) and B (Quad Core) with almost the same amount of RAM running Windows XP. If I run the same code on both computers, the allocated private bytes in A never goes down resulting in a crash later on. In B it looks like the private bytes is constantly deallocated and everything looks fine. In both computers, the working set is deallocated and allocated similarly. Could this be an issue with manifests or DLLs (system)? I'm clueless. Also, I compiled the executable on A and ran it on B and it worked. Note: I observed the utilized memory with Process Explorer. Question: During execution (where we have several allocations and deallocations) is it normal for the number of private bytes to be much bigger (1.5 GB vs 70 MB) than the working set?

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• JavaScript private methods

  - by Wayne Kao

  To make a JavaScript class with a public method I'd do something like: function Restaurant() { } Restaurant.prototype.buy_food = function() { // something here } Restaurant.prototype.use_restroom = function() { // something here } That way users of my class can: var restaurant = new Restaurant(); restaurant.buy_food(); restaurant.use_restroom(); How do I create a private method that my public buy_food and use_restroom methods can call but that users of the class can't call externally. In other words, I want my method implementation to be able to do: Restaurant.prototype.use_restroom = function() { this.private_stuff(); } But this shouldn't work: var r = new Restaurant(); r.private_stuff(); How do I define private_stuff as a private method so both of those hold true? I've read Doug Crockford's writeup a few times but it doesn't seem like "private" methods can be called by public methods and "privileged" methods can be called externally.

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• Alternative to COM blind aggregation in .NET for class with private interface

  - by Philip

  When extending a COM class in unmanaged C++ where the original class has private interfaces, one way to do this is through the concept of blind aggregation. The idea is that any interface not explicitly implemented on the outer aggregating class is 'blindly' forwarded to the inner aggregated class. Now .NET as far as I can figure out does not support COM aggregation natively. A somewhat tedious workaround is to create a .NET class where you implement all the required COM interfaces directly on the .NET class and simply forward to an instance of the actual COM class for any methods you don't want to override. The problem I have is when the original COM object has one or more private interfaces, i.e. undocumented interfaces that are nonetheless used by some consumers of the original class. Using blind aggregation in unmanaged C++ this is a non-issue as the calls to the private interfaces are automatically forwarded to the original class, however I can't find any way of doing the same thing in .NET. Are there any other ways of accomplishing this with .NET?

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• FxCop giving a warning on private constructor CA1823 and CA1053

  - by Luis Sánchez

  I have a class that looks like the following: Public Class Utilities Public Shared Function blah(userCode As String) As String 'doing some stuff End Function End Class I'm running FxCop 10 on it and it says: "Because type 'Utilities' contains only 'static' ( 'Shared' in Visual Basic) members, add a default private constructor to prevent the compiler from adding a default public constructor." Ok, you're right Mr. FxCop, I'll add a private constructor: Private Utilities() Now I'm having: "It appears that field 'Utilities.Utilities' is never used or is only ever assigned to. Use this field or remove it." Any ideas of what should I do to get rid of both warnings?

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• Cloning a private Github repo

  - by Solomon

  Hi, I have a private repository on Github for a project I'm working on. Until now I had only worked on my home desktop, but I just bought a laptop, and am trying to set it up so that I can work on the project from either computer, and push / pull changes. I added a new SSH key to my Github account for the laptop, and was successful in cloning and making changes to a public test repo that I set up. However, I couldn't clone the private repo. Is there anything special I need to do in the command line in order to clone a private repo? Do I need to set up a new GitHub account for my laptop and set myself up as a collaborator? Thanks for the help!

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• Detecting if a browser is using Private Browsing mode

  - by Steve

  I'm building an extranet for a company paranoid about security. They want to make sure that (among other things) their users are browsing the site with the Private Browsing mode switched on in their web browser so that no cookies or history is kept. I found only this http://jeremiahgrossman.blogspot.com/2009/03/detecting-private-browsing-mode.html and http://serverfault.com/questions/18966/force-safari-to-operate-in-private-mode-and-detect-that-state-from-a-webserver The ideal solution would use no or minimal javascript. Would attempting to set a unique cookie work for all browsers and platforms? Anyone done this before? thanks!

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• Make XStream ignore one specific private variable

  - by Tigraine

  Hi guys, I have a little problem with a class I am currently writing a save function for. I'm using XStream (com.thoughtworks.xstream) to serialize a class to XML using the DOMDriver. The class looks like this: public class World { private Configuration config; public World(Configuration config) { this.config = config; } } So, the issue here is that I do not want to serialize Configuration when serializing world, rather I'd like to give XStream a preconstructed Configuration instance when calling fromXml(). Problem here is mainly class design, Configuration holds a private reference to the GUI classes and therefore serializing Configuration means serializing the whole application completely with GUI etc.. And that's kind of bad. Is there a way to instruct XStream to not serialize the private field config, and upon load supply XStream with a configuration instance to use? greetings Daniel

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• Extracting public key from private key in OpenSSL

  - by ereOn

  Hello, I need to extract the RSA public key from a RSA private key using OpenSSL. I'm currently using RSAPublicKey_dup() passing the RSA* private key to get the public key. However, while the call seems to work, I cannot load (or use) this public key using the openssl command-line tool. If I generate the public key using the command-line tool ("$ openssl rsa -in private.pem -pubout > public.pem"), I can use it and it works like a charm. Do you guys know how I can get this work ? Maybe another function ? The OpenSSL documentation is quite hard to browse... Thank you.

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• Is there a free private Git repository?

  - by saturngod

  Currently I use http://www.codaset.com/ for a private repository. It's free but it can't be free forever. Codaset is nice git repo and we can write blog and wiki entries in there. I want to use a private repo for my private project. This isn't a commercial project or a big project. I also found http://www.projectlocker.com but the user interface is so poor. So, I want to use something like codaset or github repo, for free at least 1 user and 100 MB git repo.

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• Scala: Mixing traits with private fields

  - by Vilius Normantas

  It's not much of a question, it's rather my excitement that it's possible at all! I wrote this little example just to prove the opposite - I expected either a compiler error or one of the values (111 or 222, I wasn't sure). scala> trait T1 { private val v = 111; def getValueT1 = v } scala> trait T2 { private val v = 222; def getValueT2 = v } scala> class T12 extends T1 with T2 scala> val t = new T12 scala> t.getValueT1 res9: Int = 111 scala> t.getValueT2 res10: Int = 222 Why doesn't the v get overridden? Off course this works only as long as vs are private, but still.

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• Using Public/Private keys in reverse

  - by Wizzarding

  Hi, I have a situation where I need to make some data available for reading by anyone from a specific device, where the data is pre-loaded on the device, but I cannot allow anyone to create their own device and populate it with their own data in the same format. I know this sounds a little crazy, but there is a good reason! I was planning to use Public Key cryptography, encrypting the data with a public key, but then publishing the private key to anyone who wants to read the data. However, after looking at the RSACryptoServiceProvider and how it works it looks like I cannot just publish the private key as the private key can be used to create the public key. Could someone confirm that suspicion, or give me some hints on how I might be able to make this work! Many Thanks.

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• Is Private Bytes >> Working Set?

  - by Jacob

  OK, this may sound weird, but here goes. There are 2 computers, A (Pentium D) and B (Quad Core) with almost the same amount of RAM running Windows XP. If I run the same code on both computers, the allocated private bytes in A never goes down resulting in a crash later on. In B it looks like the private bytes is constantly deallocated and everything looks fine. In both computers, the working set is deallocated and allocated similarly. Could this be an issue with manifests or DLLs (system)? I'm clueless. Note: I observed the utilized memory with Process Explorer. Question: During execution (where we have several allocations and deallocations) is it normal for the number of private bytes to be much bigger (1.5 GB vs 70 MB) than the working set?

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• Offer access to a private page without login

  - by dccarmo

  So I've been struggling with a nice and easy way to allow users to access a private page without asking them to fill out a login/password form. What I'm thinking about using right now is for each private page I generate a uniqueid (using php uniqid function) and then send the URI to the user. He would access his private page as "www.mywebsite.com/private_page/13ffa2c4a". I think it's relatively safe and user friendly, without asking too much of information. I thought maybe when the user access this page it would ask for it's e-mail just to be sure, but the best would be nothing at all. Is this really safe? I mean not internet banking safe, but enough for a simple access? Do you think there's a better solution? Thanks. :)

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• Need for explanation: NetBIOS over TCP/IP on VMware network adapter disturbs access to network share

  - by gyrolf

  Some time ago nearly all workstations in our team (Windows XP SP2) exhibited intermittend but frequent delays when accessing shares on the network. Typically the first access to a share which hadn't been accessed for some time resulted in a nearly frozen workstation for up to 30 seconds. Then everything started working fine again. Using TCPView from Sysinternals I saw that during this delays there was a connection to the netbios-ssn port on the file server which was in state SYN_SENT. First try: Disable NetBIOS over TCP/IP for the intranet network adapter. Problem solved, but I didn't like to manipulate our centrally managed network configuration for the intranet. Second try: Disable NetBIOS over TCP/IP only for the VMWare network adapter (VMNet1 used for host only communications). Problem solved again! My questions: Why does NetBIOS over TCP/IP on one network adapter disturb NetBIOS over TCP/IP on another network adapter? Is this problem specific to VMWare network adapters? Has anybody else seen this phenomen? Additional information: VMWare Workstation version 6.0.3 At the time I started seriously analysing the problem it was no more possible to find out what had been changed to our systems at the time the problems started.

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• Why does ping flooding a domain name freezes and not a direct ip address

  - by CYREX

  I am wondering why, when ping flooding a domain, the ping flood freezes after a couple of seconds then continues and this freeze, unfreeze continues until i stop the ping flood. When i do the same using the ip it does not freeze. NEVER. i did for example sudo ping -f IP (It does not freeze) then i did sudo ping -f DomainName (It freezes after a couple of seconds) Why does ping flooding an IP not freezes and ping flooding the same place using the domain name does freeze. EDIT - What i mean about freezing is that the behavior of the ping flood should send a ping and create a dot (.) for each ping but also remove each dot (.) after receiving the echo request. Looks something like this: .......... <-- This means you just send 10 ping requests. If the requests are answer, for each request answer a dot is removed. The freeze happens when this is sending or receiving. The dots will stay there frozen, like is not receiving or sending any packets. For the PING FLOOD. I do not mean in the evil way of flooding a place, i mean in the testing way. To test the performance/speed of the request send and answered of the ping requests. If you send a ping flood to google's IP for about 10 seconds you would have send about 1000 packets.but if you do it to google's domain name (google.com) it will create the freeze am talking about. IMPORTANT - Do not confuse with flooding a site with ping of death attacks.

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• DrayTek 2820 configuration using public IP addresses

  - by Kev

  I have a /29 range of public IP addresses assigned to me by my ISP. I'm trying to configure a SIP VOIP handset to register with my VOIP provider who recommend using public IP addresses rather than NAT. I have a DrayTek 2820 router flashed with the latest firmware and have configured my router as per DrayTek's FAQ at: How do I use a public subnet on the LAN (non-NAT operation ) ? My IP range is: xx.xx.94.16 -> xx.xx.94.23 This gives a usable range of: xx.xx.94.17 -> xx.xx.94.22 My router's public IP address is: xx.xx.94.17, the SIP VOIP handset is allocated xx.xx.94.18. I have a second internet connection and via that I can ping the handset. However for some reason I can't seem to get it to register with the provider. I tried adding a new Firewall filter to pass through from WAN to LAN: Source: ANY, Destination: xx.xx.94.18, UDP - Ports 1024 -> 65535 Out of interest I also tried opening port 80 to see if I could browse to the phone's admin web interface but no joy. I know that my ISP aren't blocking inbound service ports because I NAT Port Forwarded port 80 to one of my internal web servers and it rendered a test page I had set up. All the NAT settings are reset to factory defaults, i.e. there are no Port Redirection, DMZ Host, Open Ports or Address Mappings configured. The handset I'm using is a GrandStream GXP-2000. Is there anything else I should be doing?

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• Two domains, two servers, one dynamic IP address

  - by giantman

  I have two domains hi.org and bye.net and one dynamic IP address and two servers. I want to attach one domain bye.net to server1 and hi.org to server2. I'm using Apache wamp 2.0i. I have two servers behind one router with a dynamic IP address #httpd.conf file additions <IfModule mod_proxy.c> ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> </IfModule> #vhost file additions NameVirtualHost *:80 #default <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "c:/wamp/www/fallback" </VirtualHost> # Server 1 <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "c:/wamp/www" ServerName h**p://bye.net ServerAlias bye.net </VirtualHost> # Server 2 <VirtualHost *:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyPass / h**p://192.168.1.119/ DocumentRoot "g:/wamp/www" ServerName h**p://hi.org ServerAlias hi.org </VirtualHost> After doing all this I fallback to server1 only I don't get the page hi.org I only get the page bye.net, I don't even get the default fallback page which gets executed when a person enters IP address but not the domain name. I use Windows 7 (server 2) and Windows XP (server 1) UPDATE: I needed to remove DocumentRoot "g:/wamp/www" line :D it was there by mistake! things are working fine now. But one thing: the URL gets replaced by the local ip address any way to not make that happen?

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• D-LINK 2450U DSL router: Port forwarding forwading to the modem itself, not the specified IP

  - by axk

  I found a similar question but it has no satisfactory answers. I have a D-LINK 2540U DSL router. It has a basic port forwarding(under DNS - Virtual Servers) configuration in the administration panel where you specify: external port range, protocol, internal port range, server IP address and it is supposed to forward that port to that IP address. When I first set it up for a Real VNC connection it worked fine, just as I expected. Then I added a DynDNS configuration entry in the router's 'Dynamic DNS' section and added an additional SSH (22) forwarding rule. The SSH forwarding also worked fine (now with the dynamic hostname, but I suppose it doesn't make any difference as far as SSH is concerned). Then I removed the SSH rule and after that the VNC forwarding stopped working with the VNC client failing to connect (I have tried to connect with telnet and it also failed to connect, so it wasn't a VNC problem). After adding a rule for port 80 it turned out it would forward on port 80 though not to the specified server IP but to the modem itself. At least it is what it looks like, because it gives me the administration panel when I connect to my external IP (both using a browser and plain telnet in which case I can see that it is mini_hhtpd sitting on the port, which is obviously the modem's administration panel). Have anybody encountered a similar problem with port forwarding? I have tried to do a reset through the administration panel and to restore a backup of the settings made before I started playing with port forwarding, but it didn't help. Should I do a 'hard' reset with the button on the modem? Is it any different from the administration panel's reset (Restore default)?

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• Using virtual IP with stunnel and haproxy

  - by beardtwizzle

  Hi there, We have a load-balancer setup, in which an HTTPS Request flows through the following steps:- Client -> DNS -> stunnel on Load-Balancer -> HAProxy on LB -> Web-Server This setup works perfectly when stunnel is listening to the local IP of the Load-Balancer. However in our setup we have 2 load-balancers and we want to be able to listen to a virtual IP, which only ever exists on one LB at a time (keepalived flips the IP to the second LB if the first one falls over). HAProxy has no problem in doing this (and I can ping the assigned virtual IP on the load-balancer I'm testing), but it seems stunnel hates the concept. Has anyone achieved this before (below is my stunnel config - as you can see I'm actually listening for ALL traffic on 443):- cert= /etc/ssl/certs/mycert.crt key = /etc/ssl/certs/mykey.key ;setuid = nobody ;setgid = nogroup pid = /etc/stunnel/stunnel.pid debug = 3 output = /etc/stunnel/stunnel.log socket=l:TCP_NODELAY=1 socket=r:TCP_NODELAY=1 [https] accept=443 connect=127.0.0.1:8443 TIMEOUTclose=0 xforwardedfor=yes Sorry for the long-winded question!

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• LAN->LAN IP translation (for TortoiseSVN + Artifacts + Buffalo router)

  - by Armchair Bronco

  Here's my scenario: I've got a VisualSVN server on my main dev box @ home. I'm also using Visual Studio 2010, TortoiseSVN, VisualSVN client (for source control), and Versioned 'Artifacts' (for bug tracking). (I had to modify the fake URL's below to use only one slash because as a new user, I can't post more than one real URL.) I've got my Buffalo AirStation WHR-HP-G300N router properly configured so my business partner can connect to the SVN server. I have port forwarding enabled for the internet-side IP address (like http:/99.888.77.66:443) which gets forwarded to an internal IP (like 192.168.11.6). This part is working great. The problem I'm having is with the integration piece between TortoiseSVN and my bug tracking system. I need to provide a bugtraq:url property, but I haven't been able to get relative paths to work. So I'm forced to use an absolute URL. On my end, I need to use the name of my server (for example: bugtraq:url = https:/my-server/svn/bla..), but this doesn't work for my partner. He needs to specify the IP address (for example: bugtraq:url = https:/999.888.77.66:443/svn/bla...) Is there a way to configure my router such that the IP address for this parameter gets re-routed/re-mapped to "https://my-server" if the request originates from the LAN itself? My router's software supports LAN-Internet and Internet-LAN, but I don't see LAN-LAN.

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• Changing IP address in IIS for SharePoint site results in Directory listing error

  - by Dan

  I have a server here that has 2 roles. One is Exchange 2007 and the other is MOSS 2007. In IIS i have a site, go.domain.com which has our OWA. The other is internal.domain.com which is the MOSS site. I have given the NIC local IPs and each site is using host headers. The GO site has an SSL cert from NetSol, and the MOSS site has a self signed. Right now going to either shows the NetSol site, which browsers complain about when going to the internal.domain.com site, obviously, since they are on the same IP in IIS. Both sites have always run off the original IP of 10.0.0.3 in IIS. When i added the second IP to the NIC, (10.0.0.6) and changed the Sharepoint site in IIS to use this for http and https access, I now get this message in a browser when trying to connect. Directory Listing Denied This Virtual Directory does not allow contents to be listed. Changing the IP back to 10.0.0.3 and the internal site is back up. What am I missing here? Do i need to fool around with Alternate Access Mappings in Central Admin? Am i completely missing the point with multiple SSL certs and host headers?

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• OSX: Mimic Ubuntu IP Masquerading via iptables with ipfw

  - by Dogbert

  Good day, I am attempting to replicate a setup I have between a router and an Ubuntu PC, and have the same setup working on my MacBook (10.6, Snow Leopard). First, I have a router that has a USB port. When I plug it into my Ubuntu PC, it creates an RNDIS connection, allowing me to connect to the router over the USB cable via an IP connection. When I plug it into my computer via USB, it gets assigned an IP address of 172.16.84.1, and a new adapter appears when I type ifconfig. I can then SSH into the device via ssh [email protected]. When I log in to the device, I flush the routes, then create the default route: admin@localhost> route -f admin@localhost> route add default 172.16.84.2 Now, in my Ubuntu machine, I use iptables to enable IP masquerading: root@Valhalla> sudo iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -s 172.16.84.2 -j MASQUERADE Once this is all done, the router has internet access over the USB connection to my PC. I am trying to replicate this exact setup on my MacBook now (Snow Leopard), but iptables does not exist for OSX, not even a Macports version exists. I have scoured through other questions on StackOverflow that cover the usage of the ipfw command, which apparently works as a drop-in replacement for iptables. However, the syntax is significantly different, and I'm pretty much lost. Does anyone with some experience with ipfw have some suggestions on how I could accomplish this and create a NAT connection via IP masquerading like I could with my Ubuntu PC? Thank you for your assistance.

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