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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • super() in Python 2.x without args

    - by Slava Vishnyakov
    Trying to convert super(B, self).method() into a simple nice bubble() call. Did it, see below! Is it possible to get reference to class B in this example? class A(object): pass class B(A): def test(self): test2() class C(B): pass import inspect def test2(): frame = inspect.currentframe().f_back cls = frame.[?something here?] # cls here should == B (class) c = C() c.test() Basically, C is child of B, B is child of A. Then we create c of type C. Then the call to c.test() actually calls B.test() (via inheritance), which calls to test2(). test2() can get the parent frame frame; code reference to method via frame.f_code; self via frame.f_locals['self']; but type(frame.f_locals['self']) is C (of course), but not B, where method is defined. Any way to get B?

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  • How do I flag a folder as being a package?

    - by Pierre Bernard
    I used to think that folders needed to have an extension so that they are recognized as packages by the Finder. That extension would be declared in the owning application's Info.plist. Obviously there is another, more elegant way, but I can't figure out how it is done. E.g. the iPhoto Library is being treated as a package by the Finder. Yet it has no extension. mdls reveals that it indeed has "com.apple.package" in the content type tree. The actual content type is dynamically assigned. How did iPhoto go about to create such a directory?

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  • C++0x rvalue references - lvalues-rvalue binding

    - by Doug
    This is a follow-on question to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2748866/c0x-rvalue-references-and-temporaries In the previous question, I asked how this code should work: void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } It seems that the move overload should probably be called because of the implicit temporary, and this happens in GCC but not MSVC (or the EDG front-end used in MSVC's Intellisense). What about this code? void f(std::string &&); //NB: No const string & overload supplied void g1(const char * arg) { f(arg); } void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(arg); } It seems that, based on the answers to my previous question that function g1 is legal (and is accepted by GCC 4.3-4.5, but not by MSVC). However, GCC and MSVC both reject g2 because of clause 13.3.3.1.4/3, which prohibits lvalues from binding to rvalue ref arguments. I understand the rationale behind this - it is explained in N2831 "Fixing a safety problem with rvalue references". I also think that GCC is probably implementing this clause as intended by the authors of that paper, because the original patch to GCC was written by one of the authors (Doug Gregor). However, I don't this is quite intuitive. To me, (a) a const string & is conceptually closer to a string && than a const char *, and (b) the compiler could create a temporary string in g2, as if it were written like this: void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(std::string(arg)); } Indeed, sometimes the copy constructor is considered to be an implicit conversion operator. Syntactically, this is suggested by the form of a copy constructor, and the standard even mentions this specifically in clause 13.3.3.1.2/4, where the copy constructor for derived-base conversions is given a higher conversion rank than other implicit conversions: A conversion of an expression of class type to the same class type is given Exact Match rank, and a conversion of an expression of class type to a base class of that type is given Conversion rank, in spite of the fact that a copy/move constructor (i.e., a user-defined conversion function) is called for those cases. (I assume this is used when passing a derived class to a function like void h(Base), which takes a base class by value.) Motivation My motivation for asking this is something like the question asked in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2696156/how-to-reduce-redundant-code-when-adding-new-c0x-rvalue-reference-operator-over ("How to reduce redundant code when adding new c++0x rvalue reference operator overloads"). If you have a function that accepts a number of potentially-moveable arguments, and would move them if it can (e.g. a factory function/constructor: Object create_object(string, vector<string>, string) or the like), and want to move or copy each argument as appropriate, you quickly start writing a lot of code. If the argument types are movable, then one could just write one version that accepts the arguments by value, as above. But if the arguments are (legacy) non-movable-but-swappable classes a la C++03, and you can't change them, then writing rvalue reference overloads is more efficient. So if lvalues did bind to rvalues via an implicit copy, then you could write just one overload like create_object(legacy_string &&, legacy_vector<legacy_string> &&, legacy_string &&) and it would more or less work like providing all the combinations of rvalue/lvalue reference overloads - actual arguments that were lvalues would get copied and then bound to the arguments, actual arguments that were rvalues would get directly bound. Questions My questions are then: Is this a valid interpretation of the standard? It seems that it's not the conventional or intended one, at any rate. Does it make intuitive sense? Is there a problem with this idea that I"m not seeing? It seems like you could get copies being quietly created when that's not exactly expected, but that's the status quo in places in C++03 anyway. Also, it would make some overloads viable when they're currently not, but I don't see it being a problem in practice. Is this a significant enough improvement that it would be worth making e.g. an experimental patch for GCC?

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  • MySQL inconsistent table scan results

    - by user148207
    What's going on here? mysql> select count(*) from notes where date(updated_at) > date('2010-03-25'); +----------+ | count(*) | +----------+ | 0 | +----------+ 1 row in set (0.59 sec) mysql> select count(*) from notes where message like'%***%' and date(updated_at) > date('2010-03-25'); +----------+ | count(*) | +----------+ | 26 | +----------+ 1 row in set (1.30 sec) mysql> explain select count(*) from notes where date(updated_at) > date('2010-03-25'); +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | notes | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 588106 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ 1 row in set (0.07 sec) mysql> explain select updated_at from notes where message like'%***%' and date(updated_at) > date('2010-03-25'); +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | notes | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 588106 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------+------+---------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ 1 row in set (0.09 sec) mysql>

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  • Recurrance Calendar Issue in Lotus Notes

    - by Preeti
    Hi all, I am creating a Daily Reccurrance pattern in calendar items. But there is a issue as before clicking "save and Send Invitations" button, but in the Document Properties field i am able to view the RepeatForUnit and based on its value i am identifying the Reccurrance type like (D: for daily, W: for Weekly, M: for montlhy etc). But, After clicking on the "save and Send Invitations" button, the Recurrance is getting saved but after that, i am unable to get the RepeatForUnit field in Document Properties. Kindly help me, how to identify the Reccurrance type and the related fields. Note: I am using Domino.dll using C#. Regards, Preeti

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  • XML serialization and MS/Mono portability

    - by Luca
    I'm trying to have classes serialized using MS runtime and Mono runtime. While using MS runtime everything goes fine, but using Mono I give me some exception and program startup. The following exception are thrown: There was an error reflecting a type: System.TypeInitializationException (a class) There was an error reflecting a type: System.InvalidOperationException (a class) There was an error reflecting a field: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException < 0 (an array of classes) The binary was compiled using MS SDK, but I don't think this is the problem. What's going on? .NET shouln't be portable? How to solve these exceptions?

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  • How do I create a simple seach box with a submit button to bring back a result set in MVC?

    - by RJ
    I am very new to MVC and just learning the basics. I have been following along in Nerd Dinner and used the demo as a way to create my own app. I have created a page that lists out some food items with calories, fat, protein,etc... (http://rjsfitness.net/CalorieList) This is one of my own personal sites that I set up to test out MVC. I got a lot of it working but I am stuck on the textbox with a search button. My view page has this code for the search: <form action="/CalorieList/Search" method="post" id="searchForm"> <input type="text" name="searchTerm" id="searchTerm" value="" size="10" maxlength ="30" /> <input type ="submit" value="Search" /> </form> My global.asax has this code for the routing: routes.MapRoute( "Search", // Route name "CalorieList/Search/{searchTerm}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "CalorieList", action = "Search", search = "" } // Parameter defaults ); My Controller has this code: public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; //load a list with the calorie list var calorieLists = calorieListRepository.GetAllCalorieLists(); //var paginatedCalorieLists = calorieLists.Skip((page ?? 0) * pageSize).Take(pageSize).ToList(); var paginatedCalorieLists = new PaginatedList<CalorieList>(calorieLists, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View("Index", paginatedCalorieLists); } public ActionResult Search(String searchTerm) { const int pageSize = 100; int? page = 0; var calorieLists = calorieListRepository.GetCalorieListsBySearch(searchTerm); var paginatedCalorieLists = new PaginatedList<CalorieList>(calorieLists, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View("Index", paginatedCalorieLists); } return View("Index", paginatedCalorieLists); } When I enter a value and click the button, the Index method fires instead of the Seach method in the controller and I get the full list again. If I manually type the url (http://rjsfitness.net/CalorieList/Search/choc) I get the right listing. Why isn't my button click using the right routing and giving me the search results?

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  • NHibernate 'IdentifierGenerationException' on an Update trigger

    - by Jan Jongboom
    In my database I have an id column defined as [autonumber] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL which is mapped in my .hbm.xml like: <id name="Id" column="autonumber" type="int"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> When calling session.Save() updates are successful committed to the database. When adding a versioning trigger I however get the error this id generator generates Int64, Int32, Int16 of type IdentifierGenerationException. The trigger is defined as: ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[CatchUpdates_NVM_FDK_Kenmerken] ON [dbo].[NVM_FDK_Kenmerken] INSTEAD OF UPDATE AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON UPDATE NVM_FDK_Kenmerken SET idIsActive = 0 WHERE internalId IN (SELECT internalId FROM INSERTED) INSERT INTO dbo.NVM_FDK_Kenmerken ( vestigingNummer , internalId , someOtherColumns, dateInserted, idIsActive ) SELECT vestigingNummer, internalId, someOtherColumns, GETDATE(), 1 FROM INSERTED END What am I doing wrong here? When doing manual updates everything works just fine and as expected.

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  • Can't instantiate javax.servlet.ServletException

    - by Denis
    Hello, experts! I am trying to create instance of class javax.servlet.ServletException with following code public class MyTroubleViewer { public static void main(String[] args) { javax.servlet.ServletException servletException = new javax.servlet.ServletException("Hello"); System.out.println(servletException.getMessage()); } } But I get exception on creating: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassFormatError: Absent Code attribute in method that is not native or abstract in class file javax/servlet/ServletException ... Maven helps me with dependecies: <dependency> <groupId>javax</groupId> <artifactId>javaee-api</artifactId> <version>6.0</version> <type>jar</type> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> What am I doing wrong?

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  • Convert Null Value to String - C#.NET

    - by peace
    foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyItem.SetValue(this, objDataTable.Rows[0][PropertyItem.Name.ToString()], null); } In one of the loops i get this exceptional error: Object of type 'System.DBNull' cannot be converted to type 'System.String'. The error occurs because one of the fields in the database has no value (null), so the string property could not handle it. How can i convert this null to string? I got this solution If you know a shorter or better one, feel free to post it. I'm trying to avoid checking on every loop is current value is null or not.

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  • Xml add element node using PHP

    - by user560411
    Hello I would like to add an element node in my entire XML file using PHP. I can not get it right and I add it below root. Please share me a clean code so that I understand how it works.. Thank you! My xml is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <GameStore> <Game type="adventure"> <TITLE>Assassin's Creed: Brotherhood</TITLE> <PUBLISHER>Ubisoft</PUBLISHER> </Game> <Game type="adventure"> <TITLE>Batman: Arkham Asylum</TITLE> <PUBLISHER>Eidos</PUBLISHER> </Game> </GameStore>

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  • How can I create a new class instance from a class within a (static) class?

    - by Mervin
    I'm new to Java (have experience with C#), This is what i want to do: public final class MyClass { public class MyRelatedClass { ... } } public class OtherRandomClass { public void DoStuff() { MyRelatedClass data = new MyClass.MyRelatedClass(); } } which gives this error in Eclipse: "No enclosing instance of type BitmapEffects is accessible. Must qualify the allocation with an enclosing instance of type BitmapEffects (e.g. x.new A() where x is an instance of BitmapEffects)." this is possible in C# with static classes , how should it be done here?

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  • How to override form just on one page?

    - by user363036
    OK so this is my hook form alter function.It is causing all the registration forms on site to be over written which I do not want as I just want it on this page. function special_registration_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) { if ($form_id == 'user_register') { drupal_set_title(t('Custom registration')); $form['firstname'] = array('#type' = 'textfield', '#title' = t('First Name: *'), '#required' = TRUE, '#size' = 45, '#weight' = - 100,); $form['lastname'] = array('#type' = 'textfield', '#title' = t('Last Name: *'), '#required' = TRUE, '#size' = 45, '#weight' = - 99,); } I only first name and last name to be captured and stored in a different table just on this page. On other pages I just want the good old fashioned form. Do I still need to change the weight? I know I am missing something elementary.

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  • How to catch exceptions from another program (for logging)?

    - by CuriousCoder
    I am working on a tool that monitors a number of applications and ensures they are always running and in a clean state. Some of these applications have unhandled exceptions which do occur periodically and present the 'send crash report' window. I do not have the source code to these applications. Is there any mechanism I could use to catch the exceptions, or simply identify their exception type, as well as identify the application's main executable file that threw the exception. I'm not trying to do anything crazy like catch and handle it on the applications behalf, I'm simply trying to capture the exception type, log it and then restart the application.

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  • How do I prevent an ASP.NET MVC deployment on IIS 6.0, using wildcard mapping, from attempting to ha

    - by Rob
    As noted by the title, what is the best way to configure an IIS 6.0 deployment of an ASP.NET MVC application such that connections to hidden shares are ignored? The application in question is using wildcard mapping to allow for clean URLs since we are planning on upgrading to IIS 7.0 in the near future and we are also handling the caching and compression issues with a custom library so we would like to avoid turning wildcard mapping off unless absolutely necessary. Below is a one of the errors from the application to give you an example of what we are seeing. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- System.Web.HttpException -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Time Stamp - 03 Mar 2010, 08:11:44 Path - N/A, Internal Server Operation Message - The controller for path '/C$' could not be found or it does not implement IController. Target Site - System.Web.Mvc.IController GetControllerInstance(System.Type) Stack Trace - at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

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  • Conversion of DOM element selection code to jQuery

    - by Tom McDonnell
    I have a large Javascript codebase to convert to jQuery. The code is structured such that DOM elements are created in Javascript (using a library called DomBuilder), and saved to variables if they will be needed later, before being added to the DOM. Eg. var inputs = { submitConfirm: INPUT({type: 'button', value: 'Submit'}), submitCancel : INPUT({type: 'button', value: 'Cancel'}) }; document.appendChild(inputs.submitConfirm); Then later for example... inputs.submitCancel.style.display = 'none'; inputs.submitCancel.addEventListener('click', onClickSubmitCancel, false); My problem is that jQuery seems to lack a way of manipulating DOM elements directly, as opposed to selecting them first (with for example $('#submitCancel'). Can anyone suggest a way to directly translate the last two Javascript lines given above to use jQuery, given that the DOM elements are already available, and so do not need to be selected?

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  • JQuery $.ajax doesn't return anything, but only in Google Chrome!?

    - by Shawson
    Hi All, I'm hoping someone can help me with this as I'm at a loss. I'm trying to simply load a plain text file into a page at runtime using jquery- everything works fine in IE8 (8.0.7600.16385), Firefox 3.6.3, however in Google Chrome 5.0.375.55 the "data" comes back as nothing- i get an empty alert box. This is the code i'm using; <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Animation Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: 'level1.txt', success: function (data) { alert(data); }, async: true, type: 'GET' }); }); </script> </head> <body> <canvas id="canvas" width="640" height="480"> Unsupported Browser </canvas> </body> </html> The file I'm loading in is a plain text file containing this; Central Cavern 100 O.........1.C....C...........1.O O................1.............O O..............................O O..............................O O......................B1..B...O O=============~~~~=~~~~========O O.............................1O O===...........................O O............A..OOO.B..........O O====...<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<...O O............................==O O..............................O O..........B........OOO.....===O O....===============...........O O%............................XO O==============================O (Yes- it's the first level from Manic Miner! I'm making a javascript version using the html5 canvas to get my head around using it.) I'm at a total loss- it can't be the code because it runs in the other 2 browsers- is there an issue with jquery and this version of Chrome? Thanks for reading!! Shaw.

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • Play 2.0 RESTful request post-processing

    - by virtualeyes
    In regard to this question I am curious how one can do post-request REST processing a la (crude): def postProcessor[T](content: T) = { request match { case Accepts.Json() => asJson(content) case Accepts.Xml() => asXml(content) case _ => content } } overriding onRouteRequest in Global config does not appear to provide access to body of the response, so it would seem that Action composition is the way to go to intercept the response and do post-processing task(s). Question: is this a good idea, or is it better to do content-type casting directly within a controller (or other class) method where the type to cast is known? Currently I'm doing this kind of thing everywhere: toJson( i18n("account not found") ) toJson( Map('orderNum-> orderNum) ) while I'd like the toJson/toXml conversion to happen based on accepts header post-request.

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  • C# Pass Generics At Runtime

    - by TheCloudlessSky
    I have a method like the following: public IEnumerable<T> GetControls<T>() : where T : ControlBase { // removed. } I then created a class: public class HandleBase<TOwner> : ControlBase : TOwner { // Removed } I'd like to be able to call GetControls<HandleBase<this.GetType()>>; where it would use the type of THIS class to pass to the HandleBase. This would in essentially get all HandleBase that have an owner of THIS type. How can I achieve this?

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  • When does ref($variable) return 'IO'?

    - by Zaid
    Here's the relevant excerpt from the documentation of the ref function: The value returned depends on the type of thing the reference is a reference to. Builtin types include: SCALAR ARRAY HASH CODE REF GLOB LVALUE FORMAT IO VSTRING Regexp Based on this, I imagined that calling ref on a filehandle would return 'IO'. Surprisingly, it doesn't: use strict; use warnings; open my $fileHandle, '<', 'aValidFile'; close $fileHandle; print ref $fileHandle; # prints 'GLOB', not 'IO' perlref tries to explain why: It isn't possible to create a true reference to an IO handle (filehandle or dirhandle) using the backslash operator. The most you can get is a reference to a typeglob, which is actually a complete symbol table entry [...] However, you can still use type globs and globrefs as though they were IO handles. In what circumstances would ref return 'IO' then?

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • HTML text field not displaying decimal places of SQL money value

    - by baldwingrand
    I have a text field who's value is populated from a SQL recordset (below). <input name="txtAmount" id="txtAmount" type="text" size="10" maxlength="10" value="<%=RS("Amount")%>"> In the SQL table, the Amount field (which is a money data type) is inserted correctly, as 5.00 However, in the web page, it displays only as 5 (i.e. the decimal places are missing). Anyone know why this might be and how I can get the decimal places to display in the field? Thanks!

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