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  • Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- $(function(){ var foo = []; var $foo = $(foo); foo.push("987"); $foo.push("987"); foo.push("654"); $foo.push("654"); $.each(foo, function(i){ console.log("foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); $foo.each(function(i){ console.log("$foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); }); //--></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

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  • UINavigationController inside tabbar loading a child root view

    - by Doug
    Hi guys, Firstly i'll preface by saying that i am a complete Cocoa touch/objective c noob (.Net dev having a dabble) I have searched on Google as well as here but cannot seem to find an easy solution. I have a UItabbarcontroller view with a UINavigationController inside its first tab I have the root view for this UINavigationController stored in a seperate class and NIB as i am trying to seperate the data viewing from the data loading (i'm going to reuse the table list in multiple places in my database) and simply pass the root view its data using a loading method and have it take it from there. What i want to happen: App loads and loads the first view of the tab bar (A UINavigationController) The UINavigationController inside the first view loads a root view (a UIViewController with a table view) and sets its title The UINavigationController loads the data from a web service and parses it The UINavigationController sends the data to a loading method inside the UIViewController Am i thinking about this completely wrongly? What currently happens: the first tab bar loads with an empty uinavigationcontroller (no table view) the data methods fire and get the webservice data this child view gets sent its data using the loading method the tableview delegate events fail to fire inside the child view telling it to load the data into the table I just can't seem how to load my second view inside the root view of the navigation controller and then send it my data?

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  • Redrawing rounded corners when using curvycorners-plugin for jQuery.

    - by timkl
    I'm using the curvycorners jQuery plugin (http://www.curvycorners.net/instructions/) to force IE to render rounded corners on divs. It works really well, apart from one thing: I have a validation error-message that pops up inside the div, using jQuery's "show" method. Curvycorners adds an extra div that is absolute positioned and has a set height, this means that you have to redraw the rounded corners if you want the containing div to resize when the error-message is shown. Curvycorners include a functions you can call to redraw the rounded corners, however it doesn't execute when I put it inside this click-function: $("input[type='submit']").click(function(e) { curvyCorners.redraw(); }); This is my markup: <fieldset class="curvyRedraw"> <legend>Some legend</legend> <form id="someForm"> <div id="error-message"></div> <div class="buttons"> <input type="submit" id="cancel" value="Cancel" name="action" /> <input type="submit" id="submit" value="Confirm" name="action" /> </div> </form> </fieldset> Anyone had similar issues?

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  • Building a generic page "Query Analyzer" like in Asp.net with SMO

    - by Rodrigo
    Hello, I'm build a web page in ASP.net is supposed to work just like Query Analyzer. It has basically a textarea to input the sql command, and an Execute button. I'm using SMO to execute the command in the database, as follows: //Create object SMO Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server server = new Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server(new Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Common.ServerConnection(oConn)); //To execute the command server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteNonQuery(tbx_cmd.Text); //OR myDataset = server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteWithResults(tbx_cmd.Text); The problem is that the textarea command can contain anything, from a stored procedure (with GO's statements) and any select command that return resultsets, just like Query Analyzer. But, if I have GO statements, I only can perform the query using ExecuteNonQuery method. If I use the ExecuteWithResults method, it raises errors because of the GO statements. And if I want the resultsets to be available, of course I can only use the ExecuteWithResults method. Does anybody knows how can I do to execute the same command texts at the same time? Thank you!

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  • nHibernate Mapping with Oracle Varchar2 Data Types

    - by Blake Blackwell
    I am new to nHibernate and having some issues getting over the learning curve. My current question involves passing a string value as a parameter to a stored sproc. The error I get is: Input string is not in correct format. My mapping file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" namespace="MyCompany.MyProject.Core" > <class name="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" table="My_Table" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"></id> <property name="Name" column="Name" /> </class> <sql-query name="sp_GetTable" callable="true"> <query-param name="int_Id" type="int"/> <query-param name="vch_MyId" type="String"/> <return class="MyCompany.MyProject.Core.MyTable" /> call procedure MYPKG.MYPROC(:int_Id,:vch_MyId) </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> When I debug nHibernate it looks like it is not an actual string value, but instead just an object value. Not sure about that though... EDIT: Adding additional code for clarification: UNIT Test List<ProcedureParameter> parms = new List<ProcedureParameter>(); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "int_Id", ParamValue = 1} ); parms.Add( new ProcedureParameter { ParamName = "vch_MyId", ParamValue = "{D18BED07-84AB-494F-A94F-6F894E284227}" } ); try { IList<MyTable> myTables = _context.GetAllByID<MyTable>( "sp_GetTable", parms ); Assert.AreNotEqual( 0, myTables.Count ); } catch( Exception ex ) { throw ex; } Data Context Method IQuery query = _session.GetNamedQuery( queryName ); foreach( ProcedureParameter parm in parms ) { query.SetParameter(parm.ParamName, "'" + parm.ParamValue + "'"); } return query.List<T>(); Come to think of it, it may have something to do with my DataContext method.

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  • Accessing Elmah.axd with SqlErrorLog in SharePoint without adding user to db

    - by Chloraphil
    I have installed/configured Elmah on my personal SharePoint dev environment and everything works great since I'm logged in as admin, etc. I am using the MS Sql Server Error Log. (I am also using log4net to handle DEBUG/INFO/etc level logging and log statements are also stored in the db, in the same table as ELMAH's.) However, on the actual dev server (not my personal environment), when I access http://example/elmah.axd I get the error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'". I understand that this is the traditional error for the "double-hop problem" but I don't even want my credentials to be passed along - I would just like the database access to be made with the credentials of the Application Pool Identity. When using the SP object model the SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges is available; however, I do not want to modify the Elmah source. My production environment precludes the use of SQL Server authentication, changing impersonation to false, or giving myself permissions on the db directly. How can I get this to work? Am I missing something?

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  • Core Audio - CARIngBuffer

    - by tech74
    Hi, Im looking at using the CARingBuffer in iPhone SDK 3.1 Developer\Extras\CoreAudio\PublicUtility, however was a little puzzled about some of its methods. Firstly this will only make sense really to anyone who's used this class For example the GetTimebounds,SetTimeBounds, ClipTimeBounds functions what are these actually doing? Also when using it, i get crashes caused by example this method in the main Fetch method - ZeroABL(abl, 0, destStartOffset * mBytesPerFrame); CARingBufferError CARingBuffer::Fetch(AudioBufferList *abl, UInt32 nFrames, SampleTime startRead) { SampleTime endRead = startRead + nFrames; SampleTime startRead0 = startRead; SampleTime endRead0 = endRead; SampleTime size; CARingBufferError err = ClipTimeBounds(startRead, endRead); if (err) return err; size = endRead - startRead; SInt32 destStartOffset = startRead - startRead0; if (destStartOffset 0) { ZeroABL(abl, 0, destStartOffset * mBytesPerFrame); } Here the destStartOffset has become larger than the size of the abl Bufferlist so when a memset is done it exceeds the boundaries of the abl Bufferlist causing the crash. Why hasn't this class got checks in to prevent this.

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  • Prolog: permutations check and multiple answers

    - by Adrian
    Continuing to learn prolog, I'm trying to write a permutation(L1, L2) predicate. It should return true, only if L1 can be made up of all elements in L2. My code so far is the following: permutation([], []). permutation([H|T], L2) :- remove(L2, H, R), permutation(T, R). Assuming that the predicate remove(L1, X, R) functions correctly, and it removes X from L1, I do not get correct results: ?- permutation([1],[1]). true ; false. ?- permutation([1, 2],[1]). true ; false. ?- permutation([1, 2],[1, 2]). true ; false. ?- permutation([1],[1, 2]). false. What am I missing. Subquestion: What happens when the remove predicate returns two answers? My implementation returns the new, correct list, and then after pressing ; it returns the original list. Which answer does permutation predicate use? ?- remove([1,2,3], 3, R). R = [1, 2] ; R = [1, 2, 3].

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  • WPF: Convert string to system.windows.style

    - by xscape
    Is it possible to convert string to system.windows.style? How? Example: <Style TargetType="ToggleButton" x:Key="toggleCollapsed"> <Setter Property="Control.Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ToggleButton"> <Border Background="#00FFFFFF" Width="19" Height="13" > <Border BorderThickness="1,1,1,1" CornerRadius="1,1,1,1" BorderBrush="#FF8E997D" Width="9" Height="9" > <Border.Background> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="1,1"> <LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> <GradientStop Color="#FFFFFFFF" Offset="0.4" /> <GradientStop Color="#FFC3BAAA" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.Background> <Path Data="M0,2L0,3 2,3 2,5 3,5 3,3 5,3 5,2 3,2 3,0 2,0 2,2z" x:Name="pathToggle" Fill="#FF000000" Margin="1,1,1,1"/> </Border> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The style above is stored in my .resx. I want to convert it back to style

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  • Python recursive function error: "maximum recursion depth exceeded"

    - by user283169
    I solved Problem 10 of Project Euler with the following code, which works through brute force: def isPrime(n): for x in range(2, int(n**0.5)+1): if n % x == 0: return False return True def primeList(n): primes = [] for i in range(2,n): if isPrime(i): primes.append(i) return primes def sumPrimes(primelist): prime_sum = sum(primelist) return prime_sum print (sumPrimes(primeList(2000000))) The three functions work as follows: isPrime checks whether a number is a prime; primeList returns a list containing a set of prime numbers for a certain range with limit 'n', and; sumPrimes sums up the values of all numbers in a list. (This last function isn't needed, but I liked the clarity of it, especially for a beginner like me.) I then wrote a new function, primeListRec, which does exactly the same thing as primeList, to help me better understand recursion: def primeListRec(i, n): primes = [] #print i if (i != n): primes.extend(primeListRec(i+1,n)) if (isPrime(i)): primes.append(i) return primes return primes The above recursive function worked, but only for very small values, like '500'. The function caused my program to crash when I put in '1000'. And when I put in a value like '2000', Python gave me this: RuntimeError: maximum recursion depth exceeded. What did I do wrong with my recursive function? Or is there some specific way to avoid a recursion limit?

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  • How do I fix: InvalidOperationException upon Session timeout in Ajax WebService call

    - by Ngm
    Hi All, We are invoking Asp.Net ajax web service from the client side. So the JavaScript functions have calls like: // The function to alter the server side state object and set the selected node for the case tree. function JSMethod(caseId, url) { Sample.XYZ.Method(param1, param2, OnMethodReturn); } function OnMethodReturn(result) { var sessionExpiry = CheckForSessionExpiry(result); var error = CheckForErrors(result); ... process result } And on the server side in the ".asmx.cs" file: namespace Sample [ScriptService] class XYZ : WebService { [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] public string Method(string param1, string param2) { if (SessionExpired()) { return sessionExpiredMessage; } . . . } } The website is setup to use form based authentication. Now if the session has expired and then the JavaScript function "JSMethod" is invoked, then the following error is obtained: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.Net.WebServiceFailedException: The server method 'Method' failed with the following error: System.InvalidOperationException-- Authentication failed. This exception is raised by method "function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke" in file "ScriptResource.axd": function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke { . . . { // In debug mode, if no error was registered, display some trace information var error; if (result && errorObj) { // If we got a result, we're likely dealing with an error in the method itself error = result.get_exceptionType() + "-- " + result.get_message(); } else { // Otherwise, it's probably a 'top-level' error, in which case we dump the // whole response in the trace error = response.get_responseData(); } // DevDiv 89485: throw, not alert() throw Sys.Net.WebServiceProxy._createFailedError(methodName, String.format(Sys.Res.webServiceFailed, methodName, error)); } So the problem is that the exception is raised even before "Method" is invoked, the exception occurs during the creation of the Web Proxy. Any ideas on how to resolve this problem

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  • TFS 2010 - TF14040 The Folder may not be checked out.

    - by Patricker
    I have a .NET 4 website in VS2010 stored in a TFS 2010 team project. I need to add a reference to System.Data.Linq.dll to the website. I am referencing a LINQ DataContext that is defined in another project and I get build errors saying that I need the reference to System.Data.Linq. I go up to the "Add Reference" menu option and add it like I would any normal reference, and it even shows up in the Web.config and in the Properties pages for the website... BUT if I build I still get the same error. So I found a place in my code where I was referencing the LINQ count function and it told me it was invalid because I was missing a reference and it offered to add the reference automatically. I told it to add the reference automatically and it is at this point that I get the error mentioned in the subject: TF14040: The folder $/Folder/Subfolder may not be checked out. No items were checked out I've done some research online but I haven't been able to find much. I saw on a blog that making the folder not readonly fixed the issue for him, but it didn't seem to work for me unless I misunderstood something. I tried loading up the project from source control onto a fresh computer where that project had never been loaded before and I can reproduce the issue the same way. Help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Easy to use AutoHotkey/AutoIT alternatives for Linux

    - by Xeddy
    Hi all, I'm looking for recommendations for an easy-to-use GUI automation/macro platform for Linux. If you're familiar with AutoHotkey or AutoIT on Windows, then you know exactly the kind of features I need, with the level of complexity. If you aren't familiar, then here's a small code snippet of how easy it is to use AHK: InputBox, varInput, Please enter some random text... Run, notepad.exe WinWaitActive, Untitled - Notepad SendInput, %varInput% SendInput, !f{Up}{Enter}{Enter} WinWaitActive, Save SendInput, SomeRandomFile{Enter} MsgBox, Your text`, %varInput% has been saved using notepad! #n::Run, notepad.exe Now the above example, although a bit pointless, is a demo of the sort of functionality and simplicity I'm looking for. Here's an explanation for those who don't speak AHK: ----Start of Explanation of Code ---- Asks user to input some text and stores it in varInput Runs notepad.exe Waits till window exists and is active Sends the contents of varInput as a series of keystrokes Sends keystrokes to go to File - Exit Waits till the "Save" window is active Sends some more keystrokes Shows a Message Box with some text and the contents of a variable Registers a hotkey, Win+N, which when pressed executes notepad.exe ----End of Explanation---- So as you can understand, the features are quite obvious: Ability to easily simulate keyboard and mouse functions, read input, process and display output, execute programs, manipulate windows, register hotkeys, etc.. all being done without requiring any #includes, unnecessary brackets, class declarations etc. In short: Simple. Now I've played around a bit with Perl and Python, but its definitely no AHK. They're great for more advanced stuff, but surely, there has to be some tool out there for easy GUI automation? PS: I've already tried running AHK with Wine but sending keystrokes and hotkeys don't work.

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  • Parsing XML in a non-XML column

    - by slugster
    Hi, i am reasonably proficient with SQLServer, but i'm not a DBA so i'm not sure how to approach this. I have an XML chunk stored in an ntext column. Due to it being a legacy database and the requirements of the project i cannot change the table (yet). This is an example of the data i need to manipulate: <XmlSerializableHashtable xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Entries> <Entry> <key xsi:type="xsd:string">CurrentYear</key><value xsi:type="xsd:string">2010</value> </Entry> <Entry> <key xsi:type="xsd:string">CurrentMonth</key><value xsi:type="xsd:string">4</value> </Entry> </Entries> </XmlSerializableHashtable> each row will have a chunk like this, but obviously with different keys/values in the XML. Is there any clever way i can parse this XML in to a name/value pairs style view? Or should i be using SQLServer's XML querying abilities even though it isn't an XML column? If so, how would i query a specific value out of that column? (Note: adding a computed XML column on the end of the table is a possibility, if that helps). Thanks for any assistance!

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  • Overlay only draws line between first 2 GPS points in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I am experiencing an unusual error using ItemizedOverlay in Android. I am creating a GPS tracking device that plots a route between waypoints stored in a database. When I provide the first two sets of longitude and latitude points through the emulator in Eclipse, it draws a red line just how I want it, but if I send another GPS point, it animates to the point, but does not draw a line from the last point. public class MyOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay { // private Projection projection; private Paint linePaint; private Vector points; public MyOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(defaultMarker); points = new Vector<GeoPoint>(); //set colour, stroke width etc. linePaint = new Paint(); linePaint.setARGB(255, 255, 0, 0); linePaint.setStrokeWidth(3); linePaint.setDither(true); linePaint.setStyle(Style.FILL); linePaint.setAntiAlias(true); linePaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); linePaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); } public void addPoint(GeoPoint point) { points.addElement(point); } public void draw(Canvas canvas, MapView view, boolean shadow) { int size = points.size(); Point lastPoint = new Point(); if(size == 0) return; view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(0), lastPoint); Point point = new Point(); for(int i = 1; i<size; i++){ view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(i), point); canvas.drawLine(lastPoint.x, lastPoint.y, point.x, point.y, linePaint); lastPoint = point; } } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } }

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  • How can I copy a SQL record which has related records in other tables to the same database?

    - by DerekVS
    Hi. I created a function in C# which allows me to copy a record and its related children to a new record and new related children in the same database. (This is for an application that allows the use of previous work as a template for new work.) Anyway, it works great... Here's a description of how it accomplishes the copy: It populates a two-column memory-based look-up table with the current primary key of each record. Next, as it individually creates each new copy record, it updates the look-up table with the Identity PK of the new record [retrieved from SCOPE_IDENTITY()]. Now, when it copies over any related children, it can look up the new parent PK to set the FK on the new record. In testing, it only took a minute to copy a relational structure on a local instance of SQL Server 2005 Express Edition. Unfortunately it is proving to be horribly slow in production! My users are dealing with 60,000+ records per parent record over the LAN to our SQL Server! While my copy function still works, each of those records represents an individual SQL UPDATE command and it loads the SQL Server at about 17% CPU from its normal 2% idle. I just finished testing a 50,000 record copy and it took almost 20 minutes! Is there a way to duplicate this functionality in SQL queries or stored procecures to make the SQL server do all of the copy work instead of blasting it over the LAN from each client? (We're running Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition.) Thanks! -Derek

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  • ListView + MultipleSelect + MVVM = ?

    - by Dave
    If I were to say "the heck with it!", I could just give my ListView with SelectionMode="Multiple" a name, and be able to get all of the selected items very easily. But I'm trying to stick to MVVM as much as possible, and I want to somehow databind to an ObservableCollection that holds the value from the Name column for each selected item. How in the world do you do this? Single selection is simple, but the multi selection solution is not obvious to me with my current WPF / MVVM knowledge. I read this question on SO, and while it does give me some good insight, I don't know how to add the necessary binding to a row, because I am using a ListView with a GridView as its View, not a ListBox. Here's what my XAML basically looks like: <ListView DockPanel.Dock="Top" ItemsSource="{Binding ClientPreview}" SelectionMode="Multiple"> <ListView.View> <GridView AllowsColumnReorder="False"> <GridViewColumn Header="Name"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn Header="Address"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Address}" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> It sounds like the right thing to do is to databind each row's IsSelected property to each object stored in the ObservableCollection I'm databinding to. I just haven't figured out how to do this.

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  • Does anyone use Fortify 360 with Classic ASP? a Header Manipulation vulnerability story

    - by j_green71
    Good morning, everyone. I'm on a short-term contracting gig, trying to patch some vulnerabilities in their legacy code. The application I'm working on is a combination of Classic ASP(VBScript) and .Net 2.0 (C#). One of the tools they have purchased is Fortify 360. Let's say that this is a current classic ASP page in the application: <%@ Language=VBScript %> <% Dim var var = Request.QueryString("var") ' do stuff Response.Redirect "nextpage.asp?var=" & var %> I know, I know, short and very dangerous. So we wrote some (en/de)coders and validation/verification routines: <%@ Language=VBScript %> <% Dim var var = Decode(Request.QueryString("var")) ' do stuff if isValid(var) then Response.Redirect "nextpage.asp?var=" & Encode(var) else 'throw error page end if %> And still Fortify flags this as vulnerable to Header Manipulation. How or what exactly is Fortify looking for? The reason I suspect that Fortify is looking for specific key words is that on the .Net side of things, I can include the Microsoft AntiXss assembly and call functions such as GetSafeHtmlFragment and UrlEncode and Fortify is happy. Any advice?

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  • Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

    - by skb
    I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

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  • GWT Best Practices - MVP

    - by GWTNewbie
    A question for all the GWT gurus out there. I'm a newbie in GWT and am trying to understand the best practices of coding a GWT application. I have gone through "Large scale application development and MVP" based on Ray Ryan's talk at Google I/O 2009 and it has given me a good starting point. I downloaded the sample source code as well for the Contacts application based on the best practices listed. The application I'm trying to develop using GWT is a bit bigger (in terms of the modules involved) when compared to the sample "Contacts" application & so I want to split it up into multiple functions. I have been reading that having a single Entry point in a GWT application is a good idea, and I don't want to dump all the code in one single AppController class & one single RpcService, what would be the best approach in this situation? How would I go about dispatching the control to multiple controllers? Is there a way to achieve this using some classes in the GWT framework?

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  • MATLAB Builder NE crash apppool on IIS 7.5

    - by Alkersan
    Im developing a web user interface for MATLAB functions with ASP.NET. Ive started with studying demos and stucked with such problem. I created a MyComponent.dll assembly with deploytool from MATLAB 2010a, target framework - 3.5. This component has one function GetKnot() which returns a figure. function df = getKnot() f = figure('Visible', 'off'); knot; df = webfigure(f); close(f); end Then I made simple webapp in visual studio 2008 sp1, with only one page Default.aspx. I added references to MWArray.dll, WebFiguresService.dll and MyComponent.dll. The codeBehind is: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using MyComponent; using MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.WebFigures; namespace MATLAB_WebApplication { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var myComponentClass = new MyComponentClass(); var x = myComponentClass.getKnot(); //WebFigureControl1.WebFigure = new WebFigure(); } } } When I run this page on Visual Studio`s Development web server - everything is fine, figure works. But when I`m trying to deploy webfigure on my local iis 7.5 which runs on Win7 x32 - iis app pool crashes. There is an entry in System Event Log "A process serving application pool 'Classic .NET AppPool' suffered a fatal communication error with the Windows Process Activation Service. The process id was '3676'. The data field contains the error number 6D000780". This happens when MyComponent is instantiating. What I could forget when moved to IIS? Other examples, like magic square console application, runs perfect, and every matlab component instantiating, but not in IIS environment.

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  • ActiveX Content in a local web page, and "the mark of the web"

    - by Daniel Magliola
    Hi, I'm trying to make a webpage that people will run from their hard drives, locally, and this page will show a .wmv video (which is also stored locally), using Windows Media Player When I run this, IE shows me the "ActiveX Warning" bar at the top, which is what i'm trying to work around. If I load this from a web server, it loads fine, but from the local disk, it won't. Now, apparently, MS has added the Mark of the Web thingy precisely to work around this problem, however, I've been trying for a while to make it work, and it just didn't. I still get the warning bar. Is the Mark of the Web supposed to still work? Or this is some kind of deprecated thing? Am I doing anything wrong? I'm supposedly following all instructions, it looks like: and I've tried placing it before DOCTYPE, between DOCTYPE and <HTML>, right after <HTML>, in the <HEAD> of the document, etc. Nothing seems to work. I've tried this in IE7 and IE8 Any ideas will be GREATLY appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • Setting up an efficient and effective development process

    - by christopher-mccann
    I am in the midst of setting up the development environment (PHP/MySQL) for my start-up. We use three sets of servers: LIVE - the servers which provide the actual application TEST - providing a testing version before it is actually released DEV - the development servers The development servers run SVN with each developer checking out their local copy. At the end of each day completed fixes are checked in and then we use Hudson to automate our build process and then transfer it over to TEST. We then check the application still functions correctly using a tester and then if everything is fine move it to LIVE. I am happy with this process but I do have two questions: How would you recommend we do local testing - as each developer adds new pages or changes functionality I want them to be able to test what they are doing. Would you just setup local Apache and a local database and have them test locally on their own machine? How would you recommend dealing with data layer changes? Is there anything else you would recommend doing to really make our development process as easy and efficient as possible? Thanks in advance

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  • Tiff Analyzer

    - by Kevin
    I am writing a program to convert some data, mainly a bunch of Tiff images. Some of the Tiffs seems to have a minor problem with them. They show up fine in some viewers (Irfanview, client's old system) but not in others (Client's new system, Window's picture and fax viewer). I have manually looked at the binary data and all the tags seem ok. Can anyone recommend an app that can analyze it and tell me what, if anything, is wrong with it? Also, for clarity sake, I'm only converting the data about the images which is stored seperately in a database and copying the images, I'm not editting the images myself, so I'm pretty sure I'm not messing them up. UDPATE: For anyone interested, here are the tags from a good and bad file: BAD Tag Type Length Value 256 Image Width SHORT 1 1652 257 Image Length SHORT 1 704 258 Bits Per Sample SHORT 1 1 259 Compression SHORT 1 4 262 Photometric SHORT 1 0 266 Fill Order SHORT 1 1 273 Strip Offsets LONG 1 210 (d2 Hex) 274 Orientation SHORT 1 3 277 Samples Per Pixel SHORT 1 1 278 Rows Per Strip SHORT 1 450 279 Strip Byte Counts LONG 1 7264 (1c60 Hex) 282 X Resolution RATIONAL 1 <194 200 / 1 = 200.000 283 Y Resolution RATIONAL 1 <202 200 / 1 = 200.000 284 Planar Configuration SHORT 1 1 296 Resolution Unit SHORT 1 2 Good Tag Type Length Value 254 New Subfile Type LONG 1 0 (0 Hex) 256 Image Width SHORT 1 1193 257 Image Length SHORT 1 788 258 Bits Per Sample SHORT 1 1 259 Compression SHORT 1 4 262 Photometric SHORT 1 0 266 Fill Order SHORT 1 1 270 Image Description ASCII 45 256 273 Strip Offsets LONG 1 1118 (45e Hex) 274 Orientation SHORT 1 1 277 Samples Per Pixel SHORT 1 1 278 Rows Per Strip LONG 1 788 (314 Hex) 279 Strip Byte Counts LONG 1 496 (1f0 Hex) 280 Min Sample Value SHORT 1 0 281 Max Sample Value SHORT 1 1 282 X Resolution RATIONAL 1 <301 200 / 1 = 200.000 283 Y Resolution RATIONAL 1 <309 200 / 1 = 200.000 284 Planar Configuration SHORT 1 1 293 Group 4 Options LONG 1 0 (0 Hex) 296 Resolution Unit SHORT 1 2

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  • WCF Manual SOAP POST using HttpWebRequest over https with Usertoken

    - by VonBlender
    Hi, I'm writing a client that calls a number of WCF webservices (written externallyt to my company) that are very similar in structure. The design I was hoping to use is to manually build the SOAP message from XML chunks that are stored in a database and then processed through a generic web service handler class. I have access to the WSDL's for each webservice and example working XML. The design approach is such that we can easily add to the message dynamically, hence the reason for not using the auto generated proxy classes I am basically at the last part now with the entire SOAP message constructed but am getting a SOAP fault security error returned. I have used fiddler to compare the message I'm sending with one that is sent using the normal (far simpler...) WCF generated proxy classes and can't see any difference apart from the id attribute of the Usertoken element in the SOAP header. This is where my lack of experience in this area isn't helping. I think this is because the id is generated automatically (presumably because we're using https). My question is how do I generate this programatically? I have searched for hours online but the majority of solutions are either using the proxy classes or not over https. I have briefly looked at WCE but aware this is replaced by WCF now so don't want to waste time looking into this if it's not the solution. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. I can post some code examples when I'm back in work if it will help but the method I'm using is very straightforward and only using XElements and such like at the moment (as we're using linq to sql). thanks, Andy

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