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• [WPF] How to register to/listen to richtextbox command's?

  - by Liewe

  I'm creating a simple editor within our application using the WPF RichTextBox. Above it I've added the reguslar buttons like Bold, Italic, etc. These buttons use the RichTextBox's commands to set these properties, but next to these buttons, the commands also get send with CTRL+B, CTRL+I, etc. I want these buttons to represent the current state of the RichTextBox at the cursor. I already found out how to get this state and it works when I update this state on the SelectionChanged event. This event ofcourse isn't fired when Bold is toggled so there is no direct feedback. I would like to know if there is a way to listen to the commands being called, without affecting its original behaviour or some other ideas to solve my problems. I tried listening to the command the following way: CommandBinding boldBinding = new CommandBinding(EditingCommands.ToggleBold, CommandExecuted); _richTextBox.CommandBindings.Add(boldBinding); and private void CommandExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { UpdateProperties(); e.Handled = false; } This did update the properties, but the RichTextBox didn't seem to receive the command anymore. I also tried to make my own commands on the control containing the RichTextBox, but when CTRL+B is pressed when the RichTextBox has focus, the original RichTextBox commands are called instead of the new one. Many thanks in advance! Liewe

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• datagrid filter in c# using sql server

  - by malou17

  How to filter data in datagrid for example if u select the combo box in student number then input 1001 in the text field...all records in 1001 will appear in datagrid.....we are using sql server private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (cbofilter.SelectedIndex == 0) { string sql; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(); conn.ConnectionString = "Server= " + Environment.MachineName.ToString() + @"\; Initial Catalog=TEST;Integrated Security = true"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(); DataSet ds1 = new DataSet(); ds1 = DBConn.getStudentDetails("sp_RetrieveSTUDNO"); sql = "Select * from Test where STUDNO like '" + txtvalue.Text + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, conn); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; da.SelectCommand = cmd; da.Fill(ds1); dbgStudentDetails.DataSource = ds1; dbgStudentDetails.DataMember = ds1.Tables[0].TableName; dbgStudentDetails.Refresh(); } else if (cbofilter.SelectedIndex == 1) { //string sql; //SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(); //conn.ConnectionString = "Server= " + Environment.MachineName.ToString() + @"\; Initial Catalog=TEST;Integrated Security = true"; //SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(); //DataSet ds1 = new DataSet(); //ds1 = DBConn.getStudentDetails("sp_RetrieveSTUDNO"); //sql = "Select * from Test where Name like '" + txtvalue.Text + "'"; //SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql,conn); //cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; //da.SelectCommand = cmd; //da.Fill(ds1); // dbgStudentDetails.DataSource = ds1; //dbgStudentDetails.DataMember = ds1.Tables[0].TableName; //ds.Tables[0].DefaultView.RowFilter = "Studno = + txtvalue.text + "; dbgStudentDetails.DataSource = ds.Tables[0]; dbgStudentDetails.Refresh(); } }

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• ProgressDialog not working in external AsyncTask

  - by eric

  I'm beginning to think that to get a ProgressDialog to work the AsyncTask has to be an inner class within an Activity class. True? I have an activity the uses a database to manipulate information. If the database is populated all is well. If it is not populated then I need to download information from a website, populate the database, then access the populated database to complete the Views in onCreate. Problem is without some means to determine when the AsyncTask thread has finished populating the database, I get the following Force Close error message: Sorry! The application has stopped unexpectedly. I click on the Force Close button, the background AsyncTask thread continues to work, the database gets populated, and everything works ok. I need to get rid of that error message and need some help on how to do this. Here's some psuedo code: public class ViewStuff extends Activity { onCreate { if(database is populated) do_stuff else { FillDB task = null; if(task == null || task.getStatus().equals(AsyncTask.Status.FINISHED)) { task = new FillDB(context); task.execute(null); } } continue with onCreate using information from database to properly display } // end onCreate } // end class In a separate file: public class FillDB extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private Context context; public FillDB (Context c) //pass the context in the constructor { context = c; } public void filldb () { doInBackground(); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { ProgressDialog progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(context); //crashes with the following line progressDialog.show(context, "Working..", "Retrieving info"); } @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub try etc etc etc } } What am I doing wrong?

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• Convert an exception into HTTP 404 response in the Application_Error

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Bluetooth development on Windows mobile 6 C#

  - by cheesebunz

  Hi everyone, i recently started on a project which is a puzzle slider game. This application will be using the Bluetooth, and i'm working on the mobile,Samsung omnia i900. This is how my application will work. Any user with this Samsung device plays the game and starts sliding the tiles. There is an option to search and connect to other users with the same device and application, so that they can solve the puzzle together. Right now, i'm working on the Bluetooth Part but am still new to the API. I'm using the 32feet.NET inthehandpersonal.net class library while encountering much difficulties. I am able to search for devices by using: private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio.Mode = RadioMode.Discoverable; BluetoothRadio myRadio = BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio; lblSearch.Text = "" + myRadio.LocalAddress.ToString(); bluetoothClient = new BluetoothClient(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor; BluetoothDeviceInfo[] bluetoothDeviceInfo = { }; bluetoothDeviceInfo = bluetoothClient.DiscoverDevices(10); comboBox1.DataSource = bluetoothDeviceInfo; comboBox1.DisplayMember = "DeviceName"; comboBox1.ValueMember = "DeviceAddress"; comboBox1.Focus(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default; } Well, to be honest this is a rip off from some sources i found on the internet but i do understand this part. Next i went on to trying to sending a simple "testing.txt" file and i'm stucked at it. I think i will be using something like the OBEX and Obexwebrequest, obexwebresponse, Uri etc. Could anyone explain it in simple terms for me so that i could understand what they are so that i could continue pairing and etc on Bluetooth development. Sorry making it this long, really appreciate if anyone did waste some time reading it :). Hope alanM sees this :) i'm using their bluetooth library.

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• How do you handle 'SelectedItemChanged' events in a MVVM ViewModel?

  - by Travis

  I have some logic that depends upon two properties being set, as it executes when both properties have a value. For example: private void DoCalc() { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property2)) return; Property3 = Property1 + " " + Property2; } That code would need to be executed every time Property1 or Property2 changed, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it in a stylistically acceptable manner. Here are the choices as I see them: 1) Call method from ViewModel I don't have a problem with this conceptually, as the logic is still in the ViewModel - I'm not a 'No code-behind' nazi. However, the 'trigger' logic (when either property changes) is still in the UI layer, which I don't love. The codebehind would look like this: void ComboBox_Property1_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.DoCalc(); } 2) Call method from Property Setter This approach seems the most 'pure', but it also seems ugly, as if the logic is hidden. It would look like this: public string Property1 { get {return property1;} set { if (property1 != value) { property1 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("Property1"); DoCalc(); } } } 3) Hook into the PropertyChanged event I'm now thinking this might be the right approach, but it feels weird to hook into the property changed event in the implementing viewmodel. It would look something like this: public ViewModel() { this.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(ViewModel_PropertyChanged); } void ViewModel_PropertyChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.PropertyName == "Property1" || e.PropertyName == "Property2") { DoCalc(); } } So, my question is, if you were browsing through some source code with that requirement, which approach would you prefer to see implemented (and why?). Thanks for any input.

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• Problem resolving a generic Repository with Entity Framework and Castle Windsor Container

  - by user368776

  Hi, im working in a generic repository implementarion with EF v4, the repository must be resolved by Windsor Container. First the interface public interface IRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); void Delete(T entity); T Find(int key) } Then a concrete class implements the interface public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> where T: class { private IObjectSet<T> _objectSet; } So i need _objectSet to do stuff like this in the previous class public void Add(T entity) { _objectSet.AddObject(entity); } And now the problem, as you can see im using a EF interface like IObjectSet to do the work, but this type requires a constraint for the T generic type "where T: class". That constrait is causing an exception when Windsor tries to resolve its concrete type. Windsor configuration look like this. <castle> <components> <component id="LVRepository" service="Repository.Infraestructure.IRepository`1, Repository" type="Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1, Repository" lifestyle="transient"> </component> </components> The container resolve code IRepository<Product> productsRep =_container.Resolve<IRepository<Product>>(); Now the exception im gettin System.ArgumentException: GenericArguments[0], 'T', on 'Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1[T]' violates the constraint of type 'T'. ---> System.TypeLoadException: GenericArguments[0], 'T', on 'Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1[T]' violates the constraint of type parameter 'T'. If i remove the constraint in the concrete class and the depedency on IObjectSet (if i dont do it get a compile error) everything works FINE, so i dont think is a container issue, but IObjectSet is a MUST in the implementation. Some help with this, please.

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• Crystal report error message

  - by Selom

  Hi, ive been dealing with a kind of no error message my application is throwing after the setup has been installed on my machine. The application run fine and generate a report exactly the way i want it. The problem is that after compiling it as set up, it throw this message: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80000000); No error. at CrystalDesisionsReportAppServer.Controllers.DatabaseControllerClass.ReplaceConnection(Object oldConnection, Object newConnection, Object parameterFields, Object crDBOptionUseDefault) at CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.ReportDocument.SetDataSourceInternal(Object val, Type type) at CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.ReportDocument.SetDataSource(DataSet dataSet) at Presby_Soft.reportFrm.reportFrm_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) this is the code im using: Private Sub reportFrm_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load If conn.State = ConnectionState.Closed Then conn.Open() End If Try Dim rpt As New CrystalReport1() Dim da As New SQLiteDataAdapter Dim ds As New presbydbDataSet 'Dim cmd As New SQLiteCommand("SELECT personal_details.fn, training.training_level FROM personal_details INNER JOIN training ON personal_details.Staff_ID ='" + detailsFrm.Label13.Text + "'", conn) Dim cmd As New SQLiteCommand("SELECT * FROM personal_details WHERE personal_details.staff_ID='" + detailsFrm.Label13.Text + "'", conn) cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() da.SelectCommand = cmd da.Fill(ds, "personal_details") rpt.Subreports.Item("persoRpt").SetDataSource(ds) CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rpt Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.ToString) End Try conn.Close() End Sub Please help, I really don't know how to go about this problem. Thanks for answering

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• Problem adding Contact with new API

  - by Mike

  Hello, I am trying to add a new contact to my contact list using the new ContactContract API via my application. I have the following method based on the Contact Manager example on android dev. private static void addContactCore(Context context, String accountType, String accountName, String name, String phoneNumber, int phoneType) throws RemoteException, OperationApplicationException { ArrayList<ContentProviderOperation> ops = new ArrayList<ContentProviderOperation>(); //Add contact type ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.RawContacts.CONTENT_URI) .withValue(ContactsContract.RawContacts.ACCOUNT_TYPE, accountType) .withValue(ContactsContract.RawContacts.ACCOUNT_NAME, accountName) .build()); //Add contact name ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI) .withValueBackReference(ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, 0) .withValue(ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE, ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.DISPLAY_NAME, (!name.toLowerCase().equals("unavailable") && !name.equals("")) ? name : phoneNumber) .build()); //Add phone number ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI) .withValueBackReference(ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, 0) .withValue(ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE, ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.NUMBER, phoneNumber) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.TYPE, phoneType) .build()); //Add contact context.getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); } In one example I have the flowing values for the parameters. accountType:com.google accountName:(my google account email) name:Mike phoneNumber:5555555555 phoneType:3 The call to the function returns normally without any exception being thrown however the contact is no where to be found in the contact manager on my phone. There is also no contact with that information on my phone already. Does anyone have any insight into what I might be doing wrong?

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• MVVM Madness: Commands

  - by JP

  I like MVVM. I don't love it, but like it. Most of it makes sense. But, I keep reading articles that encourage you to write a lot of code so that you can write XAML and don't have to write any code in the code-behind. Let me give you an example. Recently I wanted to hookup a command in my ViewModel to a ListView MouseDoubleClickEvent. I wasn't quite sure how to do this. Fortunately, Google has answers for everything. I found the following articles: http://blog.functionalfun.net/2008/09/hooking-up-commands-to-events-in-wpf.html http://joyfulwpf.blogspot.com/2009/05/mvvm-invoking-command-on-attached-event.html http://sachabarber.net/?p=514 http://geekswithblogs.net/HouseOfBilz/archive/2009/08/27/adventures-in-mvvm-ndash-binding-commands-to-any-event.aspx http://marlongrech.wordpress.com/2008/12/13/attachedcommandbehavior-v2-aka-acb/ While the solutions were helpful in my understanding of commands, there were problems. Some of the aforementioned solutions rendered the WPF designer unusable because of a common hack of appending "Internal" after a dependency property; the WPF designer can't find it, but the CLR can. Some of the solutions didn't allow multiple commands to the same control. Some of the solutions didn't allow parameters. After experimenting for a few hours I just decided to do this: private void ListView_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ListView lv = sender as ListView; MyViewModel vm = this.DataContext as MyViewModel; vm.DoSomethingCommand.Execute(lv.SelectedItem); } So, MVVM purists, please tell me what's wrong with this? I can still Unit test my command. This seems very practical, but seems to violate the guideline of "ZOMG... you have code in your code-behind!!!!" Please share your thoughts. Thanks in advance.

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• Flex 3 : UIComponent.addChild issue

  - by Frank

  Hello SOers, I've run into a nice problem with the UIComponent.addChild(...) function. First of all, I'm using ESRI Api for Flex. In this API you find a class called Graphic that inherits UIComponent. Basically, I'm trying to add, as a child, a Graphic 'g' to another graphic 'parent'. So that when you delete the 'parent' graphic the 'g' graphic deletes as well. private function writeMeasurements(parent:Graphic):void { var g:Graphic; if(parent.geometry.extent != null) g = new Graphic(parent.geometry.extent.center); else g = new Graphic(parent.geometry); g.initialize(); g.name = UIDUtil.createUID(); g.symbol = txtSym; graphicsLayer.add(g); parent.addChild(g); } graphicsLayer class This code actually runs pretty fine. The problem is after... it's like if the addChild function was asynchronious. This is the error I get : TypeError: Error #1009: Il est impossible d'accéder à la propriété ou à la méthode d'une référence d'objet nul. at com.esri.ags::Graphic/updateDisplayList()[C:\checkout\flex_api\api\src\com\esri\ags\Graphic.as:346] at mx.core::UIComponent/validateDisplayList() at mx.managers::LayoutManager/validateDisplayList() at mx.managers::LayoutManager/doPhasedInstantiation() at Function/http://adobe.com/AS3/2006/builtin::apply() at mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher2() at mx.core::UIComponent/callLaterDispatcher() I know this is a very specific question, but I think you guys are the BEST! Thanks.

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• Static IP for dynamic IP

  - by scape279

  I have a dynamic IP address. I would like to have a static IP, but Virgin Media don't allow static IPs for residential broadband services, even if you ask them really nicely and offer to pay for it without switching to a business tariff. I am already registered with a dynamic DNS service which is updated by my router eg me.example.com will always resolve to my dynamic IP. This is fine for some circumstances, but not if you can only enter an IP address into configuration files/hardware etc like firewalls, subversion services etc etc. Is there a way I can have a static IP address 'forwarding' to my dynamic IP? Would a possible solution involve tunnelling? Setting up a private proxy? Please note the following: I am able to buy an IP address from my web host. I have access to a webserver and I am able to create custom DNS zones. I'm happy to have a webserver running at home if necessary also. I do not wish to change broadband providers. I have zero control over the services that require the IP address entering so I cannot tackle the problem that way round (services I need to access are at work). PS I've tried googling this issue, but it is very difficult to search for as most results are related to dynamic dns (which I already have set up and isnt quite what I'm after)

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• Rotate a Swing JLabel

  - by Johannes Rössel

  I am currently trying to implement a Swing component, inheriting from JLabel which should simply represent a label that can be oriented vertically. Beginning with this: public class RotatedLabel extends JLabel { public enum Direction { HORIZONTAL, VERTICAL_UP, VERTICAL_DOWN } private Direction direction; I thought it's be a nice idea to just alter the results from getPreferredSize(): @Override public Dimension getPreferredSize() { // swap size for vertical alignments switch (getDirection()) { case VERTICAL_UP: case VERTICAL_DOWN: return new Dimension(super.getPreferredSize().height, super .getPreferredSize().width); default: return super.getPreferredSize(); } } and then simply transform the Graphics object before I offload painting to the original JLabel: @Override protected void paintComponent(Graphics g) { Graphics2D gr = (Graphics2D) g.create(); switch (getDirection()) { case VERTICAL_UP: gr.translate0, getPreferredSize().getHeight()); gr.transform(AffineTransform.getQuadrantRotateInstance(-1)); break; case VERTICAL_DOWN: // TODO break; default: } super.paintComponent(gr); } } It seems to work—somehow—in that the text is now displayed vertically. However, placement and size are off: Actually, the width of the background (orange in this case) is identical with the height of the surrounding JFrame which is ... not quite what I had in mind. Any ideas how to solve that in a proper way? Is delegating rendering to superclasses even encouraged?

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• wpf cancel backgroundworker on application exits

  - by toni

  Hi! In my application I have a main windows and into it, in a frame I load a page. This page do a long time task when the user press a button. My problem is that when long task is being doing and the user presses the close button of the main window, the application seems to not finish because I am debugging it in VS2008 and I can see the stop button highlighted. If I want to finish I have to press stop button, the application doesn't stop the debugging automatically on application exit. I thought .NET stops automatically backgroundworkers on application exits but I am not sure after seeing this behaviour. I have tried to force and cancel background worker in unloaded event page with something like this: private void Page_Unloaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // Is the Background Worker do some work? if (My_BgWorker != null && My_BgWorker.IsBusy) { //If it supports cancellation, Cancel It if (My_BgWorker.WorkerSupportsCancellation) { // Tell the Background Worker to stop working. My_BgWorker.CancelAsync(); } } } but with no success. After doing CancelAsync(), a few minutes after, I can see the backgroundworker finishes and raise RunWorkerCompleted and I can see the task is completed checking e.Cancelled argument in the event but after this event is exectued the application continues without exiting and I have no idea what is doing.... I set WorkerSupportsCancellation to true to support cancel at the begining. I would apreciate all answers. Thanks.

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• Entity Data Model & DataGridView - Creating new objects

  - by AcousticBoom

  I'm pretty new to the EDM, so bear with me. I have a windows form that has a DataGridView on it that's bound from the EDM I created. I figured out how to update my changes fine, but it's when the user creates a new row that I'm having a problem. I tried numerous ways and many google searches, but came up with nothing so far. Here's how the data is loaded: Dim boilerID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlBoiler.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim countryID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlCountry.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim ratings = From r In _Context.Rating _ Where r.Boiler.Boiler_ID = boilerID _ And r.Country.Country_ID = countryID _ Order By r.Sequence _ Select r RatingBindingSource.DataSource = ratings.ToList() Also, all I'm doing to save the information right now is the following: Private Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click _Context.SaveChanges() End Sub I want the user to be able to use the grid's "new row" feature to add new items to the database instead of having to click a button and open a new dialog. How would this be accomplished? I can include some of the methods i tried for adding new items if anyone needs to see. Thanks!

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• C# CreatePipe() -> Protected memory error

  - by M. Dimitri

  Hi all, I trying to create a pipe using C#. The code is quite simple but I get a error saying "Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Here the COMPLETE code of my form : public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool CreatePipe(out SafeFileHandle hReadPipe, out SafeFileHandle hWritePipe, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES lpPipeAttributes, int nSize); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES { public DWORD nLength; public IntPtr lpSecurityDescriptor; public bool bInheritHandle; } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btCreate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES sa = new SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES(); sa.nLength = (DWORD)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.SizeOf(sa); sa.lpSecurityDescriptor = IntPtr.Zero; sa.bInheritHandle = true; SafeFileHandle hWrite = null; SafeFileHandle hRead = null; if (CreatePipe(out hRead, out hWrite, sa, 4096)) { MessageBox.Show("Pipe created !"); } else MessageBox.Show("Error : Pipe not created !"); } } At the top I declare : using DWORD = System.UInt32; Thank you very much if someone can help.

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• Ipad MPMovieplayerController video loads but automatically pauses when played

  - by slayerIQ

  Hello I am trying to get the MPMovieplayerController to work. I load a video everything goes wel i even see the first frame but then it automatically pauses, if i press play it pauses again. In the simulator it works perfectly but on the ipad device it gives the problem. I can even seek through the video and i see the frame i seeked to but nothing plays. This is some output from the console: 2010-06-08 22:16:13.145 app[3089:207] Using two-stage rotation animation. To use the smoother single-stage animation, this application must remove two-stage method implementations. [Switching to thread 12803] warning: Unable to read symbols for "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/3.2 (7B367)/Symbols/System/Library/VideoDecoders/VCH263.videodecoder" (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols for "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/3.2 (7B367)/Symbols/System/Library/VideoDecoders/H264H2.videodecoder" (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols for "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/3.2 (7B367)/Symbols/System/Library/VideoDecoders/MP4VH2.videodecoder" (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols for "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/3.2 (7B367)/Symbols/System/Library/VideoDecoders/JPEGH1.videodecoder" (file not found). 2010-06-08 22:16:15.145 app[3089:207] setting file:///private/var/mobile/Applications/46CE5456-6338-4BBF-A560-DCEFF700ACE0/tmp/MediaCache/ I dont get those warning when using the simulator BTW. Does anyone know how to fix this ?

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• Permission denied for cvs server via ssh

  - by NovumCoder

  I cant create a new project by importing a java project via eclipse onto my cvs server via internet. I created a directory as root called /priv/cvs/. Then i called "cvs -d /priv/cvs/ init". I created a user named cvs and a groups called cvs. The repository is owned by cvs and in group cvs. Then i created a user "ben" and his only group is cvs. I "chrooted" the user "ben" accessing only the cvs functionality by not allowing to access the server via ssh with password, only by using a public key which is added in his home directory on the server in file authorized_keys2. the contect of authorized_keys2 is as follows: no-port-forwarding,no-X11-forwarding,command="/usr/bin/cvs server" ssh-rsa [public_key_content] rsa-key Connecting to the server works pretty fine. Eclipse asks for the passphrase for the private key to connect to the server. Authentication works and eclipse is able to run cvs commands. But when importing my project by using Team-Share Project. I get the error: The server reported an error: Permission denied projectname: cvs server: cannot open /priv/cvs/CVSROOT/config: Permission denied projectname: Cannot access /priv/cvs/CVSROOT The access right for the cvs root (/priv/cvs/) is set to 770. Which means that the owner, which is cvs and the group participants of the group cvs are allowed to read and write. Why do i get Permission denied? When i set the folder to 777, which means read/write to ALL, then it works. But i dont want that. I only want cvs users read/write to this folder? Is there something i misunderstood about access rules?

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• C#: How to force "calling" a method from the main thread by signaling in some way from another thread

  - by Fire-Dragon-DoL

  Sorry for long title, I don't know even the way on how to express the question I'm using a library which run a callback from a different context from the main thread (is a C Library), I created the callback in C# and when gets called I would like to just raise an event. However because I don't know what will be inside the event, I would like to find a way to invoke the method without the problem of locks and so on (otherwise the third party user will have to handle this inside the event, very ugly) Are there any way to do this? I can be totally on the wrong way but I'm thinking about winforms way to handle different threads (the .Invoke thing) Otherwise I can send a message to the message loop of the window, but I don't know a lot about message passing and if I can send "custom" messages like this Example: private uint lgLcdOnConfigureCB(int connection, System.IntPtr pContext) { OnConfigure(EventArgs.Empty); return 0U; } this callback is called from another program which I don't have control over, I would like to run OnConfigure method in the main thread (the one that handles my winform), how to do it? Or in other words, I would like to run OnConfigure without the need of thinking about locks

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• PInvoke Unbalances the stack

  - by Giawa

  Good afternoon, I have been working on a dll that can use CORBA to communicate to an application that is network aware. The code works fine if I run it as a C++ console application. However, I have gotten stuck on exporting the methods as a dll. The methods seems to export fine, and if I call a method with no parameters then it works as expected. I'm hung up on passing a C# string to a C++ method. My C++ method header looks like this: bool __declspec(dllexport) SpiceStart(char* installPath) My C# DLL import code is as follows: [DllImportAttribute("SchemSipc.dll", CharSet=CharSet.Ansi)] private static extern bool SpiceStart(string installPath); I call the method like so: bool success = SpiceStart(@"c:\sedatools"); The call to SpiceStart throws the exception "PInvokeStackImbalance", which "is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature." Does anyone have any suggestions? If I remove the char* and string from the parameters, then the method runs just fine. However, I'd like to be able to pass the installation path of the application to the dll from C#. Thanks in advance, Giawa

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• cascading combo box causing empty fields in next record

  - by glinch

  Hi there, I'm having problems with a cascading combo box. Everything works fine with the combo boxes and the values get populated correctly. Private Sub cmbAdjComp_AfterUpdate() Me.cboAdjOff.RowSource = "SELECT AdjusterCompanyOffice.ID, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address1, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address2, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address3, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address4, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address5 FROM" & _ " AdjusterCompanyOffice WHERE AdjusterCompanyOffice.AdjCompID = " & Me.cmbAdjComp.Column(1) & _ " ORDER BY AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address1" Me.cboAdjOff = Me.cboAdjOff.ItemData(0) End Sub The secondary combo box has a row source query: SELECT AdjusterCompanyOffice.ID, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address1, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address2, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address3, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address4, AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address5 FROM AdjusterCompanyOffice ORDER BY AdjusterCompanyOffice.Address1; Both comboboxes have the same controlsource. Everything works fine and dandy moving between records and the boxes show the correct fields for each record. When i use the first combo box, and then select the appropriate option in the second combo box, everything works great on the specific record. However when I move to the next record, the values in the second combo box are all empty. If i close the form and reopen it, and avoid using the cascading combo boxes all the values are all correct when i move between records. Somehow using the cascading combo boxes creates a conflict with the row source of the secondary combo box. Hope that is clear! Have been rummaging around for an answer but cant find anything. any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks Noel

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• How do you host multiple public facing websites on a VPS?

  - by Petras

  We host about 30 websites using typical shared hosting plans using ASP.NET and SQL 2000/2005/2008. I am now wondering about hosting all of these websites using our own virtual private server such as http://www.crystaltech.com/vps.aspx This is clearly cheaper but comes with a lot of questions I need answers to: Is the risk of having to keep this VPS server up and running worth it? Until now, the host provider has managed the server and we have not had to worry about crashes, downtime, software patches etc. We are not server administrators, we are programmers, so this is not really our expertise. On the other hand, it may not be hard to learn. When we make a website live, we log in to a domain management control panel and change the primary and secondary name servers to point to our shared web host: Eg ns1.sharedwebhost.com and ns2.sharedwebhost.com These name servers are going to have to change when we have a VPS. I don’t understand anything about how to set this up. Is there some useful info anyone could direct me to? Or is there software we need to install to make the primary and secondary name servers work on our VPS? The control panel we have for shared hosting comes with DNS management like this: What software would I need to install to create this for each site we host at a VPS? The control panel we have for shared hosting also comes with a POP email interface that allows email addresses to be added easily: Is this something that can be easily set up at a VPS so clients can manage their own email addresses? Is there software we need to install to make this work?

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• JQuery BlockUI - How to unblock UI after file download?

  - by Dan

  Using ASP.Net, JQuery and BlockUI, I'm trying to unblock the UI after a download file dialog is shown. I block the UI when export button is clicked: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#<%= BtnExport.ClientID%>').click(function(){ $.blockUI(); }); }); </script> After this, I generate the file server side using: private void SendFileToUser(byte[] file, string contentType, string filename) { Response.Clear(); Response.ContentType = contentType; Response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename="+filename); Response.OutputStream.Write(file,0,file.Length); Response.OutputStream.Flush(); Response.End(); } After this code has executed, I would like to unblock the UI. I have considered different options: Poll using Ajax calls to see if the file has been generated. Store the file in Session and redirect to same page and generate download then. But both options seem ackward, and I think there must be a clever JavaScript way to get a handle on or wait for a file dialog. Any suggestions?

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• Send Data Using the WebRequest Class to DotNetOpenAuth website

  - by Denis

  I am trying to send data to DotNetOpenAuth website as described here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/debx8sh9.aspx Sender receive (500) Internal Server Error. The same code for blank website without DotNetOpenAuth works fine. Should I tweak something? Here is an exception: System.ArgumentNullException was unhandled by user code Message="Value cannot be null.\r\nParameter name: key" Source="mscorlib" ParamName="key" StackTrace: at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentNullException(ExceptionArgument argument) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Add(TKey key, TValue value) at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ChannelElements.OAuthChannel.ReadFromRequestCore(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ChannelElements\OAuthChannel.cs:line 145 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 372 at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ServiceProvider.cs:line 222 Exception occurs on last line of the code: private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Don't read OAuth messages directed at the OAuth controller or else we'll fail nonce checks. if (this.IsOAuthControllerRequest()) { return; } if (HttpContext.Current.Request.HttpMethod != "HEAD") { // workaround: avoid involving OAuth for HEAD requests. IDirectedProtocolMessage incomingMessage = OAuthServiceProvider.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(new HttpRequestInfo(this.application.Context.Request));

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• InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) when trying to Compile a Lambda Expression

  - by Moshe Levi

  Hello, I'm writing an Expression Parser to make my API more refactor friendly and less error prone. basicaly, I want the user to write code like that: repository.Get(entity => entity.Id == 10); instead of: repository.Get<Entity>("Id", 10); Extracting the member name from the left side of the binary expression was straight forward. The problems began when I tried to extract the value from the right side of the expression. The above snippet demonstrates the simplest possible case which involves a constant value but it can be much more complex involving closures and what not. After playing with that for some time I gave up on trying to cover all the possible cases myself and decided to use the framework to do all the heavy lifting for me by compiling and executing the right side of the expression. the relevant part of the code looks like that: public static KeyValuePair<string, object> Parse<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { var binaryExpression = (BinaryExpression)expression.Body; string memberName = ParseMemberName(binaryExpression.Left); object value = ParseValue(binaryExpression.Right); return new KeyValuePair<string, object>(memberName, value); } private static object ParseValue(Expression expression) { Expression conversionExpression = Expression.Convert(expression, typeof(object)); var lambdaExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<object>>(conversionExpression); Func<object> accessor = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return accessor(); } Now, I get an InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) in the Compile line. when I googled for the solution I came up with similar questions that involved building an expression by hand and not supplying all the pieces, or trying to rely on parameters having the same name and not the same reference. I don't think that this is the case here because I'm reusing the given expression. I would appreciate if someone will give me some pointers on this. Thank you.

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