Search Results

Search found 57030 results on 2282 pages for 'asp net mvc controllers'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 532/2282 | < Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >

  • How can I send an array of strings from one ASP.NET page to another?

    - by Andrei
    Hello. I now have two asp.net pages. When I click on a link on page A, I open the other one (let's call it page B). When I do this, I want to send some information from Page A to Page B in the form of an array of strings. This array is different depending on what link I follow on Page A. I know I could send this information via the URL with the ?string1=bla1&string2=bla2 etc., but I don't want it that way, as it can get complicated if there are too many strings in the array. I think there is something similar, like a POST in PHP, but how would that be in ASP? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • How would I initialize these two lists so that modifying one doesn't modify the other?

    - by Brandon
    I'm aware of why this is happening, but is there any way to do this without having to implement ICloneable or a Copy() method? Preferably .net 2.0, but 3.5 is fine if it is necessary. Essentially I'm trying to implement an undo method. In most cases I can just perform the reverse action in the Undo(), but for others that is not possible. So I want to keep two lists. One for the list of items that I will be modifying, and one for the original, unmodified list of items. This way if I need to do an undo, I just delete the modified items and replace them with the originals. Most of the ways I've tried to assign the _originalItems variable doesn't work, so what would I need to do? public MyClass(List<SelectedItems> selectedItems) { _selectedItems = new List<SelectedItems>(selectedItems); _originalItems = ?? }

    Read the article

  • How do I access a DIV from javascript, if ASP.NET mangles its ID?

    - by Rising Star
    I have a web page that contains a "div" element. On the page, there is javascript to reference the div: document.getElementById('divId'). This was working fine until another developer redesigned the page to use an ASP master page. Now, document.getElementById('divId') returns null. It appears that ASP.net prepends some characters to the names of elements within contents forms when you use a master page. How can I know what the id of the div is when the page loads? Update Allow me to give a specific example to clarify the question: My page had a div with ID divNotice. After changing my page to use a master page, I see when I print the source to the page that renders that the div ID is ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_divNotice. My question is, how am I supposed to know what the div ID is going to be when the framework is done with it?

    Read the article

  • Paging using Linq-To-Sql based on two parameters in asp.net mvc...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    As two parameters i say currentPage and pagesize .....I thus far used sql server stored procedures and implemented paging like this, GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetMaterialsInView] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @CurrentPage INT, @PageSize INT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM ( SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM InTimePagingView ) AS InTimePages WHERE Row >= (@CurrentPage - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND Row <= @CurrentPage*@PageSize SELECT COUNT(*) as TotalCount FROM InTimePagingView SELECT CEILING(COUNT(*) / CAST(@PageSize AS FLOAT)) NumberOfPages FROM InTimePagingView END Now i am using Linq-to-sql and i use this, public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Is_Deleted == 0 select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } Now i want to return the records,TotalCount where i use Total count to generate pagenumbers..... Is this possible... Any suggestion... EDIT: Just found this... NorthWindDataContext db = new NorthWindDataContext(); var query = from c in db.Customers select c.CompanyName; //Assuming Page Number = 2, Page Size = 10 int iPageNum = 2; int iPageSize = 10; var PagedData = query.Skip((iPageNum - 1) * iPageSize).Take(iPageSize); ObjectDumper.Write(PagedData);

    Read the article

  • Table Adaptor Error when trying update

    - by JasonMc92
    Hi, I have a rather perplexing issue. I am using VB.net and SQL for my project. I have a database, to which the connection works. I also have a data table and data adaptor, both of which I know work. I am trying to update something in the database, yet it isn't working. Assume everything listed is declared correctly. What am I doing wrong? teacher_control_table.Rows(0)("DATA_TeacherLockPasscode") = txtPasscode1.Text table_adaptor2.Update(teacher_control_table) That last line throws the following exception: InvalidOperationException was unhandled. update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows.

    Read the article

  • How do I include a newline in a text message sent as email from an ASP.Net application?

    - by Tim Goodman
    I have an ASP.Net Application that sends text messages to mobile phones. It does this by sending an email. For instance, if your phone number is 555-555-5555 and your wireless carrier is Verizon, you can send an email to [email protected] and it will show up as a text message. I want to be able to include a newline in the body of the message. How do I do this? Also please note that my ASP.Net program gets the message from a database (MS SQL Server) so what I really need to know is what characters to include in the message body when I store it in my database. I already tried \n but it just showed up in the text message as \n

    Read the article

  • Where does the query language sit within the MVC pattern?

    - by weesilmania
    I'd assume that since the query language sits within the controller (typically) that it belongs to that component, but if I play devil's advocate I'd argue that the query language is execute within the domain of the model, and is tightly coupled to that component so it might also be a part of it. Anyone know the answer? Is there a straight answer or is it technology specific?

    Read the article

  • how to pass an integeter array from a asp.net mvc controller action back to javascript using jquery

    - by oo
    Here is my jQuery code: $.get('/Home/GetList', function(data) { debugger; $('#myMultiSelect').val(data); }); Here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetList(int id) { int[] bodyParts = _repository.GetList(id); //how do i return this as an array back to javascript ?? } if I have the GetList function return an array of integers, how do I return this to the jQuery function?

    Read the article

  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

    Read the article

  • Why is my view controllers view not quadratic?

    - by mystify
    I created an UIViewController subclass, and figured out that the default implementation of -loadView in UIViewController will ignore my frame size settings in a strange way. To simplify it and to make sure it's really not the fault of my code, I did a clean test with a plain instance of UIViewController directly, rather than making a subclass. The result is the same. I try to make an exactly quadratic view of 320 x 320, but the view appears like 320 x 200. iPhone OS 3.0, please check this out: UIViewController *ts = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; ts.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f); ts.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self.view addSubview:ts.view]; like you can see, I do this: 1) Create a UIViewController instance 2) Set the frame of the view to a quadratic dimension of 320 x 320 3) Give it a color, so I can see it 4) Added it as a subview. Now the part, that's even more strange: When I make my own implementation of -loadView, i.e. if I put this code in there like this: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; self.view = v; [v release]; } then it looks right. Now lets think about that: In the first example, I do pretty much exactly the same, just that I let UIViewController create the view on it's own, and then take it over in order to change it's frame. Right? So why do I get this strange error? Right now I see no other way of messing around like that to correct this wrong behavior. I did not activate anything like clipsToBounds and there's no other code touching this.

    Read the article

  • Using a custom annotation on a Spring MVC controller method from an interceptor.

    - by Speck
    I have a custom annotation with which I've annotated a method in my Controller alongside a @ReqestMapping. The goal is to use the values set in the custom annotation from a HandlerInterceptor to perform a task. I have the interceptor (HandlerInterceptorAdaptor) mapped and it executes. If I set a breakpoint in my concrete Interceptor I can inspect the HttpServletRequest, HttpServletResponse, and handler Objects. However, I cannot see how to 1, obtain the method which the request is trying to access 2, obtain the Annotations on that method and 3, of course, obtain the values set by the annotation. Can anyone point me to good documentation for this? Please and Thank You.

    Read the article

  • Redirect to current view on error in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use TempData["message"] which internally uses session.... It works for me but when i do a return RedirectToAction("Create"); my other values are not restored because i am redirecting to Create view... Any suggestion how to retain the values of textboxes in the view..... if (!regrep.registerUser(reg)) { TempData["message"] = string.Format("{0} already exists", reg.EmailId); return RedirectToAction("Create"); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

    Read the article

  • In .NET MVC, is there an easy way to check if I'm on the home page?

    - by Hairgami_Master
    I need to take a particular action if a user logs in from the home page. In my LogOnModel, I have a hidden field: @Html.Hidden("returnUrl", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri) In my Controller, I need to check if that value is the Home page or not. In the example below, I'm checking to see if the user is on a particular page ("Account/ResetPassword"). Is there a way to check to see if they're on the home page without resorting to regular expressions? [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOnInt(LogOnModel model) { if (model.returnUrl.Contains("/Account/ResetPassword")) { return Json(new { redirectToUrl = @Url.Action("Index","Home")}); } Any ideas? A million thanks!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Where do you put your .js files if you dont want to store them in /Scripts?

    - by Jimbo
    I have a number of .js files that I would like to be stored in the same directories as their views (they're specific to a view - its simply to keep the javascript separate from the view's HTML) However, adding them to the /Views/ControllerName/ directory wont work because when a request is made to the webserver for the .js file: <script type="text/javascript" src="/Views/ControllerName/myscript.js"></script> It would essentially be directed at the 'Views' controller which obviously doesnt exist. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC: Where to place validation and how to validation entity references.

    - by arrages
    Let's say I have the following command bean for creating a user: public class CreateUserCommand { private String userName; private String email; private Integer occupationId; pirvate Integer countryId; } occupationId and countryId are drop down selected values on the form. They map to an entity in the database (Occupation, Country). This command object is going to be fed to a service facade like so: userServiceFacade.createUser(CreateUserCommand command); This facade will construct a user entity to be sent to the actual service. So I suppose that in the facade layer I will have to make several dao calls to map all the lookup properties of the User entity. Based on this what is the best strategy to validate that occupationId and countryId map to real entities? Where is the best place to perform this validation? There is the spring validator but I am not sure this is the best place for this, for one I am wary of this method as validation is tied to the web tier, but also that means I would need to make the dao calls in the validator for validation but I would need to call the dao's in the facade layer again when the command - entity translation occurs. Is there anything I can do better? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • iPhone xcode - Best way to control audio from several view controllers

    - by Are Refsdal
    Hi, I am pretty new to iPhone programming. I have a navBar with three views. I need to control audio from all of the views. I only want one audio stream to play at a time. I was thinking that it would be smart to let my AppDelegate have an instance of my audioplaying class and let the three other views use that instance to control the audio. My problem is that I don´t know how my views can use the audioplaying class in my AppDelegate. Is this the best approach and if so, how? Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASPNET MVC what do you call this, a partial view? Or something else?

    - by JK
    I'm trying to google for info on a situation, but I dont know what it is called, so its hard to find results :) I have a model with say 10 fields. But only some of those are shown on a particular view, lets say 3 of them: id, name, date. What do you call this kind of view that does not display the whole model? A partial view? The problem is that because 7 fields are not sent to the view, when the Update action is called on the controller, those fields are null, and the DB gets updated with those 7 fields set to null.

    Read the article

  • How to access data binding object in aspx page in ASP.NET?

    - by weilin8
    I am trying to hide or show a certain section of my table depending on the value of a property in my binding object(s). public class Class1 { public bool Display { get; set; } } In ASP.NET MVC, I can just do the following (assuming that Class1 is the model that binds to the page.) <table> <tr>Row 1</tr> <tr>Row 2</tr> <% if(Model.Display) { %> <tr>Row 3</tr> <tr>Row 4</tr> <% } %> </table> How can I achieve the same behavior in transitional ASP.NET? That "Model" variable is not available. How do I retrieve the data binding object? Thanks.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >