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  • Generating/managing config files for hosted application

    - by mfinni
    I asked a question about config management, and haven't seen a reply. It's possible my question was too vague, so let's get down to brass tacks. Here's the process we follow when onboarding a new customer instance into our hosted application : how would you manage this? I'm leaning towards a Perl script to populate templates to generate shell scripts, config files, XML config files, etc. Looking briefly at CFengine and Chef, it seems like they're not going to reduce the amount of work, because I'd still have to manually specify all of the changes/edits within the tool. Doesn't seem to be much of a gain over touching the config files directly. We add a stanza to the main config file for the core (3rd-party) application. This stanza has values that defines the instance (customer) name the TCP listener port for this instance (not one currently used) the DB2 database name (serial numeric identifier, already exists, they get prestaged for us by the DBAs) three sub-config files, by name - they need to be created from 3 templates and be named after the instance The sub-config files define: The filepath for the DB2 volumes The filepath for the storage of objects The filepath for just one of the DB2 volumes (yes, redundant to the first item. We run some application commands, start the instance We do some LDAP thingies (make an OU for the instance, etc.) We add a stanza to the config file for our security listener that acts as a passthrough to LDAP instance name LDAP OU TCP port for instance DB2 database name We restart the security listener (off-hours), change the main config file from item 1, stop and restart the instance. It is now authenticating via LDAP. We add the stop and start commands for this instance to the HA failover scripts. We import an XML config file into the instance that defines things for the actual application for the customer - user names, groups, permissions, and business rules. The XML is supplied by the implementation team. Now, we configure the dataloading application We add a stanza to the existing top-level config file that points to a new customer-level config file. The new customer-level config file includes: the instance (customer) name the DB2 database name arbitrary number of sub-config files, by name Each of the sub-config files defines: filepaths to the directories for ingestion, feedback, backup, and failure those filepaths have a common path to a customer-specific folder, and then one folder for each sub-config file Each of those filepaths needs to be created We need to add this customer instance to our monitoring scripts that confirm the proper processes are running and can be logged into. Of course, those monitoring config files include the instance name, the TCP port, the DB2 database name, etc. There's also a reporting application that needs to be configured for the new instance. You get the idea. There's also XML that is loaded into WAS by the middleware team. We give them the values for them to plug into the XML - they could very easily hand us the template and we could give them back completed XML.

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  • Automatic layout of manual network mapping

    - by Paul
    So I have a small business network mainly consisting of two routed layer-2 domains with a total of ca. 100 devices spread over ca. 2000m² production and office spaces. Typical problems to solve using the graph would be: Over what (cable) path is a PC connected to the server? Where to expect devices connected to a switch port? I want to generate a graph of the physical network topology: Nodes are endpoint devices, switch ports, wall outlets, patch panel ports etc. Edges are cable connections. Ideally, grouping edges (or segments) that pass through the same bundle could be grouped. Also I would like to augment the graph data with automatically gathered data (monitoring state, MAC address, Switch port <- MAC entries to build up parts of the map). At the moment I use graphviz for this inside a Confluence wiki like that: layout = "neato" overlap = scale subgraph { rankdir = "TB" subgraph cluster_r1pf1 { r1pf1 [label="{ Rack 1 PF 1 | { <p1>P1 | <p2>P2 | <p3>P3} }", shape=record] } subgraph cluster_switch1 { switch1 [label="{ Rack 1 Switch 1 | { <p1> P1 | <p1> P1 | <p3> P3} }", shape=record] } r1pf1:p1 -> switch1:p1 (obviously there are dozens of entries omitted here) Problem is: I have a hard time to influence graphviz to generate a bearable layout. Edges overlap so bad that you can't read the diagram anymore. The question is: What other tools (be it interactive like Visio, Omnigraffle or I/O-oriented like graphviz) exist that would allow an easily versionable (as in: Operates on a text file) documentation that is both machine and human readable and editable? Why not OmniGraffle or Visio? Well we don't have Macs and Visio is not available at the moment. To buy it I would need good arguments. Automation would be one of that. But last time I looked, versioning Visio files or even thinking about automatic handling was a nightmare. Related: Network Mapping Tools basically asks the same with a focus on generating the complete graph automatically (but without the need to document cabling connections) Recommendations for automatic computer inventory brings up links of "all-in-one" solutions

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  • What's the best way to do user profile/folder redirect/home directory archiving?

    - by tpederson
    My company is in dire need of a redesign around how we handle user account administration. I've been tasked with automating the process. The end goal is to have the whole works triggered by the business, and IT only looking in when there's an error reported. The interim phase is going to be semi-manual. That is a level 2 tech inputs the user's info and supervises the process. The current hurdle I'm facing is user profile archiving. Our security team requires us to archive the profile directories for any terminated user for 60 days in case the legal team requires access to their files. Our AD is as much a mess as everything else, so there are some users with home directories and some with profiles. Anyone who has a profile dir in AD also has a good deal of their profile redirected to our file servers over DFS. In order to complete the process manually you find the user in AD, disable them, find their home/profile dir, go there and take ownership, create an archive folder, move all their files over, then delete the old dir. Some users have many many gigs of nonsense and this can take quite some time. Even automated the process would not be a quick one. I'm thinking that I need to have a client side C# GUI for the quick stuff and some server side batch script or console app to offload this long running process. I have a batch script that works decently using takeown and robocopy, but I wonder if a C# console app would do a better job. So, my question at long last is, what do you think is the best way to handle this? I can't imagine this is a unique problem, how do other admins get this done? The last place I worked was easily 10x larger than the place I'm in now. If we would have been doing this manual crap there, they'd have needed a team of at least 30 full time workers to keep up. I have decent skills in C#.net and batch scripting, but am a quick study and I have used most every language once or twice. Thank you for reading this and I look forward to seeing what imaginative solutions you all can come up with.

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  • Local admin password recovery: Windows Vista

    - by Jim Dennis
    I am faced with an unsettling situation. A friend of my father's has rather suddenly become a widower. Naturally they've taken care of the bank accounts and all the normal mundane things that people have been doing for a century or so. However, she was the computer user of the household. He was aware that they had some online banking stuff and bill paying stuff ... and that she spent lots of time on FaceBook and stuff like that. However, he doesn't know what her local passwords were (actually only vaguely aware that her couple of desktop and couple of laptop system even had passwords). He's never heard of "admin" passwords so that's no good either. In the past I've used KNOPPIX and the old LinuxCare "bootable business card" to recover NT passwords. I've never done this with MS Windows Vista. So, I'm looking for the best advice on how to do this. Naturally I do have physical access to the systems (the two laptops are charging across the room from me; and her old desktop systems are, naturally, still back at his place). Getting it right is much more important than fast or easy (I don't want to mess up those filesystems and possibly lose some photos or other stuff that he or his kids or grandkids will want). (BTW: if anyone things this is some social engineering hack to play upon the sympathies of the community to get the information I'm asking for ... think about it for a minute. I know about IRC and the "warez" boards. I know I can find this stuff out there if I dig enough. I'm just asking here because it'll hopefully be faster and, secondarily to raise awareness. As more of us put more of our lives online ... as we get older and as places like FaceBook continue to widen the appeal of computing to a broader segment of older people ... we are, as computer nerds, going to see a lot more of this. Survivors will needs us to be careful, sensitive and ethically responsible as they try to recover those bits of legacy during their bereavement. I can now tell you, first hand, it sucks!)

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  • Default Critique branch office setup: VPNTunnel->HQ, subnets for VOIP/PC, + several Q's

    - by CHickenTaragon
    We're setting up a new branch office. * ~10 users. * Each user has a VOIP phone provided by a hosted solution. * Users need access to resources on HQ (located in another state), so setting up VPN tunnel * HQ only supports certain Cisco/Juniper devices. VOIP provider only supports SonicWall, so current plan is to have two routers w/ separate subnets for VOIP vs. PC traffic. * PC's will plug into pass-thru Ethernet jacks on the VOIP phones, but the phones vs. PC's will point to different subnets. * Cable Modem is 50Mbps / 5Mbps DOCSIS 3.0 business line w/ 5 static IP's. * Each of the 2 subnets will map to one of the 5 public IP's. * May or may not also need to support a VPN tunnel with a second branch office because of a file server they have there that some in the new office use. I'm pushing to have them move the files to a server on the HQ's network so we don't have to worry about setting up an additional tunnel. Questions: Do you foresee any issues with the below set-up? Router recommendations by HQ IT staff: Cisco Router 2811, or Juniper SSG5 or SSG20. Any recommendations about these routers? We need Wi-Fi too – looks like the above routers have models that support this, any reason not to use this? Users need to be able to work from home. If so, how is authentication handled? Right now we use AD credentials for the HQ's domain, but we currently don't plan to have an AD system in the new location since it's only 10 users. We can't tie the authentication system from the new location's router to the AD system of the HQ. All the PC's that will be in the new location are currently in the existing office that is closing down, and are already joined to the domain of the HQ. Please confirm: this + the VPN tunnel will be sufficient for them to connect to authenticated resources on the HQ's network from the new location, correct? Mainly SQL servers and file servers, and a few remote desktop sessions. I'm sure I'll have some more questions, but can't think of them right now.

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  • What the best way to achieve RPO of zero and lowest possible RTO (less than 15 minutes) with SQL 2008 R2?

    - by Adrian Hope-Bailie
    We are running a payments (EFT transaction processing) application which is processing high volumes of transactions 24/7 and are currently investigating a better way of doing DB replication to our disaster recovery site. Our current and previous strategies have included using both DoubleTake and Redgate to replicate data to a warm stand-by. DoubleTake is the supported solution from the payments software vendor however their (DoubleTake's) support in South Africa is very poor. We had a few issues and simply couldn't ever resolve them so we had to give up on DoubleTake. We have been using Redgate to manually read the data from the primary site (via queries) and write to the DR site but this is: A bad solution Getting the software vendor hot and bothered whenever we have support issues as it has a tendency to interfere with the payment application which is very DB intensive. We recently upgraded the whole system to run on SQL 2008 R2 Enterprise which means we should probably be looking at using some of the built-in replication features. The server has 2 fairly large databases with a mixture of tables containing highly volatile transactional data and pretty static configuration data. Replication would be done over a WAN link to a separate physical site and needs to achieve the following objectives. RPO: Zero loss - This is transactional data with financial impact so we can't lose anything. RTO: Tending to zero - The business depends on our ability to process transactions every minute we are down we are losing money I have looked at a few of the other questions/answers but none meet our case exactly: SQL Server 2008 failover strategy - Log shipping or replication? How to achieve the following RTO & RPO with logshipping only using SQL Server? What is the best of two approaches to achieve DB Replication? My current thinking is that we should use mirroring but I am concerned that for RPO:0 we will need to do delayed commits and this could impact the performance of the primary DB which is not an option. Our current DR process is to: Stop incoming traffic to the primary site and allow all in-flight transaction to complete. Allow the replication to DR to complete. Change network routing to route to DR site. Start all applications and services on the secondary site (Ideally we can change this to a warmer stand-by whereby the applications are already running but not processing any transactions). In other words the DR database needs to, as quickly as possible, catch up with primary and be ready for processing as the new primary. We would then need to be able to reverse this when we are ready to switch back. Is there a better option than mirroring (should we be doing log-shipping too) and can anyone suggest other considerations that we should keep in mind?

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  • ASA5505 Novice. Setting up Outside/Inside/and DMZ as Guest Network

    - by GriffJ
    I need a little help in developing a config for our ASA5505. I'm an MCSA/MCITPAS but I don't have a lot of practical cisco experience. Here is what I need help with, we currently have a PIX as our boarder gateway and well it's antiquated and it only has a 50 user license which means I'm constantly clearing local-host throughout the day as people complain. I discovered that the last IT person bought at couple ASA5505s and they've been sitting in the back of a cupboard. So far I've duplicated the configuration from the pix to the asa but as I was going to be going this far I thought I'd go further and remove another old cisco router that was used only for the guest network, I know the asa can do both jobs. So I'm going to paste a scenario I wrote up with the actual IPs changed to protect the innocent. ... Outside Network: 1.2.3.10 255.255.255.248 (we have a /29) Inside Network: 10.10.36.0 255.255.252.0 DMZ Network: 192.168.15.0 255.255.255.0 Outside Network on e0/0 DMZ Network on e0/1 Inside Network on e0/2-7 DMZ Network has DHCPD Enabled. DMZ DHCPD Pool is 192.168.15.50-192.168.15.250 DMZ Network needs to be able to see DNS on Inside Network at 10.10.37.11 and 10.10.37.12 DMZ Network needs to be able to access webmail on inside network at 10.10.37.15 DMZ Network needs to be able to access business website on inside network at 10.10.37.17 DMZ Network needs to be able to access the outside network (access to the internet). Inside Network has NO DHCPD. (dhcp is handled by domain controller) Inside Network needs to be able to see anything on the DMZ network. Inside Network needs to be able to access the outside network (access to the internet). There is some access-list stuff already, some static mapping already. Maps external IPs from our ISP to our inside server IPs static (inside,outside) 1.2.3.11 10.10.37.15 netmask 255.255.255.255 static (inside,outside) 1.2.3.12 10.10.37.17 netmask 255.255.255.255 static (inside,outside) 1.2.3.13 10.10.37.20 netmask 255.255.255.255 Allows access to our Webserver/Mailserver/VPN from the Outside. access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.11 eq https access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.11 eq smtp access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.11 eq 993 access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.11 eq 465 access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.12 eq www access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.12 eq https access-list 108 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.13 eq pptp Here is all the NAT and route stuff I have so far. global (outside) 1 interface global (outside) 2 1.2.3.11-1.2.3.14 netmask 255.255.255.248 nat (inside) 1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 nat (dmz) 1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 route outside 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 1.2.3.9 1

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  • New-ManagedContentSettings - not working properly under Exchange 2010

    - by mfinni
    I have a client that is divesting a business unit into a new AD forest, Exchange org, etc. We're using Quest tools to migrate users and mailboxes. However, I have to build the new infrastructure to match the old one. In the old one, we're using Managed Folder Mailbox Policies to limit (or allow) retention. They started with Exchange 2007 and never upgraded to Retention Policies; oh well. So, in the old environment, when you use a 2007 server to define a new Managed Content Setting, you can pick "Email" from the dropdown for MessageClass. This is a display name; the actual MessageClass values are thus: MessageClass : IPM.Note;IPM.Note.AS/400 Move Notification Form v1.0;IPM.Note.Delayed;IPM.Note.Exchange.ActiveSync.Report;IPM.Note.JournalReport.Msg;IPM.Note.JournalReport.Tnef;IPM.Note.Microsoft.Missed.Voice;IPM.Note.Rules.OofTemplate.Microsoft;IPM.Note.Rules.ReplyTemplate.Microsoft;IPM.Note.Secure.Sign;IPM.Note.SMIME;IPM.Note.SMIME.MultipartSigned;IPM.Note.StorageQuotaWarning;IPM.Note.StorageQuotaWarning.Warning;IPM.Notification.Meeting.Forward;IPM.Outlook.Recall;IPM.Recall.Report.Success;IPM.Schedule.Meeting.*;REPORT.IPM.Note.NDR If I take that and try to mangle it into a new cmdlet for Ex2010 in my new environment here's what I get New-ManagedContentSettings -Name "Delete Messages older then 90 days" -FolderName "Entire Mailbox" -RetentionEnabled $True -AgeLimitForRetention 90 -TriggerForRetention WhenDelivered -RetentionAction DeleteAndAllowRecovery -MessageClass "IPM.Note","IPM.Note.AS/400MoveNotificationFormv1.0","IPM.Note.Delayed","IPM.Note.Exchange.ActiveSync.Report","IPM.Note.JournalReport.Msg","IPM.Note.JournalReport.Tnef","IPM.Note.Microsoft.Missed.Voice","IPM.Note.Rules.OofTemplate.Microsoft","IPM.Note.Rules.ReplyTemplate.Microsoft","IPM.Note.Secure.Sign","IPM.Note.SMIME","IPM.Note.SMIME.MultipartSigned","IPM.Note.StorageQuotaWarning","IPM.Note.StorageQuotaWarning.Warning","IPM.Notification.Meeting.Forward","IPM.Outlook.Recall","IPM.Recall.Report.Success","IPM.Schedule.Meeting.*","REPORT.IPM.Note.NDR" -whatif Invoke-Command : Cannot bind parameter 'MessageClass' to the target. Exception setting "MessageClass": "The length of t he property is too long. The maximum length is 255 and the length of the value provided is 518." At C:\Users\MFinnigan.sa\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\Exchange\RemotePowerShell\pfexcas02.fve.ad.5ssl.com\pfexcas02.fve.ad .5ssl.com.psm1:28204 char:29 + $scriptCmd = { & <<<< $script:InvokeCommand ` + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (:) [New-ManagedContentSettings], ParameterBindingException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : ParameterBindingFailed,Microsoft.Exchange.Management.SystemConfigurationTasks.NewManaged ContentSettings So, the config object can store all that mess, but I can't fit it in through the cmdlet to create the object. Lovely. Any ideas?

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  • VPN Connection Causes Internal LAN Connection Loss with Server

    - by sleepisfortheweak
    I've tried configuring basic PPTP VPN at my small business using a number of different tutorials. As far as I can tell, the actual VPN connection worked fine, but upon connecting a client, the Server 'disappears' from the internal LAN. The RRAS service must be stopped before the connection is restored. My Setup: The network is simply a DSL Gateway/Router to the outside functioning as NAT/Firewall/DHCP. The server is a Win Server 2008 machine at fixed IP 192.168.1.200. The server has 1 NIC, so I used the 'custom' option when configuring RRAS. The RRAS settings should be default except that I've disabled ports for connection types I'm not using and reduced PPTP ports to 10. I've also created an address pool and disabled DHCP packet forwarding. The server only functions as a File Share and now a VPN Server. Local LAN computers all have mapped network shares to the server authenticated based on Local User/Group setup on the server. The Problem: The moment a client connects through VPN, the server 'disappears' from the local network. All mapped drives disconnect and there is no response to a ping 192.168.1.200. Even if the client disconnects, the server does not re-appear at that address until the RRAS service is stopped. I've Tried: Using an Address Pool inside and outside the local subnet. Using DCHP Relay Checking Inbound/Outbound filters (none enabled) The fact that nothing I've tried has had any effect, and that I can connect and successfully obtain an IP tells me that it's something more fundamental I'm missing. My gut tells me that it's something to do with the second IP address added by the VPN client somehow taking over the interface or traffic from the local LAN accidently getting routed to the VPN client instead of handled at the server once RRAS has become 'active' when a client connects. Hopefully this may be obvious to someone with real IT experience. I've been doing this a while and almost never been stumped. I'm starting to think it might actually be something tricky since my setup is pretty basic yet refuses to work. I'll be happy to include more info if this doesn't ring any bells right away for anyone. Thanks

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  • Load balancers, multiple data centers and url based routing

    - by kunkunur
    There is one data center - dc1. There is a business need to setup another data center - dc2 in another geography and there might be more in the future say dc3. Within the data center dc1: There are two web servers say WS1 and WS2. These two webservers do not share anything currently. There isnt any necessity foreseen to have more webservers within each dc. dc1 also has a local load balancer which has been setup with session stickiness. So if a user say u1 lands on dc1 and if the load balancer decides to route his first request to WS1 then from there on all u1's requests will get routed to WS1. Local load balancer and webservers are invisible to the user. Local load balancer listens to the traffic on a virtual ip which is assigned to the virtual cluster of webservers ws1 and ws2. Virtual ip is the ip to which the host name is resolved to in the DNS. There are no client specific subdomains as of now instead there is a client specific url(context). ex: www.example.com/client1 and www.example.com/client2. Given above when dc2 is onboarded I want to route the traffic between dc1 and dc2 based on the client. The options that I have found so far are. Have client specific subdomains e.g. client1.example.com and client2.example.com and assign each of them with the virtual ip of the data center to which I want to route them. or Assign www.example.com and www1.example.com to first dc i.e. dc1 and assign www2.example.com to dc2. All requests will first get routed to dc1 where WS1 and WS2 will redirect the user to www1.example.com or www2.example.com based on whether the url ends with /client1 or /client2. I need help in the following If I setup a global load balancer between dc1 and dc2 do I have any alternative solutions. That is, can a global load balancer route the traffic based on the url ? Are there drawbacks to subdomain based solutions compared to www1 solution? With www1 solution I am worried that it creates a dependency on dc1 atleast for the first request and the user will see that he is getting redirected to a different url.

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  • Log transport and aggregation at scale

    - by markdrayton
    How're you analysing log files from UNIX/Linux machines? We run several hundred servers which all generate their own log files, either directly or through syslog. I'm looking for a decent solution to aggregate these and pick out important events. This problem breaks down into 3 components: 1) Message transport The classic way is to use syslog to log messages to a remote host. This works fine for applications that log into syslog but less useful for apps that write to a local file. Solutions for this might include having the application log into a FIFO connected to a program to send the message using syslog, or by writing something that will grep the local files and send the output to the central syslog host. However, if we go to the trouble of writing tools to get messages into syslog would we be better replacing the whole lot with something like Facebook's Scribe which offers more flexibility and reliability than syslog? 2) Message aggregation Log entries seem to fall into one of two types: per-host and per-service. Per-host messages are those which occur on one machine; think disk failures or suspicious logins. Per-service messages occur on most or all of the hosts running a service. For instance, we want to know when Apache finds an SSI error but we don't want the same error from 100 machines. In all cases we only want to see one of each type of message: we don't want 10 messages saying the same disk has failed, and we don't want a message each time a broken SSI is hit. One approach to solving this is to aggregate multiple messages of the same type into one on each host, send the messages to a central server and then aggregate messages of the same kind into one overall event. SER can do this but it's awkward to use. Even after a couple of days of fiddling I had only rudimentary aggregations working and had to constantly look up the logic SER uses to correlate events. It's powerful but tricky stuff: I need something which my colleagues can pick up and use in the shortest possible time. SER rules don't meet that requirement. 3) Generating alerts How do we tell our admins when something interesting happens? Mail the group inbox? Inject into Nagios? So, how're you solving this problem? I don't expect an answer on a plate; I can work out the details myself but some high-level discussion on what is surely a common problem would be great. At the moment we're using a mishmash of cron jobs, syslog and who knows what else to find events. This isn't extensible, maintainable or flexible and as such we miss a lot of stuff we shouldn't. Updated: we're already using Nagios for monitoring which is great for detected down hosts/testing services/etc but less useful for scraping log files. I know there are log plugins for Nagios but I'm interested in something more scalable and hierarchical than per-host alerts.

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  • Resetting root password on Fedora Core 3 - serial cable access only

    - by Sensible Eddie
    A little background: We have an old rackmount server running a customised version of Fedora, manufactured by a company called Navaho. The server is a TeamCAT, running some proprietary rubbish called Freedom2. We have to keep it going - the alternative is extraordinarily expensive, and the business is not likely to be running much longer to justify changing things. Through one means or another, it has fallen upon me to try and resolve our lack of root access. The previous admin has fallen under the proverbial bus, and nobody has any clue. We have no access to the root account for this server. ssh is running on the server, and there is one account admin that we can login with, however it has no permission to do anything (ironic...) The only other way into the server is with a null-modem serial cable. This works... up to a point. I can see the BIOS, I can see the post BIOS screen, and then I see "Starting grub", followed by another screen with about four lines of Linux information, but then it stops at that point. The server continues booting, and all services come online after around two minutes, but the serial terminal displays no more information. I understand it is possible to put Linux into "single user mode" to reset a root password, but I have no idea how to do this beyond trying to interrupt it at the grub stage listed above. When I have tried it just froze. It was almost like grub had appeared (since the server did not continue booting) but I couldn't see it on the serial terminal. Which made me think maybe the grub screen has some different serial settings? I don't know... it's the first time I've ever used serial for access! A friend of mine suggested trying to use a Fedora boot CD. We could boot from USB, so something along this approach is possible but again we still can only see what's going on with the serial terminal, so it might not be achievable. Does anyone have any suggestions for things I can try? I appreciate this is a bit of a long shot, but any assistance would be invaluable. *UPDATE 1 - 28/8/12 * - we will be making some attempts on this today and will post further details later!

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  • Beginner server local installation

    - by joanjgm
    Here's the thing I own a small business and currently my emails are being managed by some regular hosting using cpanel and that I bought a small server and installed windows server and exchange Can you tell what I did wrong here Installed and configured my current existing domain Configured all email address Installed noip in case my public address change In the cpanel of the domain I've added an MX record to the noip domain of the server with priority 0 so now emails are being received by my own server Now whenever I send an email to anyone gmail hotmail etc I get a response that cannot be delivered since may be junk This didn't happen when I sent emails from the hosting What's missing what did I do wrong heres the code mx.google.com rejected your message to the following e-mail addresses: Joan J. Guerra Makaren ([email protected]) mx.google.com gave this error: [186.88.202.13 12] Our system has detected that this message is likely unsolicited mail. To reduce the amount of spam sent to Gmail, this message has been blocked. Please visit http://support.google.com/mail/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=188131 for more information. cn9si815432vcb.71 - gsmtp Your message wasn't delivered due to a permission or security issue. It may have been rejected by a moderator, the address may only accept e-mail from certain senders, or another restriction may be preventing delivery. Diagnostic information for administrators: Generating server: SERVERMEGA.megaconstrucciones.com.ve [email protected] mx.google.com #550-5.7.1 [186.88.202.13 12] Our system has detected that this message is 550-5.7.1 likely unsolicited mail. To reduce the amount of spam sent to Gmail, 550-5.7.1 this message has been blocked. Please visit 550-5.7.1 http://support.google.com/mail/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=188131 for 550 5.7.1 more information. cn9si815432vcb.71 - gsmtp ## Original message headers: Received: from SERVERMEGA.megaconstrucciones.com.ve ([fe80::9096:e9c2:405b:6112]) by SERVERMEGA.megaconstrucciones.com.ve ([fe80::9096:e9c2:405b:6112%10]) with mapi; Thu, 29 May 2014 11:32:19 -0430 From: prueba <[email protected]> To: "Joan J. Guerra Makaren" <[email protected]> Subject: Probando correos Thread-Topic: Probando correos Thread-Index: Ac97V1eW4OBFmoqJTRGoD7IPTC2azg== Date: Thu, 29 May 2014 16:04:35 +0000 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Accept-Language: en-US, es-VE Content-Language: en-US X-MS-Has-Attach: X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="_000_000f42494487966276f7b241megaconstruccionescomve_" MIME-Version: 1.0

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  • Cloud storage provider lost my data. How to back up next time?

    - by tomcam
    What do you do when cloud storage fails you? First, some background. A popular cloud storage provider (rhymes with Booger Link) damaged a bunch of my data. Getting it back was an uphill battle with all the usual accusations that it was my fault, etc. Finally I got the data back. Yes, I can back this up with evidence. Idiotically, I stayed with them, so I totally get that the rest of this is on me. The problem had been with a shared folder that works with all 12 computers my business and family use with the service. We'll call that folder the Tragic Briefcase. It is a sort of global folder that's publicly visible to all computers on the service. It's our main repository. Today I decided to deal with some residual effects of the Crash of '11. Part of the damage they did was that in just one of my computers (my primary, of course) all the documents in the Tragic Briefcase were duplicated in the Windows My Documents folder. I finally started deleting them. But guess what. Though they appeared to be duplicated in the file system, removing them from My Documents on the primary PC caused them to disappear from the Tragic Briefcase too. They efficiently disappeared from all the other computers' Tragic Briefcases as well. So now, 21 gigs of files are gone, and of course I don't know which ones. I want to avoid this in the future. Apart from using a different storage provider, the bigger picture is this: how do I back up my cloud data? A complete backup every week or so from web to local storage would cause me to exceed my ISP's bandwidth. Do I need to back up each of my 12 PCs locally? I do use Backupify for my primary Google Docs, but I have been storing taxes, confidential documents, Photoshop source, video source files, and so on using the web service. So it's a lot of data, but I need to keep it safe. Backup locally would also mean 2 backup drives or some kind of RAID per PC, right, because you can't trust a single point of failure? Assuming I move to DropBox or something of its ilk, what is the best way to make sure that if the next cloud storage provider messes up I can restore?

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  • Need help troubleshooting highly variable ping times

    - by Elliot.Bradshaw
    I'm at work using Citrix (think Remote Desktop) to connect to client sites. With my job I have to write a fair bit of code while I'm connected remotely via Citrix, so the latency of my internet connection is important. If I'm getting ping times above 250ms, then it becomes almost impossible to scroll, click or type with accuracy. Recently my Comcast business internet has been exhibiting highly variable ping times. If I ping google.com, I'll get pings that range from 9ms all the way up to 1300ms. The problem seems to be at its worst during the hours of 1PM to 4:30PM. Outside of those hours and the variance in pings settles down, mostly between 9ms and 50ms. The signal to noise ratio and upstream power are both fine on my modem--the values are here: http://pastebin.com/D4hWGPXf I ran a trace route from my computer to google.com (the results of which are here: http://pastebin.com/GcdjYvMh) and did another test ping to the IP of the first hop outside of our local network (73.98.44.1)--the variance in ping times existed in exactly the same manner as if I were pinging Google. Connecting directly to the cable modem by CAT5 makes no difference. Here is a screenshot demonstrating the variance of the ping times: http://postimage.org/image/haocdeauv/full/ -- as you can see it can get pretty bad. Three Comcast techs have been out (two of them were here when the problem wasn't happening) and they as well as the regional tier 2 Comcast support were unable to diagnose the problem. I now have a ticket open with tier 3 support, but have yet to hear back from them. Does anyone know what could cause these sorts of problems or have any idea from the traceroute above where it could be originating? The regional tier 2 guy tried to tell me that what I'm seeing is normal--are highly variable ping times like that ever acceptable? Anything I should ask Comcast to do or look at to get this problem fixed? Any tips/advice much appreciated! Edit: This is Comcast cable internet at a small start-up, we've ruled out congestion in our private LAN as a cause (i.e., no one's watching YouTube when the pings become variable). Update: Tier 3 Comcast support advised swapping out the modem, a tech came here today and did that--same problem persists.

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  • What server setup for a small web development company? [closed]

    - by Giordano
    I co-own a company with a friend of mine and we have decided to buy a new server to support our business (our current server is an Asus EEE Box, working great but too limited :) ). I should mention that we are web developers but occasionally we do small-office sys admin. Thus, 99% of time we work on GNU/Linux (mainly Ubuntu) but from time to time we need to setup a Windows environment to assist some customers (e.g. setup a temporary SQL Server 2008). Our requirements: Low budget: we don't want the cheapest solution out there but we can't afford to spend too much. Budget could be ~1000-1500€ (before VAT) Robustness: we would like to setup a RAID array and maybe have an external disk where we can store backups Virtualization: we need to be able to setup few servers for development. The scenario is something like this (~8 appliances running in parallel): Redmine + GIT server Bacula server FTP server 3-4 virtual appliances that could be set up on demand to test our applications or support a customer. The appliances could be: LAMP, Tomcat+PostgreSQL, SQL Server Support: if something breaks down it shouldn't be too difficult to find a replacement. Now, given the main requirements, there are some doubts we need to clarify: Do you suggest to buy a prepackaged solution (for example a customized Dell PowerEdge T110 or T310) or to assemble the server by ourselves (buy the separate components)? What RAID configuration do you suggest? I was thinking of RAID1 (probably cheaper) or RAID5. should we buy a hardware RAID controller or is it ok to use a software RAID (mdadm)? In case, which controller do you suggest? What processor do you suggest (Intel Xeon, i3, i5, i7, AMD)? How much RAM? (I was thinking at least 8GB, ~1GB per appliance) What virtualization software do you recommend? VMWare seems to be the best choice, but what about XEN or KVM? We don't want to buy licenses at the moment so we would like to consider only free options. What OS do you recommend? We know Ubuntu, Debian, Gentoo very well (we would like to use Ubuntu Server), however it seems a lot of people goes for CentOS. Thanks in advance if you can help us with this! It's our first "serious" server so many doubts popped up :) Please feel free to add further recommendations if you have some to share ;) Have a nice day

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  • Silverlight 4 WCF RIA Services and MVVM is not as simple

    - by Thomas Jaskula
    [Disclaimer: I'm ASP.NET MVC Developer] Hi, I'm looking for some best practices with implementing MVVM pattern with WCF RIA in Silverlight 4. I'm not looking to use MEF of IoC for locating my ViewModels. What I would like to know is how to apply MVVM pattern with Silverlight 4 and WCF RIA. I don't want to use other stuff like Prism or MVVM Light toolkit. I found many examples on Internet showing how it is wonderful to drag and drop a datasource on the view and the job is done (it reminds me about my first VB6 developments). I tried to implement MVVM with WCF RIA and it's not strightforward at all. If I understand, the MVVM should contain all the logic in order to unit test it in isolation but when it comes to combine it with WCF RIA it's another story. I have the following questions. Can I use a generated metadata as model ? It would be easier to use it that if I write all from the scratch. As I saw the only way I could get data is through DomainContext or through direct binding in the view (local ressource). I don't want the direct binding in the view, not testable at all. On the other hand I can't use DomainContext, it doesn't expose any single entity !!! All I have is the EntitySet that I can bind to datagrid. How do I bind a single Entity to the DataForm from the ViewModel ? How do I udpate the model to the database ? How do I navigate from one Entity to a collection of it's itemps. For example if I have a Company Entity I would like to show a DataFrom to update a entite informations and a datagrid to show companies adresses. When saving a form would like to save information to Company and for example an information avout which adress was selected as active. Please help me understand how to do it well. Or maybe I should drop the WCF RIA and to do it with WCF from scratch ? What do you think ?

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  • Expose UserControl property to XAML

    - by Jared
    WPF controls have certain properties (UserControl.Resources, UserControl.CommandBindings) that can have items added to them from the XAML of a user control declaration. Example: <UserControl ... > <UserControl.CommandBindings> ... </UserControl.CommandBindings> <UserControl.Resources> ... </UserControl.Resources> </UserControl> I have a new list property defined in my user control: public partial class ArchetypeControl : UserControl { ... public List<Object> UICommands { get; set; } I want to add items to this list like I can with resources and CommandBindings, but when I do this: <c:ArchetypeControl.UICommands> </c:ArchetypeControl.UICommands> I get the error "Error 4 The attachable property 'UICommands' was not found in type 'ArchetypeControl'. " Suggestions? - Given the comments, I've created a test control to show the entire code and reproduce the problem. I'm using visual studio 2010. <UserControl x:Class="ArchetypesUI.TestControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:c="clr-namespace:ArchetypesUI" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300"> <c:TestControl.TestObject> </c:TestControl.TestObject> <Grid> </Grid> </UserControl> - namespace ArchetypesUI { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for TestControl.xaml /// </summary> public partial class TestControl : UserControl { public Object TestObject { get; set; } public TestControl() { InitializeComponent(); } } } Now the error I get is "Error 2 The attached property 'TestControl.TestObject' is not defined on 'UserControl' or one of its base classes."

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  • Can't create a fullscreen WPF popup

    - by Scrappydog
    Using WPF .NET 4.0 in VS2010 RTM: I can't create a fullscreen WPF popup. If I create a popup that is sized 50% width and 100% height everything works fine, but if I try to create a "full screen" popup sized to 100% width and height it ends up displaying at 100% width and 75% height... the bottom is truncated. Note: The width and height are actually being expressed in pixels in code, I'm using percent to make the situation a little more understandable... It "feels" like there is some sort of limit preventing the area of a popup from exceeding ~75% of the total area of the screen. UPDATE: Here is a Hello World example that shows the problem. <Window x:Class="TechnologyVisualizer.PopupTest" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="PopupTest" WindowStyle="None" WindowState="Maximized" Background="DarkGray"> <Canvas x:Name="MainCanvas" Width="1920" Height="1080"> <Popup Placement="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Width="1900" Height="1060" Name="popContent"> <TextBlock Background="Red">Hello World</TextBlock> </Popup> <Button Canvas.Left="50" Canvas.Top="50" Content="Menu" Height="60" Name="button1" Width="80" FontSize="22" Foreground="White" Background="Black" Click="button1_Click" /> </Canvas> </Window> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace TechnologyVisualizer { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for PopupTest.xaml /// </summary> public partial class PopupTest : Window { public PopupTest() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { popContent.IsOpen = true; } } } If you run this the bottom 25% of the popup is missing if you change the width of the popup to 500 then it will go full height

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  • WPF CommandParameter is NULL first time CanExecute is called

    - by Jonas Follesø
    I have run into an issue with WPF and Commands that are bound to a Button inside the DataTemplate of an ItemsControl. The scenario is quite straight forward. The ItemsControl is bound to a list of objects, and I want to be able to remove each object in the list by clicking a Button. The Button executes a Command, and the Command takes care of the deletion. The CommandParameter is bound to the Object I want to delete. That way I know what the user clicked. A user should only be able to delete their "own" objects - so I need to do some checks in the "CanExecute" call of the Command to verify that the user has the right permissions. The problem is that the parameter passed to CanExecute is NULL the first time it's called - so I can't run the logic to enable/disable the command. However, if I make it allways enabled, and then click the button to execute the command, the CommandParameter is passed in correctly. So that means that the binding against the CommandParameter is working. The XAML for the ItemsControl and the DataTemplate looks like this: <ItemsControl x:Name="commentsList" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SharedDataItemPM.Comments}" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Button Content="Delete" FontSize="10" Command="{Binding Path=DataContext.DeleteCommentCommand, ElementName=commentsList}" CommandParameter="{Binding}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> So as you can see I have a list of Comments objects. I want the CommandParameter of the DeleteCommentCommand to be bound to the Command object. So I guess my question is: have anyone experienced this problem before? CanExecute gets called on my Command, but the parameter is always NULL the first time - why is that? Update: I was able to narrow the problem down a little. I added an empty Debug ValueConverter so that I could output a message when the CommandParameter is data bound. Turns out the problem is that the CanExecute method is executed before the CommandParameter is bound to the button. I have tried to set the CommandParameter before the Command (like suggested) - but it still doesn't work. Any tips on how to control it. Update2: Is there any way to detect when the binding is "done", so that I can force re-evaluation of the command? Also - is it a problem that I have multiple Buttons (one for each item in the ItemsControl) that bind to the same instance of a Command-object? Update3: I have uploaded a reproduction of the bug to my SkyDrive: http://cid-1a08c11c407c0d8e.skydrive.live.com/self.aspx/Code%20samples/CommandParameterBinding.zip

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  • Silverlight Confirm Dialog to Pause Thread

    - by AlishahNovin
    I'm trying to do a confirmation dialog using Silverlight's ChildWindow object. Ideally, I'd like it to work like MessageBox.Show(), where the entire application halts until an input is received from the user. For example: for(int i=0;i<5;i++) { if (i==3 && MessageBox.Show("Exit early?", "Iterator", MessageBoxButton.OKCancel) == MessageBoxResult.OK) { break; } } Would stop the iteration at 3 if the user hits OK... However, if I were to do something along the lines: ChildWindow confirm = new ChildWindow(); confirm.Title = "Iterator"; confirm.HasCloseButton = false; Grid container = new Grid(); Button closeBtn = new Button(); closeBtn.Content = "Exit early"; closeBtn.Click += delegate { confirm.DialogResult = true; confirm.Close(); }; container.Children.Add(closeBtn); Button continueBtn = new Button(); continueBtn.Content = "Continue!"; continueBtn.Click += delegate { confirm.DialogResult = false; confirm.Close(); }; container.Children.Add(continueBtn); confirm.Content = container; for(int i=0;i<5;i++) { if (i==3) { confirm.Show(); if (confirm.DialogResult.HasResult && (bool)confirm.DialogResult) { break; } } } This clearly would not work, as the thread isn't halted... confirm.DialogResult.HasResult would be false, and the loop would continue past 3. I'm just wondering, how I could go about this properly. Silverlight is single-threaded, so I can't just put the thread to sleep and then wake it up when I'm ready, so I'm just wondering if there's anything else that people could recommend? I've considered reversing the logic - ie, passing the actions I want to occur to the Yes/No events, but in my specific case this wouldn't quite work. Thanks in advance!

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  • WPF: Animating TranslateTransform from code

    - by ghostskunks
    I have a WPF canvas on which I'm dynamically creating objects from code. These objects are being transformed by setting the RenderTransform property, and an animation needs to be applied one of those transforms. Currently, I can't get properties of any transform to animate (although no exception gets raised and the animation appears to run - the completed event gets raised). In addition, if the animation system is stressed, sometimes the Storyboard.Completed event is never raised. All the examples I've come accross animate the transforms from XAML. MSDN documentation suggests that the x:Name property of a transform must be set for it to be animatable, but I haven't found a working way to set it from code. Any ideas? Here's the full code listing that reproduces the problem: using System; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace AnimationCompletedTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { Canvas panel; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); MouseDown += DoDynamicAnimation; Content = panel = new Canvas(); } void DoDynamicAnimation(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs args) { for (int i = 0; i < 12; ++i) { var e = new Ellipse { Width = 16, Height = 16, Fill = SystemColors.HighlightBrush }; Canvas.SetLeft(e, Mouse.GetPosition(this).X); Canvas.SetTop(e, Mouse.GetPosition(this).Y); var tg = new TransformGroup(); var translation = new TranslateTransform(30, 0); tg.Children.Add(translation); tg.Children.Add(new RotateTransform(i * 30)); e.RenderTransform = tg; panel.Children.Add(e); var s = new Storyboard(); Storyboard.SetTarget(s, translation); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(s, new PropertyPath(TranslateTransform.XProperty)); s.Children.Add( new DoubleAnimation(3, 100, new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0, 1, 0))) { EasingFunction = new PowerEase {EasingMode = EasingMode.EaseOut} }); s.Completed += (sndr, evtArgs) => { Debug.WriteLine("Animation {0} completed {1}", s.GetHashCode(), Stopwatch.GetTimestamp()); panel.Children.Remove(e); }; Debug.WriteLine("Animation {0} started {1}", s.GetHashCode(), Stopwatch.GetTimestamp()); s.Begin(); } } [STAThread] public static void Main() { var app = new Application(); app.Run(new MainWindow()); } } }

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  • NSFetchedResultsController fetch request - updating predicate and UITableView

    - by Macatomy
    In my iPhone Core Data app I have it configured in a master-detail view setup. The master view is a UITableView that lists objects of the List entity. The List entity has a to-many relationship with the Task entity (called "tasks"), and the Task entity has an inverse to-one relationship with List called "list". When a List object is selected in the master view, I want the detail view (another UITableView) to list the Task objects that correspond to that List object. What I've done so far is this: In the detail view controller I've declared a property for a List object: @property (nonatomic, retain) List *list; Then in the master view controller I use this table view delegate method to set the list property of the detail view controller when a list is selected: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; detailViewController.list = (List*)selectedObject; } Then, I've overriden the setter for the list property in the detail view controller like this: - (void)setList:(List*)newList { if (list != newList) { [list release]; list = [newList retain]; NSPredicate *newPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(list == %@)", list]; [NSFetchedResultsController deleteCacheWithName:@"Root"]; [[[self fetchedResultsController] fetchRequest] setPredicate:newPredicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } } What I'm doing here is setting a predicate on the fetched results to filter out the objects so that I only get the ones that belong to the selected List object. The fetchedResultsController getter for the detail view controller looks like this: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController == nil) { NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Task" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"FALSEPREDICATE"]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; } return fetchedResultsController; } Its almost unchanged from the default in the Core Data project template, the change I made is to add a predicate that always returns false, the reason being that when there is no List selected I don't want any items to be displayed in the detail view (if a list is selected the predicate is changed in the setter for the list property). However, when I select a list item, nothing really happens. Nothing in the table view changes, it stays empty. I'm sure my logic is flawed in several places, advice is appreciated Thanks

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  • The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter

    - by ognjenb
    <%using (Html.BeginForm("OrderDevice", "ImportXML", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <table id="OrderDevices" class="data-table"> <tr> <th> DeviceId </th> <th> Id </th> <th> OrderId </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="DeviceId" type="text" name="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.DeviceId) %>" style="width: 61px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="c" type="text" name= "<%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" value=" <%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %>" style="width: 50px" /> </td> <td> <input readonly="readonly" class="" id="OrderId" type="text" name= " <%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(item.OrderId) %> " style="width: 49px" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <input type="submit" value="Create"/> <%} %> My controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult OrderDevice(int id) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here orderdevice ord = new orderdevice(); ord.Id = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["Id"]); ord.OrderId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["OrderId"]); ord.DeviceId = System.Convert.ToInt32(Request.Form["DeviceId"]); XMLEntities.AddToorderdevice(ord); XMLEntities.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View("Index"); } } When post a form I have this error: The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter 'id' of non-nullable type 'System.Int32' for method 'System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult OrderDevice(Int32)' in 'MvcKVteam.Controllers.ImportXMLController'. An optional parameter must be a reference type, a nullable type, or be declared as an optional parameter. Parameter name: parameters How fix it?

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  • WPF Focus In Tab Control Content When New Tab is Created

    - by Phil Sandler
    I've done a lot of searching on SO and google around this problem, but can't seem to find anything else to try. I have a MainView (window) that contains a tab control. The tab control binds to an ObservableCollection of ChildViews (user controls). The MainView's ViewModel has a method that allows adding to the collection of ChildViews, which then creates a new tab. When a new tab is created, it becomes the active tab, and this works fine. This method on the MainView is called from another ViewModel (OtherViewModel). What I am trying to do is set the keyboard focus to the first control on the tab (an AutoCompleteBox from WPFToolkit*) when a new tab is created. I also need to set the focus the same way, but WITHOUT creating a new tab (so set the focus on the currently active tab). (*Note that there seem to be some focus problems with the AutoCompleteBox--even if it does have focus you need to send a MoveNext() to it to get the cursor in its window. I have worked around this already). So here's the problem. The focusing works when I don't create a new tab, but it doesn't work when I do create a new tab. Both functions use the same method to set focus, but the create logic first calls the method that creates a new tab and sets it to active. Code that sets the focus (in the ChildView's Codebehind): IInputElement element1 = Keyboard.Focus(autoCompleteBox); //plus code to deal with AutoCompleteBox as noted. In either case, the Keyboard.FocusedElement starts out as the MainView. After a create, calling Keyboard.Focus seems to do nothing (focused element is still the MainView). Calling this without creating a tab correctly sets the keyboard focus to autoCompleteBox. Any ideas? Update: Bender's suggestion half-worked. So now in both cases, the focused element is correctly the AutoCompleteBox. What I then do is MoveNext(), which sets the focus to a TextBox. I have been assuming that this Textbox is internal to the AutoCompleteBox, as the focus was correctly set on screen when this happened. Now I'm not so sure. This is still the behavior I see when this code gets hit when NOT doing a create. After a create, MoveNext() sets the focus to an element back in my MainView. The problem must still be along the lines of Bender's answer, where the state of the controls is not the same depending on whether a new tab was created or not. Any other thoughts?

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