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  • Linker flags for one library break loading of another

    - by trevrosen
    I'm trying to use FMOD and HTTPriot in the same app. FMOD works fine until I add in linker flags for HTTPriot, at which point I get a bunch of linking errors wherein FMOD is complaining about undefined symbols. In other words, adding in linker flags for HTTPriot seems to break the loading of FMOD's library. These are the kinds of errors I'm getting, all coming during the linking phase of my build: Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_Sound_Lock", referenced from: -[FMODEngine recordedSoundAsNSData] in FMODEngine.o -[FMODEngine writeRecordingToDiskWithName:] in FMODEngine.o "_FMOD_MusicSystem_PrepareCue", referenced from: -[FMODEngine addCue:] in FMODEngine.o These are the linker flags for HTTPriot: -lhttpriot -lxml2 -ObjC -all_load I added those as well as a path to the HTTPriot SDK per the instructions here: http://labratrevenge.com/httpriot/docs/iphone-setup.html I was hoping someone could enlighten me on why adding linker flags for one library might cause a failure of another to load. If I DON'T have these flags in, HTTPriot and FMOD both work fine on the simulator, but HTTPriot has runtime errors on the device, I assume because its libraries are not linked. FMOD works fine on the device though. I placed header search paths and library search paths in my build settings in order for XCode to find FMOD. That seemed to be OK until I tried adding these HTTPriot linker flags. I also tried adding a linker flag for the FMOD library (-lfmodex), but I get the same errors as I do without it.

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • Converting FoxPro Date type to SQL Server 2005 DateTime using SSIS

    - by Avrom
    Hi, When using SSIS in SQL Server 2005 to convert a FoxPro database to a SQL Server database, if the given FoxPro database has a date type, SSIS assumes it is an integer type. The only way to convert it to a dateTime type is to manually select this type. However, that is not practical to do for over 100 tables. Thus, I have been using a workaround in which I use DTS on SQL Server 2000 which converts it to a smallDateTime, then make a backup, then a restore into SQL Server 2005. This workaround is starting to be a little annoying. So, my question is: Is there anyway to setup SSIS so that whenever it encounters a date type to automatically assume it should be converted to a dateTime in SQL Server and apply that rule across the board? Update To be specific, if I use the import/export wizard in SSIS, I get the following error: Column information for the source and the destination data could not be retrieved, or the data types of source columns were not mapped correctly to those available on the destination provider. Followed by a list of a given table's date columns. If I manually set each one to a dateTime, it imports fine. But I do not wish to do this for a hundred tables.

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  • Jquery Using Jeditable and activating on click

    - by BandonRandon
    I found this to be almost exactly what I'm trying to do. I'm using Jeditable I can get the default setup to work. I've also been able to get the code in the forum above to work. I believe my problem is that because I'm using a table I need to so something else to select the previous element. Here is my HTML <table> <tr> <td width="5%"><input class="cat_checkbox" type="checkbox" name='delete_cat[]' value='<?php echo("$cat_data[cat_id]");?>' /></td> <td width="90%" class="edit_cat_title" id='unique_id'>Category</td> <td width="5%"><a href="#" class="edit_cat_title_trigger"><img src="images/edit.gif" border="0"></a></td> </tr> </table> and here is my JQuery: //modify title content on the fly $('.edit_cat_title').editable('action.php', { name : 'cat_title', indicator : 'Saving...', submit : 'OK', cancel : 'Cancel', tooltip:'click to edit', event : 'edit' }); //trigger with the click of the edit image $(".edit_cat_title_trigger").bind("click", function() { $(this).prev().trigger("edit_cat_title"); }); I know I probably should be able to figure it out and I know all i have to do is change $(this).prev().trigger("edit_cat_title"); to the right thing but I'm still really new to Jquery. Thanks

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  • Suitable ESXi Spec

    - by Canacourse
    Finally I have some money to buy a new server and replace the one I have been using for 10 years. Im thinking of running ESXi on the new server. And intend to use it as follows; One W2008 R2 Guest running Exchange, File store, SVN and an accounting application for day to day running of the company. Multiple Guest VMs W2K, XP, Vista & WIN7 that were setup for testing in-house & real customer images also for testing. Probably Two Server Guest Os's W2003 & W2008 running at the same time again for testing. One Guest VM for builds & Continuous integration. Possibly one Guest running W220R2 for a customer website (Portal) This server will have to last another 10 years so I want to get the spec right. Althought I am clear on the memory and disk requirments I am not so clear on the processor(s). Im thinking of 2 Quadcore processors but welcome advice on this. Proposed Spec 10GB Ram 2TB Sata Drives (Hardware Raid 1) 2 Processors (TBC) Normally 3 Server VM's will running concurrently and the other VMs will be started as required. Max expected VMs running about 7. Max users = 4. TIA..

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  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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  • Steps to Investigate Cause of Web.Config Duplicate Section

    - by pauly
    Symptoms In IIS Dot Net 2.0 Integrated app pool: double clicking to view any web.config section results in a the following error dialog. "There was an error while performing this operation.... Fielname... web.config... Error: There is a duplicate..." Browsing to the URL displays: "Http 500.19" internal server error.. There is a duplicate... 'system.web.extensions/scripting/scriptResourceHandler' section defined...." Running the app from VS 2008 an "Unable to start debugging on the web server..." dialog is displayed. Things Tried Looked at other application directories on same IIS server. No problem view web.config contents or serving up the app. Removed and re-added the application in IIS. Checked out a new version of the source code. Reverted to prior versions of the web.config file. Looked for web.config files that might have duplicate sections in: Inetpub root. "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config" The "Views" subfolder of the ASP.Net MVC app. Checked out source code to another dev machine. Setup IIS 7 app folder. No problem with Web.config. Question If the reason for this error is another web.config file where else should I look? Are there other reasons for these symptoms?

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  • How can I start using twill?

    - by brilliant
    I am sorry I have already asked this question on "Superuser", but nobody answers there, so I deleted it from "Superuser" and decided to post it here. Hope it's not a big crime, especially given the fact that I was firstly advised to use twill here on "StackOverflow" (not on "SuperUser") How do I start using twill? I have just downloaded it, unpacked it and clicked on the setup .py file in the folder. The black window (terminal) appeared for a moment and vanished. (I do have Python 2.5 installed on my computer - along with SDK from Google App Engine) In the twill documentation section it says: Downloading twill The latest release of twill is twill 0.9, released Thursday, December 27th, 2007; it is available for download at http://darcs.idyll.org/~t/projects/twill-0.9.tar.gz. You can also use Python's easy_install to install or upgrade twill. twill works with Python 2.3 or later. To start using twill, install it and then type twill-sh. At the prompt type: go http://www.slashdot.org/ show showforms showhistory I am not clear from this passage what I am supposed to type (only "twill-sh" or "twill-sh" and all the words under that line) and where (I tried typing it in the command prompt window of my computer - to no avail) Can, anyone, please, help me out here? Thank You in advance.

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  • What should be the "trunk" development, or release

    - by Nix
    I have the unfortunate opportunity of source control via Borland's StarTeam. It unfortunately does very few things well, and one supreme weakness is its view management. I love SVN and come from an SVN mindset. Our issue is post production release we are spending countless hours merging changes into a "production support" environment. Please do not harass me this was not my doing, I inherited it and am trying to present a better way of managing the repository. It is not an option to switch to a different SCM tool. Current setup Product.1.0 (TRUNK, current production code, and at this level are pending bug fixes) Product.2.0(true trunk anything checked in gets tested, and then released next production cycle, a lot of changes occur in this view) My proposal is going to be to swap them, have all development be done on the trunk (Production), tag on releases, and as needed create child views to represent production support bug fixes. Production Production.2.0.SP.1 I can not find any documentation to support the above proposal so I am trying to get feedback on whether or not the change is a good idea and if there is anything you would recommend doing differently.

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  • Is it possible to run PHPUnit with a dynamically loaded extension library?

    - by therefromhere
    I have a suite of PHPUnit tests for my extension, and I want to run them as part of the extension's Hudson build process. So I want to run PHPUnit specifying the extension library to load at runtime, but I can't figure out how to do this. My directory structure is as follows: /myextension.c /otherextensionfiles.* /modules/myextension.so /tests/unittests.php I've tried running PHPUnit with an configuration XML file as follows: <phpunit> <php> <ini name="extension_dir" value="../modules/"/> <ini name="extension" value="myextension.so"/> </php> </phpunit> And then running it as follows (from the tests directory): phpunit --configuration config.xml unittests.php But then I get Fatal error: Call to undefined function myfunction(), so it's not loading the library. I've also tried: phpunit -d extension_dir=../modules/ -d extension=myextension.so unittests.php And also dl('myextension.so') to the test setup, but no joy. If it's relevant, this is using PHP 5.2 and PHPUnit 3.4.11.

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  • C# debugging issue: No symbols are loaded for any call stack frame.

    - by Ciaran Bruen
    Hi - I'm trying to step into a method referenced in an external dll from a C# web service dll. I'm developing the web service code and can step into it from my Winforms app. The dll I'm trying to step into from the web service was developed by someone else, and I have the dll and pdb files. When I try to step into it I'm getting the message below: 'No symbols are loaded for any call stack frame. The source code cannot be displayed'. Here is my project setup: .NET 3.5, VS 2008 Professional, IIS 7 running on Vista Ultimate Winforms app WF1.exe, referencing web service dll WS1.dll, in 1 solution on my machine Database access dll DA1.dll compiled by another developer, referenced by WS1.dll DA1.dll and DA1.pdb files located in root directory of WS1 web service project WS1 web service compiled and published to my local IIS, DA1.dll and DA1.pdb files get copied to the IIS WS1 bin directory So far so good and everything works to a point. I break and step into WF1.exe then break and step into a method on WS1.dll no problems. However when I try to step into a method on DA1.dll the error occurs. Any help appreciated. Cheers, Ciaran

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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  • Problem with RVM and gem that has an executable

    - by djhworld
    Hi there, I've recently made the plunge to use RVM on Ubuntu. Everything seems to have gone swimmingly...except for one thing. I'm in the process of developing a gem of mine that has a script placed within its own bin/ directory, all of the gemspec and things were generated by Jeweler. The bin/mygem file contains the following code: - #!/usr/bin/env ruby begin require 'mygem' rescue LoadError require 'rubygems' require 'mygem' end app = MyGem::Application.new app.run That was working fine on the system version of Ruby. Now...recently I've moved to RVM to manage my ruby versions a bit better, except now my gem doesn't appear to be working. Firstly I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 Then I do this: - rvm 1.9.2 gem install mygem Which installs fine, except...when I try to run the command for mygem mygem I just get the following exception: - daniel@daniel-VirtualBox:~$ mygem <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- mygem (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/mygem-0.1.4/bin/mygem:2:in `<top (required)>' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `load' from /home/daniel/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/mygem:19:in `<main>'mygem NOTE: I have a similar RVM setup on MAC OSX and my gem works fine there so I think this might be something to do with Ubuntu?

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  • F#, Linux and makefiles

    - by rwallace
    I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

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  • How to get debugging of an App Engine application working?

    - by Chris Lacy
    I've got 10+ years in C/C++, and it appears Visual Studio has spoilt me during that time. In Visual Studio, debbuging issimple: I just add a breakpoint to a line of code, and as soon as that code is executed, my breakpoint triggers, at which point I can view a callstack, local/member variables, etc. I'm trying to achieve this functionality under App Engine. I assume that is possible? All the searching I've done to this point has led me to using Pydev in Eclipse. As best I can tell, I am successfully launching my simple 'hello world' program in Debug mode. But the IDE doesn't even seem to have an option to set a breakpoint? I must be missing something. I've googled long and hard about this, but am having no luck. Most results trace back to the same old threads that don't deal directly with my issue. Can anyone shed some light on how you get basic debugging setup using Pydev/Eclipse with App Engine? Alternatively, if there's an easier way to debug App Engine than using Pydev/Eclipse, I'd love to hear about it. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • Best practices for managing updating a database with a complex set of changes

    - by Sarge
    I am writing an application where I have some publicly available information in a database which I want the users to be able to edit. The information is not textual like a wiki but is similar in concept because the edits bring the public information increasingly closer to the truth. The changes will affect multiple tables and the update needs to be automatically checked before affecting the public tables. I'm working on the design and I'm wondering if there are any best practices that might help with some particular issues. I want to provide undo capability. I want to show the user the combined result of all their changes. When the user says they're done, I need to check the underlying public data to make sure it hasn't been changed by somebody else. My current plan is to have the user work in a set of tables setup to be a private working area. Once they're ready they can kick off a process to check everything and update the public tables. Undo can be recorded using Command pattern saving to a table. Are there any techniques I might have missed or useful papers or patterns? Thanks in advance!

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  • Android animation's first frame is applied too early on ImageView

    - by Robert
    I have the following View setup in one of my Activities: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/photoLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/photoImageView" android:src="@drawable/backyardPhoto" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:scaleType="centerInside" android:padding="45dip" > </ImageView> </LinearLayout> Without an animation set, this displays just fine. However I want to display a very simple animation. So in my Activity's onStart override, I have the following: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); mPhotoImageView = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.photoImageView); float offset = -25; int top = mPhotoImageView.getTop(); TranslateAnimation anim1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset); anim1.setInterpolator(new AnticipateInterpolator()); anim1.setDuration(1500); anim1.setStartOffset(5000); TranslateAnimation anim2 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, 0, Animation.ABSOLUTE, offset, Animation.ABSOLUTE, top); anim2.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator()); anim2.setDuration(3500); anim2.setStartOffset(6500); mBouncingAnimation = new AnimationSet(false); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim1); mBouncingAnimation.addAnimation(anim2); mPhotoImageView.setAnimation(mBouncingAnimation); } The problem is that when the Activity displays for the first time, the initial position of the photo is not in the center of the screen with padding around. It seems like the first frame of the animation is loaded already. Only after the animation is completed, does the photoImageView "snap" back to the intended location. I've looked and looked and could not find how to avoid this problem. I want the photoImageView to start in the center of the screen, and then the animation to happen, and return it to the center of the screen. The animation should happen by itself without interaction from the user.

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  • How to access SQL CE 3.5 from VB6

    - by Masterfu
    We have a .NET 3.5 SP1 application written in C# that stores data in an SQL CE 3.5 Database. We also need to access (read only) this very data from a legacy VB6 application. I don't know if this is at all possible. There are several approaches to this problem that I can think of. 1) I have read about ADOCE Connections, but this seems to be an option for embedded Visual Basic only 2) I can't seem to get a connection working using ADODB.Connection Objects like so Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.CE.OLEDB.3.5 ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.MOBILE.OLEDB.3.0 MyConnObj.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=c:\test.sdf" MyConnObj.Open Maybe this is just a bad choice of providers? I also tried the providers that appear as comments above and different connection strings, but to no avail. Both providers are not installed on my dev machine and won't be installed on my customer's machine. 3) Maybe there is a way to use a more generic approach like ODBC? But I believe this would result in setup / deployment work, right? Does anyone have any experience with this scenario? As you can see, I am really looking for some good starting points. I also accept answers like "This is drop dead simple and so are you" as long as they come with some guiding directions ;-)

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  • What is the best way to extend restful_authentication/AuthLogic to support lazy logins by an anonymo

    - by Kevin Elliott
    I'm building an iPhone application that talks to a Ruby on Rails backend. The Ruby on Rails application will also service web users. The restful_authentication plugin is an excellent way to provide quick and customizable user authentication. However, I would like users of the iPhone application to have an account created automatically by the phone's unique identifier ([[UIDevice device] uniqueIdentifier]) stored in a new column. Later, when users are ready to create a username/password, the account will be updated to contain the username and password, leaving the iPhone unique identifier intact. Users should not be able to access the website until they've setup their username/password. They can however, use the iPhone application, since the application can authenticate itself using it's identifier. What is the best way to modify restful_authentication to do this? Create a plugin? Or modify the generated code? What about alternative frameworks, such as AuthLogic. What is the best way to allow iPhones to get a generated auth token locked to their UUID's, but then let the user create a username/password later?

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  • Preserving SCRIPT tags (and more) in CKEditor

    - by Jonathan Sampson
    Update: I'm thinking the solution to this problem is in CKEDITOR.config.protectedSource(), but my regular-expression experience is proving to be too juvenile to handle this issue. How would I go about exempting all tags that contain the 'preserved' class from being touched by CKEditor? Is it possible to create a block of code within the CKEditor that will not be touched by the editor itself, and will be maintained in its intended-state until explicitly changed by the user? I've been attempting to input javascript variables (bound in script tags) and a flash movie following, but CKEditor continues to rewrite my pasted code/markup, and in doing so breaking my code. I'm working with the following setup: <script type="text/javascript"> var editor = CKEDITOR.replace("content", { height : "500px", width : "680px", resize_maxWidth : "680px", resize_minWidth : "680px", toolbar : [ ['Source','-','Save','Preview'], ['Cut','Copy','Paste','PasteText','PasteFromWord','-','Print', 'SpellChecker', 'Scayt'], ['Undo','Redo','-','Find','Replace','-','SelectAll','RemoveFormat'], ['Bold','Italic','Underline','Strike','-','Subscript','Superscript'], ['NumberedList','BulletedList','-','Outdent','Indent','Blockquote'], ['JustifyLeft','JustifyCenter','JustifyRight','JustifyBlock'], ['Link','Unlink','Anchor'], ['Image','Table','HorizontalRule','SpecialChar'] ] }); CKFinder.SetupCKEditor( editor, "<?php print url::base(); ?>assets/ckfinder" ); </script> UPDATE: I suppose the most ideal solution would be to preserve the contents of any tag that contains class="preserve" enabling much more than the limited exclusives.

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  • How to organize integrity tests and code unit tests?

    - by karlthorwald
    I have several files with code testing code (which uses a "unittest" class). Later I found it would be nice to test database integrity also. I put this into a separate directory tree. (Things like the keys have correct format, parent and child nodes are pointing correctly and such.) I use the same unittest class for the integrity tests. Now I wonder if it makes really sense to keep this separate. To test the integrity of data I often duplicate parts of code that I use to test the code that handles the data. But it is not the same. The code tests use test databases (that get deleted after each test) and the integrity tests connect to the live data and analyze it. The integrity tests I want to call from cron and send an alarm if something happens in the live database. How would you handle that? Are there standards for such a setup? What is your experience? My tendency is to put everything in the same file, which would result in the code tests also being executed by the cron on the production environment.

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  • WIKI replacement solution for SharePoint?

    - by Jakub
    I'm trying to research a replacement for the pathetic WIKI that comes with WSS (only wiki code it has is to create url links). I have looked at a few but most 'replacements' I see are MOSS only? (or so it just states MOSS for requirements). Has anyone faced this situation? What did you end up using? I would like something that I can have all in one location (not different apps, hence WSS). With LDAP / AD Integration like WSS. Thanks appreciate any input. I would like to see ~ $3k solutions tho (nothing super expensive, hence why we don't run MOSS). EDIT: Anyone else have any suggestions? EDIT2: Actually since I haven't had much feedback (thanks to those that have). I installed mediawiki under IIS with PHP enabled, and enabled the IIS AD hack for authentication. IIS ends up prompting for authentication (user/pass) if you use a non IE browser, then it sets the $_SERVER["REMOTE_USER"] variable, and grabs some AD info (groups etc). Works rather well, only issues is the UGLY urls so far. But its fully working. Seems like a good setup. Other than having to rely on MYSQL (my company strives to be mainly SQL Server)

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  • Intel Assembly Programming

    - by Kay
    class MyString{ char buf[100]; int len; boolean append(MyString str){ int k; if(this.len + str.len>100){ for(k=0; k<str.len; k++){ this.buf[this.len] = str.buf[k]; this.len ++; } return false; } return true; } } Does the above translate to: start: push ebp ; save calling ebp mov ebp, esp ; setup new ebp push esi ; push ebx ; mov esi, [ebp + 8] ; esi = 'this' mov ebx, [ebp + 14] ; ebx = str mov ecx, 0 ; k=0 mov edx, [esi + 200] ; edx = this.len append: cmp edx + [ebx + 200], 100 jle ret_true ; if (this.len + str.len)<= 100 then ret_true cmp ecx, edx jge ret_false ; if k >= str.len then ret_false mov [esi + edx], [ebx + 2*ecx] ; this.buf[this.len] = str.buf[k] inc edx ; this.len++ aux: inc ecx ; k++ jmp append ret_true: pop ebx ; restore ebx pop esi ; restore esi pop ebp ; restore ebp ret true ret_false: pop ebx ; restore ebx pop esi ; restore esi pop ebp ; restore ebp ret false My greatest difficulty here is figuring out what to push onto the stack and the math for pointers. NOTE: I'm not allowed to use global variables and i must assume 32-bit ints, 16-bit chars and 8-bit booleans.

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  • Using a Javascript Variable & Sending to JSON

    - by D Franks
    Hello all! I'm trying to take a URL's hash value, send it through a function, turn that value into an object, but ultimately send the value to JSON. I have the following setup: function content(cur){ var mycur = $H(cur); var pars = "p="+mycur.toJSON(); new Ajax.Updater('my_box', 'test.php', { parameters: pars }); } function update(){ if(window.location.hash.length > 0){ content(window.location.hash.substr(1)); // Everything after the '#' } } var curHashVal = window.location.hash; window.onload = function(){ setInterval(function(){ if(curHashVal != window.location.hash){ update(); curHashVal = window.location.hash; } },1); } But for some reason, I can't seem to get the right JSON output. It will either return as a very large object (1:"{",2:"k") or not return at all. I doubt that it is impossible to accomplish, but I've exhausted most of the ways I can think of. Other ways I've tried were "{" + cur + "}" as well as cur.toObject(), however, none seemed to get the job done. Thanks for the help!

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