Search Results

Search found 38807 results on 1553 pages for 'foreach value'.

Page 530/1553 | < Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >

  • Single player 'pong' game

    - by Jam
    I am just starting out learning pygame and livewires, and I'm trying to make a single-player pong game, where you just hit the ball, and it bounces around until it passes your paddle (located on the left side of the screen and controlled by the mouse), which makes you lose. I have the basic code, but the ball doesn't stay on the screen, it just flickers and doesn't remain constant. Also, the paddle does not move with the mouse. I'm sure I'm missing something simple, but I just can't figure it out. Help please! Here's what I have: from livewires import games import random games.init(screen_width=640, screen_height=480, fps=50) class Paddle(games.Sprite): image=games.load_image("paddle.bmp") def __init__(self, x=10): super(Paddle, self).__init__(image=Paddle.image, y=games.mouse.y, left=10) self.score=games.Text(value=0, size=25, top=5, right=games.screen.width - 10) games.screen.add(self.score) def update(self): self.y=games.mouse.y if self.top<0: self.top=0 if self.bottom>games.screen.height: self.bottom=games.screen.height self.check_collide() def check_collide(self): for ball in self.overlapping_sprites: self.score.value+=1 ball.handle_collide() class Ball(games.Sprite): image=games.load_image("ball.bmp") speed=5 def __init__(self, x=90, y=90): super(Ball, self).__init__(image=Ball.image, x=x, y=y, dx=Ball.speed, dy=Ball.speed) def update(self): if self.right>games.screen.width: self.dx=-self.dx if self.bottom>games.screen.height or self.top<0: self.dy=-self.dy if self.left<0: self.end_game() self.destroy() def handle_collide(self): self.dx=-self.dx def end_game(self): end_message=games.Message(value="Game Over", size=90, x=games.screen.width/2, y=games.screen.height/2, lifetime=250, after_death=games.screen.quit) games.screen.add(end_message) def main(): background_image=games.load_image("background.bmp", transparent=False) games.screen.background=background_image paddle_image=games.load_image("paddle.bmp") the_paddle=games.Sprite(image=paddle_image, x=10, y=games.mouse.y) games.screen.add(the_paddle) ball_image=games.load_image("ball.bmp") the_ball=games.Sprite(image=ball_image, x=630, y=200, dx=2, dy=2) games.screen.add(the_ball) games.mouse.is_visible=False games.screen.event_grab=True games.screen.mainloop() main()

    Read the article

  • Crystal Reports Images not loading in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Ryan Shripat
    I'm using Crystal Reports in a Webform inside of an MVC application. Images in the reports are not being displayed, however, on both the ASP.NET Development Server and IIS 7 (on Win7x64). I know from a number of other questions similar to this that the CrystalImageHandler HTTP Handler is responsible for rendering the image, but I've tried all of the usual solutions to no avail. So far, I have Added the following to my appSettings (via http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg26882.html) <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-AutoStart" value="true" /> <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-Sleep" value="60000" /> <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-Age" value="120000" /> Added the following httpHandler to system.web/httpHandlers (via http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2253682/crystal-report-viewer-control-isnt-loading-the-images-inside-the-report) <add verb="GET" path="CrystalImageHandler.aspx" type="CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalImageHandler, CrystalDecisions.Web, Version=12.0.2000.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=692fbea5521e1304"/> Added the following to my Global.asax.cs (via http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2006011/crystal-reports-images-and-asp-net-mvc) routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.aspx/{*pathInfo}"); and routes.IgnoreRoute("CrystalImageHandler.aspx"); Any ideas as to why the images still 404?

    Read the article

  • Eigenvector computation using OpenCV

    - by Andriyev
    Hi I have this matrix A, representing similarities of pixel intensities of an image. For example: Consider a 10 x 10 image. Matrix A in this case would be of dimension 100 x 100, and element A(i,j) would have a value in the range 0 to 1, representing the similarity of pixel i to j in terms of intensity. I am using OpenCV for image processing and the development environment is C on Linux. Objective is to compute the Eigenvectors of matrix A and I have used the following approach: static CvMat mat, *eigenVec, *eigenVal; static double A[100][100]={}, Ain1D[10000]={}; int cnt=0; //Converting matrix A into a one dimensional array //Reason: That is how cvMat requires it for(i = 0;i < affnDim;i++){ for(j = 0;j < affnDim;j++){ Ain1D[cnt++] = A[i][j]; } } mat = cvMat(100, 100, CV_32FC1, Ain1D); cvEigenVV(&mat, eigenVec, eigenVal, 1e-300); for(i=0;i < 100;i++){ val1 = cvmGet(eigenVal,i,0); //Fetching Eigen Value for(j=0;j < 100;j++){ matX[i][j] = cvmGet(eigenVec,i,j); //Fetching each component of Eigenvector i } } Problem: After execution I get nearly all components of all the Eigenvectors to be zero. I tried different images and also tried populating A with random values between 0 and 1, but the same result. Few of the top eigenvalues returned look like the following: 9805401476911479666115491135488.000000 -9805401476911479666115491135488.000000 -89222871725331592641813413888.000000 89222862280598626902522986496.000000 5255391142666987110400.000000 I am now thinking on the lines of using cvSVD() which performs singular value decomposition of real floating-point matrix and might yield me the eigenvectors. But before that I thought of asking it here. Is there anything absurd in my current approach? Am I using the right API i.e. cvEigenVV() for the right input matrix (my matrix A is a floating point matrix)? cheers

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Html Helper Extensions and Rendering Their Required "include"s

    - by Jimbo
    I have build a custom Html Helper extension as follows: public static string DatePicker(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, string value) { return string.Format(@"<script type='text/javascript'> $(document).ready(function(){{ $('#{0}').datepicker({{ changeMonth: true, changeYear:true, dateFormat: 'd-M-yy', firstDay: 1, showButtonPanel: true, showWeek: true }}); }}); </script> <input type='text' name='{0}' id='{0}' value='{1}'>", name, value); } The problem is that this now requires the page to "include" the following: <script src="/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.ui.datepicker.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> And a few other items. The questions are as follows: Is there a serious processing overhead if I were to include these items in EVERY page (like in the Site.Master for example) thus negating the need for the HtmlHelper to organise the "includes" - considering there would end up being about 20 includes for all the different types of jQuery UI widgets used throughout the site. If the HtmlHelper sorts out the "includes", it will add one every time this DatePicker is used (often there are two on a page) Does anyone have a way of determining whether or not the user has already rendered the same type of control on the page, thus not re-including the same jquery libraries when multiple instances of the DatePicker (for example) are used?

    Read the article

  • WPF AutoCompleteBox with ability to add new values to list.

    - by WillH
    Hi, I would like to use autocompletebox with a list of values, but also add new values to the list if a user enters one that isn't present. I currently have a string property in my view model called 'Comment'. Currently this is bound to a textbox in the view - user types a comment and the view model is updated. Simple. To save time, my customer would like it to autocomplete from previous values, so the way I thought to do this is something like: ViewModel public string Comment; public ObservableCollection<string> CommentsList { ... } (populate the CommentsList when the viewmodel is created) View <AutoCompleteComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding CommentsList}" SelectedItem="{Binding Comment, Mode=TwoWay/> So when the user selects a value, it saves the value in the Comment property. This works fine if the user selects an item in the list, but if the user types in a new value, the comment property is not updated (it is null because the selected item was not in the list). Is this possible with autocompletebox? Thanks in advance, Will

    Read the article

  • Passing an array argument from Excel VBA to a WCF service

    - by PrgTrdr
    I'm trying to pass an array as an argument to my WCF service. To test this using Damian's sample code, I modified GetData it to try to pass an array of ints instead of a single int as an argument: using System; using System.ServiceModel; namespace WcfService1 { [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData(int[] value); [OperationContract] object[] GetSomeObjects(); } } using System; namespace WcfService1 { public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData(int[] value) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value[0]); } public object[] GetSomeObjects() { return new object[] { "String", 123, 44.55, DateTime.Now }; } } } Excel VBA code: Dim addr As String addr = "service:mexAddress=""net.tcp://localhost:7891/Test/WcfService1/Service1/Mex""," addr = addr + "address=""net.tcp://localhost:7891/Test/WcfService1/Service1/""," addr = addr + "contract=""IService1"", contractNamespace=""http://tempuri.org/""," addr = addr + "binding=""NetTcpBinding_IService1"", bindingNamespace=""http://tempuri.org/""" Dim service1 As Object Set service1 = GetObject(addr) Dim Sectors( 0 to 2 ) as Integer Sectors(0) = 10 MsgBox service1.GetData(Sectors) This code works fine with the WCF Test Client, but when I try to use it from Excel, I have this problem. When Excel gets to the service1.GetData call, it reports the following error: Run-time error '-2147467261 (80004003)' Automation error Invalid Pointer It looks like there is some incompatibility between the interface specification and the VBA call. Have you ever tried to pass an array from VBA into WCF? Am I doing something wrong or is this not supported using the Service moniker?

    Read the article

  • Need Sharepoint like modal pop-up window

    - by Srikanth
    I need to show Sharepoint 2010 like pop-up window when clicked on a link in grid view. Once the modal pop-up displayed and user selected the Save button data base should be updated with given values in pop-up. How can I get this. Any Idea. As of now I am using below code to get it but no idea how to pass the values to Database once clicked on the button in pop-up Note: As of now I am not adding the gridview code here as I wanted to achieve it first with sample html then wanted to do with grid view. Java Script function openDialog() { var options = { html: divModalDialogContent, // ID of the HTML tag // or HTML content to be displayed in modal dialog width: 600, height: 300, title: "My First Modal Dialog", dialogReturnValueCallback: dialogCallbackMethod, // custom callback function allowMaximize: true, showClose: true }; SP.UI.ModalDialog.showModalDialog(options); } //Results displayed if 'OK' or 'Cancel' button is clicked if the html content has 'OK' and 'Cancel' buttons function onDialogClose(dialogResult, returnValue) { if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.OK) { alert('Ok!'); } if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel) { alert('Cancel'); } } // Custom callback function after the dialog is closed function dialogCallbackMethod() { alert('Callback method of modal dialog!'); } HTML <div id="divModalDialogContent"> Hello World! <input type="button" value="OK"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.OK, 'Ok clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <input type="button" value="Cancel"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel, 'Cancel clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnClicked" Text="Clicked" onclick="btnClicked_Click" /> <input type="button" value="Open" onclick="openDialog()" /> How can I call db upon clicking 'clicked' button in pop-up. Also I need to send parameters to pop-up Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • nHibernate Mapping with Oracle Varchar2 Data Types

    - by Blake Blackwell
    I am new to nHibernate and having some issues getting over the learning curve. My current question involves passing a string value as a parameter to a stored sproc. The error I get is: Input string is not in correct format. My mapping file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" table="My_Table" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"></id> <property name="Name" column="Name" /> </class> <sql-query name="sp_GetTable" callable="true"> <query-param name="int_Id" type="int"/> <query-param name="vch_MyId" type="String"/> <return class="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" /> call procedure MYPKG.MYPROC(:int_Id,:vch_MyId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> When I debug nHibernate it looks like it is not an actual string value, but instead just an object value. Not sure about that though... EDIT: Adding additional code for clarification: UNIT Test List<ProcedureParameter> parms = new List<ProcedureParameter>(); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "int_Id", ParamValue = 1} ); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "vch_MyId", ParamValue = "{D18BED07-84AB-494F-A94F-6F894E284227}" } ); try { IList<MyTable> myTables = _context.GetAllByID<MyTable>( "sp_GetTable", parms ); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, myTables.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } Data Context Method IQuery query = _session.GetNamedQuery( queryName ); foreach( ProcedureParameter parm in parms ) { query.SetParameter(parm.ParamName, "'" + parm.ParamValue + "'"); } return query.List<T>(); Come to think of it, it may have something to do with my DataContext method.

    Read the article

  • Argument exception after trying to use TryGetObjectByKey

    - by Rickjaah
    Hi, EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone? I'm trying to retrieve an object from my database using entity (framework 4) When I use the following code it gives an ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added. if (databaseContext.TryGetObjectByKey(entityKey, out result)) { return (result != null && result is TEntityObject) ? result as TEntityObject : null; } else { return null; } When I check the objectContext, I see the entities, but only if I enumerate the specific list of entities manually using VS2010, it works. What am I missing? Do I have to do something else before i can get the item from the database? I searched google, but could not find any results, the same for the msdn library EDIT: Still working on this.... It's a weird problem. I retrieve a value, but get an error that says a duplicate item exists. STACKTRACE: [ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added.] System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) +52 System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) +9549131 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadRelationshipTypes() +661 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadTypesFromAssembly() +17 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAssemblyLoader.Load() +25 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.Load() +4 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, ObjectItemLoadingSessionData loadingData) +160 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, KnownAssembliesSet knownAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action1 logLoadMessage, Object& loaderCookie, Dictionary2& typesInLoading, List1& errors) +166 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.LoadAssemblyFromCache(ObjectItemCollection objectItemCollection, Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +316 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadAssemblyForType(Type type, Assembly callingAssembly) +306 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadFromEntityType(EntityType type, Assembly callingAssembly) +109 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.TryGetObjectByKey(EntityKey key, Object& value) +288 EDIT: Lazy loading is set to true. EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone?

    Read the article

  • Default Transaction Timeout

    - by MattH
    I used to set Transaction timeouts by using TransactionOptions.Timeout, but have decided for ease of maintenance to use the config approach: <system.transactions> <defaultSettings timeout="00:01:00" /> </system.transactions> Of course, after putting this in, I wanted to test it was working, so reduced the timeout to 5 seconds, then ran a test that lasted longer than this - but the transaction does not appear to abort! If I adjust the test to set TransactionOptions.Timeout to 5 seconds, the test works as expected After Investigating I think the problem appears to relate to TransactionOptions.Timeout, even though I'm no longer using it. I still need to use TransactionOptions so I can set IsolationLevel, but I no longer set the Timeout value, if I look at this object after I create it, the timeout value is 00:00:00, which equates to infinity. Does this mean my value set in the config file is being ignored? To summarise: Is it impossible to mix the config setting, and use of TransactionOptions If not, is there any way to extract the config setting at runtime, and use this to set the Timeout property [Edit] OR Set the default isolation-level without using TransactionOptions

    Read the article

  • UIWebView not loading URL when URL is passed from UITableView

    - by Mark Hazlett
    Hey Everyone, So i'm building a webView into my application to show the contents of a URL that I am passing from a selection in a UITableView. I know the UIWebView is loading content properly because if you hard code say http://www.google.ca into the NSURL then it loads fine, however when I'm passing the URL that I parsed from an RSS feed back from the UITableView it won't load the URL properly. I tried the debugger and the URL is coming out as nil right before I try and parse it, however I can use NSLog to print the value of it out to the console. here's the code in my UIViewController that has my UIWebView #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ReadFeedWebViewController : UIViewController { NSString *urlToGet; IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; } @property(nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *urlToGet; @end Here's the code for my implementation's viewDidLoad method... // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(@"Url inside Web View Controller - %@", urlToGet); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlToGet]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self.webView loadRequest:requestObj]; } Once again, I can print the URL to NSLog fine and if I hard code the URL into the NSURL object then it will load fine in the UIWebView. Here is where I'm setting the value in my UITableViewController... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ReadFeedWebViewController *extendedView = [[ReadFeedWebViewController alloc] init]; int storyIndex = [indexPath indexAtPosition: [indexPath length] - 1]; extendedView.urlToGet = [[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]; //NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"summary"]); NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]); [self.navigationController pushViewController:extendedView animated:YES]; [extendedView release]; } However, since I can print the value using NSLog in the extendedView view controller I know it's being passed properly. Cheers

    Read the article

  • How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

    - by Kevin J
    I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

    Read the article

  • Write XML using best way(Linq To XML or other)

    - by Pankaj
    Hello All I want to write my xml with following format. How can i do it?I am using c# <map borderColor='c5e5b8' fillColor='6a9057' numberSuffix=' Mill.' includeValueInLabels='0' labelSepChar=': ' baseFontSize='9' showFCMenuItem='0' hoverColor='c2bc23' showTitle='0' type='0' showCanvasBorder='0' bgAlpha='0,0' hoveronEmpty='1' includeNameInLabels='0' showLabels='1'> <!--toolText='Alaska'imageSave='1' imageSaveURL='Path/FusionChartsSave.aspx or FusionChartsSave.php'--> <data> <entity id='AL' value='AL' link="JavaScript:FilterClientProjectList('AL');" fontBold='1' showLabel='0' /> <entity id='AK' value='AK' link="JavaScript:FilterClientProjectList('AK');" fontBold='1' hoverColor='6a9057'/> <entity id='AZ' value='AZ' link="JavaScript:FilterClientProjectList('AZ');" fontBold='1'/> </data> <styles> <definition> <style name='MyFirstFontStyle' type='font' face='Verdana' size='11' color='0372AB' bold='1' bgColor='FFFFFF' /> </definition> <application> <apply toObject='Labels' styles='' /> </application> </styles> </map> Thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • Spring Test / JUnit problem - unable to load application context

    - by HDave
    I am using Spring for the first time and must be doing something wrong. I have a project with several Bean implementations and now I am trying to create a test class with Spring Test and JUnit. I am trying to use Spring Test to inject a customized bean into the test class. Here is my test-applicationContext.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="............."> <bean id="MyUuidFactory" class="com.myapp.UuidFactory" scope="singleton" > <property name="typeIdentifier" value="CLS" /> </bean> <bean id="ThingyImplTest" class="com.myapp.ThingyImplTest" scope="singleton"> <property name="uuidFactory"> <idref local="MyUuidFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> The injection of MyUuidFactory instance goes along with the following code from within the test class: private UuidFactory uuidFactory; public void setUuidFactory(UuidFactory uuidFactory) { this.uuidFactory = uuidFactory; } However, when I go to run the test (in Eclipse or command line) I get the following error (stack trace omitted for brevity): Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'MyImplTest' defined in class path resource [test-applicationContext.xml]: Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.ConversionNotSupportedException: Failed to convert property value of type 'java.lang.String' to required type 'com.myapp.UuidFactory' for property 'uuidFactory'; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [com.myapp.UuidFactory] for property 'uuidFactory': no matching editors or conversion strategy found Funny thing is, the Eclipse/Spring XML editor shows errors of I misspell any of the types or idrefs. If I leave the bean in, but comment out the dependency injection, everything work until I get a NullPointerException while running the test...which makes sense.

    Read the article

  • Paypal (sandbox) buy now link redirects to paypal (sandbox) login page instead of order summary

    - by Nicolas
    Hi, Before going live I try to test the paypal process against the paypal sandbox mode, but after the summary of what the user is going to pay on my website(buy now button), the link does not redirect to a paypal summary of the prder but ask the user to connect to paypal. Even after logging into the buyer sandbox account there's no summary of the order. It just disappears. Here's is the code I use on the checkout page: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_s-xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="hosted_button_id" value="XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"> <input type="hidden" name="notify_url" value="http://www.website.com/paypal/"> <div class="suggestion"> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_GB/i/btn/btn_paynowCC_LG.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online!"> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </div> </form> Any idea why it redirects to the payapl login page instead of the order one? Btw I'm using the Website Basic Payment (not PRO then). Cheers, Nicolas.

    Read the article

  • Custom xsl rendering for lookup field in list view (SharePoint 2010)

    - by Luc
    I'm trying to change rendering of a list column on list view page. After a few tutorials and some hair pulling I managed to create an xslt for a calculated and currency field (from fldtypes_XXXXXX.xsl): <xsl:template match ="FieldRef[@Name='MarkCalc']" mode="Text_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <xsl:value-of select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" disable-output-escaping ="yes"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="FieldRef[@Name='CurrencyTest']" mode="Number_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <b><xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" /></b> </xsl:template> Then I tried to do the same for a lookup field, but it just won't work. This is my last attempt (I copied it from SharePoint designer). What am I missing? <xsl:template match="FieldRef[(@Encoded) and @Name='Lookup1']" mode="Lookup_body"> <xsl:param name="thisNode" select="."/> <b><xsl:value-of select="$thisNode/@*[name()=current()/@Name]" disable-output-escaping="yes" /></b> </xsl:template>

    Read the article

  • How can I create a generaic ValidationAttribute in C#?

    - by sabbour
    I'm trying to create a UniqueAttribute using the System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute I want this to be generic as in I could pass the Linq DataContext, the table name, the field and validate if the incoming value is unique or not. Here is a non-compilable code fragment that I'm stuck at right now: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Data.Linq; using System.ComponentModel; namespace LinkDev.Innovation.Miscellaneous.Validation.Attributes { public class UniqueAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public string Field { get; set; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { string str = (string)value; if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(str)) return true; // this is where I'm stuck return (!Table.Where(entity => entity.Field.Equals(str)).Any()); } } } I should be using this in my model as follows: [Required] [StringLength(10)] [Unique(new DataContext(),"Groups","name")] public string name { get; set; }

    Read the article

  • Using JBoss EL with Websphere

    - by rat
    Hey, I'm doing a project which is going to run on Websphere. I'm using JSF/Facelets/Richfaces for this project. I want to use the JBoss EL implementation as it allows calling methods with parameters from EL etc. ... usually this is accomplished by getting the JBoss EL jar and then putting this in the web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>com.sun.faces.expressionFactory</param-name> <param-value>org.jboss.el.ExpressionFactoryImpl</param-value> </context-param> However this isn't working ... I don't know if its a problem with Websphere or ...??? I get a stack trace when going to the page saying it can't parse the EL where I have passed a method a parameter: <a4j:commandLink value="Delete" action="#{mcsaAdmin.deleteLanguage(1234)}" /> Looking at the stacktrace it appears to still be using the standard sun EL: Caused by: javax.el.ELException: Error Parsing: #{mcsaAdmin.deleteLanguage(1234)} at com.sun.el.lang.ExpressionBuilder.createNodeInternal(Unknown Source) at com.sun.el.lang.ExpressionBuilder.build(Unknown Source) at com.sun.el.lang.ExpressionBuilder.createMethodExpression(Unknown Source) at com.sun.el.ExpressionFactoryImpl.createMethodExpression(Unknown Source) at com.sun.facelets.tag.TagAttribute.getMethodExpression(TagAttribute.java:141) Note the 'com.sun.el.ExpressionFactoryImpl' instead of 'org.jboss.el.ExpressionFactoryImpl' as specified above ... Am I doing something obviously wrong? Anyone have any ideas... I'm using standard JSF implementation from majorra project or whatever provided on sun website and richfaces 3.1.4 and facelets 1.1.14.

    Read the article

  • Android - Launch Intent within ExpandableListView

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I'm trying to figure out if it is possible to launch an intent within an ExpandableListView. Basically one of the "Groups" is Phone Number and it's child is the number. I want the user to be able to click it and have it automatically call that number. Is this possible? How? Here is my code to populate the ExpandableListView using a Map called "data". ExpandableListView myList = (ExpandableListView) findViewById(R.id.myList); //ExpandableListAdapter adapter = new MyExpandableListAdapter(data); List<Map<String, String>> groupData = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); List<List<Map<String, String>>> childData = new ArrayList<List<Map<String, String>>>(); Iterator it = data.entrySet().iterator(); while (it.hasNext()) { //Get the key name and value for it Map.Entry pair = (Map.Entry)it.next(); String keyName = (String) pair.getKey(); String value = pair.getValue().toString(); //Add the parents -- aka main categories Map<String, String> curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, String>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put("NAME", keyName); //Add the child data List<Map<String, String>> children = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); Map<String, String> curChildMap = new HashMap<String, String>(); children.add(curChildMap); curChildMap.put("NAME", value); childData.add(children); } // Set up our adapter mAdapter = new SimpleExpandableListAdapter( mContext, groupData, R.layout.exp_list_parent, new String[] { "NAME", "IS_EVEN" }, new int[] { R.id.rowText1, R.id.rowText2 }, childData, R.layout.exp_list_child, new String[] { "NAME", "IS_EVEN" }, new int[] { R.id.rowText3, R.id.rowText4} ); myList.setAdapter(mAdapter);

    Read the article

  • How can I pass an arbitrary object to jasper report as parameter?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I would like to pass as a parameter to my .jrxml an arbitrary object of my domain, e.g a Person. InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Person> parameters = new HashMap<String, Person>(); parameters.put("person", new Person("John", "Doe")); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JREmptyDataSource()); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); And on the .jrxml do something like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jasperReport xmlns="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/jasperreports http://jasperreports.sourceforge.net/xsd/jasperreport.xsd" name="test" pageWidth="595" pageHeight="842" columnWidth="555" leftMargin="20" rightMargin="20" topMargin="20" bottomMargin="20"> <property name="ireport.zoom" value="1.0"/> <property name="ireport.x" value="0"/> <property name="ireport.y" value="0"/> <parameter name="PERSON" isForPrompting="false" class="myApp.domain.person"/> <background> <band splitType="Stretch"/> </background> <title> <band height="20"> <staticText> <reportElement x="180" y="0" width="200" height="20"/> <text><![CDATA[$P{PERSON.lastName}]]></text> </staticText> </band> </title> ... Is something like this possible? Where can I find more complex tutorials that show more than just passing a java.lang.String? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to invoke WPF Dispatcher in Nunit?

    - by Reporting Avatar
    I want to test an application which renders a text block with a data field value. I would like to get the actual width and actual height, once the rendering completes. Everything works fine. The problem came first, when I tried to test the application. I'm unable to invoke the dispatcher from the test project. Following is the code. this.Loaded += (s, e) => { TextBlock textBlock1 = new TextBlock(); //// Text block value is assigned from data base field. textBlock1.Text = strValueFromDataBaseField; //// Setting the wrap behavior. textBlock1.TextWrapping = TextWrapping.WrapWithOverflow; //// Adding the text block to the layout canvas. this.layoutCanvas.Children.Add(textBlock1); this.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(DispatcherPriority.Background, (Action)(() => { //// After rendering the text block with the data base field value. Measuring the actual width and height. this.TextBlockActualWidth = textBlock1.ActualWidth; this.TextBlockActualHeight = textBlock1.ActualHeight; //// Other calculations based on the actual widht and actual height. } )); }; I've just started using the NUnit. So, please help me. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do you handle 'SelectedItemChanged' events in a MVVM ViewModel?

    - by Travis
    I have some logic that depends upon two properties being set, as it executes when both properties have a value. For example: private void DoCalc() { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property2)) return; Property3 = Property1 + " " + Property2; } That code would need to be executed every time Property1 or Property2 changed, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it in a stylistically acceptable manner. Here are the choices as I see them: 1) Call method from ViewModel I don't have a problem with this conceptually, as the logic is still in the ViewModel - I'm not a 'No code-behind' nazi. However, the 'trigger' logic (when either property changes) is still in the UI layer, which I don't love. The codebehind would look like this: void ComboBox_Property1_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.DoCalc(); } 2) Call method from Property Setter This approach seems the most 'pure', but it also seems ugly, as if the logic is hidden. It would look like this: public string Property1 { get {return property1;} set { if (property1 != value) { property1 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("Property1"); DoCalc(); } } } 3) Hook into the PropertyChanged event I'm now thinking this might be the right approach, but it feels weird to hook into the property changed event in the implementing viewmodel. It would look something like this: public ViewModel() { this.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(ViewModel_PropertyChanged); } void ViewModel_PropertyChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.PropertyName == "Property1" || e.PropertyName == "Property2") { DoCalc(); } } So, my question is, if you were browsing through some source code with that requirement, which approach would you prefer to see implemented (and why?). Thanks for any input.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate DuplicateMappingException when mapping abstract class and subclass

    - by stiank81
    I have an abstract class, and subclasses of this, and I want to map this to my database using NHibernate. I'm using Fluent, and read on the wiki how to do the mapping. But when I add the mapping of the subclass an NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException is thrown when it is mapping. Why? Here are my (simplified) classes: public abstract class FieldValue { public int Id { get; set; } public abstract object Value { get; set; } } public class StringFieldValue : FieldValue { public string ValueAsString { get; set; } public override object Value { get { return ValueAsString; } set { ValueAsString = (string)value; } } } And the mappings: public class FieldValueMapping : ClassMap<FieldValue> { public FieldValueMapping() { Id(m => m.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1"); // DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("type"); } } public class StringValueMapping : SubclassMap<StringFieldValue> { public StringValueMapping() { Map(m => m.ValueAsString).Length(100); } } And the exception: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping NamespacePath.StringFieldValue Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Adding new record to a VFP data table in VB.NET with ADO recordsets

    - by Gerry
    I am trying to add a new record to a Visual FoxPro data table using an ADO dataset with no luck. The code runs fine with no exceptions but when I check the dbf after the fact there is no new record. The mDataPath variable shown in the code snippet is the path to the .dbc file for the entire database. A note about the For loop at the bottom; I am adding the body of incoming emails to this MEMO field so thought I needed to break the addition of this string into 256 character Chunks. Any guidance would be greatly appreciated. cnn1.Open("Driver={Microsoft Visual FoxPro Driver};" & _ "SourceType=DBC;" & _ "SourceDB=" & mDataPath & ";Exclusive=No") Dim RS As ADODB.RecordsetS = New ADODB.Recordset RS.Open("select * from gennote", cnn1, 1, 3, 1) RS.AddNew() 'Assign values to the first three fields RS.Fields("ignnoteid").Value = NextIDI RS.Fields("cnotetitle").Value = "'" & mail.Subject & "'" RS.Fields("cfilename").Value = "''" 'Looping through 254 characters at a time and add the data 'to Ado Field buffer For i As Integer = 1 To Len(memo) Step liChunkSize liStartAt = i liWorkString = Mid(mail.Body, liStartAt, liChunkSize) RS.Fields("mnote").AppendChunk(liWorkString) Next 'Update the recordset RS.Update() RS.Requery() RS.Close()

    Read the article

  • RadAjaxManager - how Exclude Ajaxifing -- UPDATED -- Controls?????

    - by LostLord
    hi my dear friends : my ASPX code is like this : <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="AjaxManager.aspx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication1.AjaxManager" %> <%@ Register Assembly="Telerik.Web.UI" Namespace="Telerik.Web.UI" TagPrefix="telerik" % onselectedindexchanged="RadComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged" Value="RadComboBoxItem1" / Value="RadComboBoxItem2" / Value="RadComboBoxItem3" / oncheckedchanged="CheckBox1_CheckedChanged" / my c# - code behind code is like this : using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class AjaxManager : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void CheckBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CheckBox1.Checked == true) { Response.Write("Hello Teleik! - This Is True Of CheckBox"); } if (CheckBox1.Checked == false) { Response.Write("Hello Teleik! - This Is false Of CheckBox"); } } protected void RadComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object o, Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBoxSelectedIndexChangedEventArgs e) { if (RadComboBox1.SelectedIndex == 0) { CheckBox1.Checked = true; } if (RadComboBox1.SelectedIndex == 1) { CheckBox1.Checked = false; } if (RadComboBox1.SelectedIndex == 2) { CheckBox1.Checked = true; } } } } at now my CheckBox1 CheckChanged Not work... when i click on checkbox1 it disappears or nothing happens... how can i Force CheckBox1 CheckChanged To Work? thanks for attention

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >