Search Results

Search found 34893 results on 1396 pages for 'const method'.

Page 532/1396 | < Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >

• WPF - Dynamic tooltip

  - by Al Mackenzie

  I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

  Read the article

• Understanding asp.net mvc IView and IView.Render

  - by Harpreet

  I'm trying to devise a method of doing VERY simple asp.net mvc plugins but mostly I'm trying to understand how view rendering works. I've distilled my problem down to this public class CustomView : IView { public void Render(ViewContext viewContext, TextWriter writer) { writer.Write( /* string to render */); } } Now, within that write method I can render any string to the view but when I put a line of code in there wrapped with <% % it renders the code to the view literally rather than parsing it and executing it. I've tried adding things like <% @Page ... to the beginning of the string and it just renders that literally as well. Among many attempts I'm currently calling it this way within a controller action: ... CustomView customView = new CustomView(); ViewResult result = new ViewResult(); result.View = customView; result.ViewName = "Index.aspx"; result.MasterName = ""; return result; What am I missing or doing wrong that this won't work? The ViewResult seems to have the WebFormViewEngine in its ViewEngines collection. I just want to understand this and after stripping it down to what I think should be the minimum it doesn't behave as I think it should. I'm guessing some other part of the machinery is involved/missing but I can't figure out what.

  Read the article

• WCF: Per-Call and Per-Session services...need convincing that Per-Call is worthwhile

  - by mrlane

  Hello all. We are currently doing a review of our WCF service design and one thing that is bothering me is the decision between Per-Call and Per-Session services. I believe I understand the concept behind both, but I am not really seeing the advantage of Per-Call services. I understand that the motivation for using Per-Call services is that a WCF services only holds a servier object for the life of a call thereby restricting the time that an expensive resource is held by the service instance, but to me its much simpler to use the more OO like Per-Session model where your proxy object instance always corrisponds to the same server object instance and just handle any expensive resources manually. For example, say I have a CRUD Service with Add, Update, Delete, Select methods on it. This could be done as a Per-Call service with database connection (the "expensive resource") instanciated in the server object constructor. Alternately it could be a Per-Session service with a database connection instanciated and closed within each CRUD method exposed. To me it is no different resource wise and it makes the programming model simpler as the client can be assured that they always have the same server object for their proxies: any in-expensive state that there may be between calls is maintained and no extra parameters are needed on methods to identify what state data must be retrieved by the service when it is instanciating a new server object again (as in the case of Per-Call). Its just like using classes and objects, where the same resource management issues apply, but we dont create new object instances for each method call we have on an object! So what am I missing with the Per-Call model? Thanks

  Read the article

• Moq: Unable to cast to interface

  - by Pickels

  Hello, earlier today I asked this question. So since moq creates it's own class from an interface I wasn't able to cast it to a different class. So it got me wondering what if I created a ICustomPrincipal and tried to cast to that. This is how my mocks look: var MockHttpContext = new Mock<HttpContextBase>(); var MockPrincipal = new Mock<ICustomPrincipal>(); MockHttpContext.SetupGet(h => h.User).Returns(MockPrincipal.Object); In the method I am trying to test the follow code gives the error(again): var user = (ICustomPrincipal)httpContext.User; The error is the following: Unable to cast object of type 'IPrincipalProxy4081807111564298854aabfc890edcc8' to type 'MyProject.Web.ICustomPrincipal'. I guess I still need some practice with interfaces and moq but shouldn't I be able to cast the class that moq created back to ICustomPrincipal? I know httpContext.User returns an IPrincipal so maybe something gets lost there? Well if anybody can help me I would appreciate that. Pickels Edit: As requested the full code of the method I am testing. It's still not finished but this is what I have so far: public bool AuthorizeCore(HttpContextBase httpContext) { if (httpContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("httpContext"); } var user = (ICustomPrincipal)httpContext.User; if (!user.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { return false; } return true; }

  Read the article

• How countdown get Synchronise with jquery using "jquery.countdown.js" plugin?

  - by ricky roy

  unable to get the correct Ans as i am getting from the Jquery I am using jquery.countdown.js ref. site http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html here is my code [WebMethod] public static String GetTime() { DateTime dt = new DateTime(); dt = Convert.ToDateTime("April 9, 2010 22:38:10"); return dt.ToString("dddd, dd MMMM yyyy HH:mm:ss"); } html file <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery.countdown.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; } function watchCountdown() { } function liftOff() { } </script>

  Read the article

• Java SwingWorker still uses 98% CPU after it's done.

  - by RemiX

  I am new to the Java SwingWorker class, but I'm trying to get it to do some stuff in the background. That part works already, but now, when it is finished, the Windows Task Manager still shows that 70-98% of the CPU is still being used. Before I hit the 'Start' button it is only 3-15% and after I close the program it returns to those values. But what is still happening when the SwingWorker already reported being done?? I'll give you a simplified version of my code: I have this StereoProcessor extending SwingWorker, with doInBackground(): yLoop for(some values y) { for(some values x) { if(isCancelled()) break yLoop; else { setProgress(to some value); // do some non-SingWorker-related stuff } } } return returnValue; I call to this process through another code: stereoProcessor.addPropertyChangeListener(new PropertyChangeListener() { public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { if(evt.getPropertyName().equals("state")) if(evt.getNewValue().equals(StereoProcessor.StateValue.DONE) { // do stuff } } } }); stereoProcessor.computeSomething(); // this method calls execute() That's about it, so I don't understand what it keeps doing. I tried putting some System.outs in the code in different places, but all stopped printing after a while. Does anyone know what's going on? Edit: I noticed the CPU also keeps running after a simple call to a method in StereoProcessor that doesn't even call execute()...

  Read the article

• Draw to offscreen renderbuffer in OpenGL ES (iPhone)

  - by David Ensminger

  I'm trying to create an offscreen render buffer in OpenGL ES on the iPhone. I've created the buffer like this: glGenFramebuffersOES(1, &offscreenFramebuffer); glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, offscreenFramebuffer); glGenRenderbuffersOES(1, &offscreenRenderbuffer); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); glFramebufferRenderbufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); But I'm confused on how to render the storage. Apple's documentation says to use the EAGLContext renderBufferStorage:fromDrawable: method, but this seems to only work for one render buffer (the main one being displayed). If I use the normal OpenGL function glRenderBufferStorageOES, then I can't seem to get it to display. Here's the code: // this is in the initialization section: glRenderbufferStorageOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RGB8_OES, backingWidth, backingHeight); // and this is when I'm trying to draw to it and display it: glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, offscreenFramebuffer); GLfloat vc[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 10.0f, 10.0f, 10.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, -10.0f, -10.0f, -10.0f, }; glLoadIdentity(); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vc); glDrawArrays(GL_LINES, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, offscreenRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Doing it this way, nothing is displayed on the screen. However, if I switch out the references to "offscreen...Buffer" to the buffers that were created with the renderBufferStorage method, it works fine. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Getting Nested Object Property Value Using Reflection

  - by Kumar

  I have the following two classes: public class Address { public string AddressLine1 { get; set; } public string AddressLine2 { get; set; } public string City { get; set; } public string State { get; set; } public string Zip { get; set; } } public class Employee { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string MiddleName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Address EmployeeAddress { get; set; } } I have an instance of the employee class as follows: var emp1Address = new Address(); emp1Address.AddressLine1 = "Microsoft Corporation"; emp1Address.AddressLine2 = "One Microsoft Way"; emp1Address.City = "Redmond"; emp1Address.State = "WA"; emp1Address.Zip = "98052-6399"; var emp1 = new Employee(); emp1.FirstName = "Bill"; emp1.LastName = "Gates"; emp1.EmployeeAddress = emp1Address; I have a method which gets the property value based on the property name as follows: public object GetPropertyValue(object obj ,string propertyName) { var objType = obj.GetType(); var prop = objType.GetProperty(propertyName); return prop.GetValue(obj, null); } The above method works fine for calls like GetPropertyValue(emp1, "FirstName") but if I try GetPropertyValue(emp1, "Address.AddressLine1") it throws an exception because objType.GetProperty(propertyName); is not able to locate the nested object property value. Is there a way to fix this?

  Read the article

• Android addTextChangedListener onTextChanged not fired when Backspace is pressed?

  - by tsil

  I use addTextChangeListener to filter a list items. When the user enters a character on the editText, items are filtered based on user input. For example, if the user enters "stackoverflow", all items that contains "stackoverflow" are displayed. It works fine except that once the user press backspace to delete character(s), items are no longer filtered until he deletes all characters. For example, my items are: "stackoverflow 1", "stackoverflow 2", "stackoverflow 3", "stackoverflow 4". If user input is "stackoverflow", all items are displayed. If user input is "stackoverflow 1", only "stackoverflow 1" is displayed. Then user deletes the last 2 characters (1 and the space). User input is now "stackoverflow" but "stackoverflow 1" is still displayed and the other items are not displayed. This is my custom filter: private class ServiceFilter extends Filter { @Override protected FilterResults performFiltering(CharSequence constraint) { FilterResults results = new FilterResults(); if (constraint == null || constraint.length() == 0) { // No filter implemented we return all the list results.values = origServiceList; results.count = origServiceList.size(); } else { List<ServiceModel> nServiceList = new ArrayList<ServiceModel>(); for (ServiceModel s : serviceList) { if (s.getName().toLowerCase().contains(constraint.toString().toLowerCase())) { nServiceList.add(s); } } results.values = nServiceList; results.count = nServiceList.size(); } return results; } @Override protected void publishResults(CharSequence constraint, FilterResults results) { if (results.count == 0) { notifyDataSetInvalidated(); } else { serviceList = (List<ServiceModel>) results.values; notifyDataSetChanged(); } } } And how I handle text change event: inputSearch.addTextChangedListener(new TextWatcher() { @Override public void afterTextChanged(Editable arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void beforeTextChanged(CharSequence arg0, int arg1, int arg2, int arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onTextChanged(CharSequence cs, int arg1, int arg2, int arg3) { if (cs.length() >= 1) { mAdapter.getFilter().filter(cs); } else { mAdapter = new ServiceAdapter(MyActivity.this, R.layout.ussd_list_item, serviceList); listView.setAdapter(mAdapter); } } });

  Read the article

• How to Use DataSource Property in DataFormWebPart

  - by Bryan Shen

  I'm writing a custom web part that extends DataFormWebPart. public class MyCustomWebPart : DataFormWebPart{ // other methods public override void DataBind() { XmlDataSource source = new XmlDataSource() { Data = @" <Person> <name cap='true'>Bryan</name> <occupation>student</occupation> </Person> " }; DataSources.Add(source); base.DataBind(); } } The only noticeable thing I do is overriding the DataBind() method, where I use xml as the data source. After I deploy the web part, I set the following XSL to it: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xmp> <xsl:copy-of select="*"/> </xmp> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> This xsl will surround the input xml with a tag . So I expected the web part to display the original xml data as I wrote in C# code behind. But what shows up in the web part is this: <Person> <name cap="true" /> <occupation /> </Person> All the values within the inner-most tags disappear. What's going on? Can anybody help me? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to dispose a Writeable Bitmap? (WPF)

  - by Mario

  Some time ago i posted a question related to a WriteableBitmap memory leak, and though I received wonderful tips related to the problem, I still think there is a serious bug / (mistake made by me) / (Confusion) / (some other thing) here. So, here is my problem again: Suppose we have a WPF application with an Image and a button. The image's source is a really big bitmap (3600 * 4800 px), when it's shown at runtime the applicaton consumes ~90 MB. Now suppose i wish to instantiate a WriteableBitmap from the source of the image (the really big Image), when this happens the applications consumes ~220 MB. Now comes the tricky part, when the modifications to the image (through the WriteableBitmap) end, and all the references to the WriteableBitmap (at least those that I'm aware of) are destroyed (at the end of a method or by setting them to null) the memory used by the writeableBitmap should be freed and the application consumption should return to ~90 MB. The problem is that sometimes it returns, sometimes it does not. Here is a sample code: // The Image's source whas set previous to this event private void buttonTest_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (image.Source != null) { WriteableBitmap bitmap = new WriteableBitmap((BitmapSource)image.Source); bitmap.Lock(); bitmap.Unlock(); //image.Source = null; bitmap = null; } } As you can see the reference is local and the memory should be released at the end of the method (Or when the Garbage collector decides to do so). However, the app could consume ~224 MB until the end of the universe. Any help would be great.

  Read the article

• How to Global onRouteRequest directly to onBadRequest?

  - by virtualeyes

  EDIT Came up with this to sanitize URI date params prior to passing off to Play router val ymdMatcher = "\\d{8}".r // matcher for yyyyMMdd URI param val ymdFormat = org.joda.time.format.DateTimeFormat.forPattern("yyyyMMdd") def ymd2Date(ymd: String) = ymdFormat.parseDateTime(ymd) override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { import play.api.i18n.Messages ymdMatcher.findFirstIn(r.uri) map{ ymd=> try { ymd2Date( ymd); super.onRouteRequest(r) } catch { case e:Exception => // kick to "bad" action handler on invalid date Some(controllers.Application.bad(Messages("bad.date.format"))) } } getOrElse(super.onRouteRequest(r)) } ORIGINAL Let's say I want to return a BadRequest result type for all /foo URIs: override def onBadRequest(r: RequestHeader, error: String) = { BadRequest("Bad Request: " + error) } override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { if(r.uri.startsWith("/foo") onBadRequest("go away") else super.onRouteRequest(r) } Of course does not work, since the expected return type is Option[play.api.mvc.Handler] What's the idiomatic way to deal with this, create a default Application controller method to handle filtered bad requests? Ideally, since I know in onRouteRequest that /foo is in fact a BadRequest, I'd like to call onBadRequest directly. Should note that this is a contrived example, am actually verifying a URI yyyyMMdd date param, and BadRequest-ing if it does not parse to a JodaTime instance -- basically a catch-all filter to sanitize a given date param rather than handling on every single controller method call, not to mention, avoiding cluttering up application log with useless stack traces re: invalid date parse conversions (have several MBs of these junk trace entries accruing daily due to users pointlessly manipulating the uri date in attempts to get at paid subscriber content)

  Read the article

• Understanding the Silverlight Dispatcher

  - by Matt

  I had a Invalid Cross Thread access issue, but a little research and I managed to fix it by using the Dispatcher. Now in my app I have objects with lazy loading. I'd make an Async call using WCF and as usual I use the Dispatcher to update my objects DataContext, however it didn't work for this scenario. I did however find a solution here. Here's what I don't understand. In my UserControl I have code to call an Toggle method on my object. The call to this method is within a Dispatcher like so. Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( () => _CurrentPin.ToggleInfoPanel() ); As I mentioned before this was not enough to satisfy Silverlight. I had to make another Dispatcher call within my object. My object is NOT a UIElement, but a simple class that handles all its own loading/saving. So the problem was fixed by calling Deployment.Current.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( () => dataContext.Detail = detail ); within my class. Why did I have to call the Dispatcher twice to achieve this? Shouldn't a high-level call be enough? Is there a difference between the Deployment.Current.Dispatcher and the Dispatcher in a UIElement?

  Read the article

• signalR groups - connecting/disconnecting and sending - am I missing something?

  - by Terry_Brown

  very new to signalR, and have rolled up a very simple app that will take questions for moderation at conferences (felt like a straight forward use case) I have 2 hubs at the moment: - Question (for asking questions) - Speaker (these should receive questions and allow moderation, but that will come later) Solution lives at https://github.com/terrybrown/InterASK After watching a video (by David Fowler/Damian Edwards) (http://channel9.msdn.com/Shows/Web+Camps+TV/Damian-Edwards-and-David-Fowler-Demonstrate-SignalR) and another that I can't find the URL for atm, I thought I'd go with 'groups' as the concept to keep messages flowing to the right people. I implemented IConnected, IDisconnect as I'd seen in one of the videos, and upon debugging I can see Connect fire (and on reload I can see disconnect fire), but it seems nothing I do adds a person to a group. The signalR documentation suggests "Groups are not persisted on the server so applications are responsible for keeping track of what connections are in what groups so things like group count can be achieved" which I guess is telling me that I need to keep some method (static or otherwise?) of tracking who is in a group? Certainly I don't seem able to send to groups currently, though I have no problem distributing to anyone currently connected to the app and implementing the same JS method (2 machines on the same page). I suspect I'm just missing something - I read a few of the other questions on here, but none of them seem to mention IConnected/IDisconnect, which tells me these are either new (and nobody is using them) or that they're old (and nobody is using them). I know this could be considered a subjective question, though what I'm looking for is just a simple means of managing the groups so that I can do what I want to - send a question from one hub, and have people connected to a different hub receive it - groups felt the cleanest solution for this? Many thanks folks. Terry

  Read the article

• iPhone UITableView populateing from connectionDidFinishLoading

  - by fourfour

  Hey all. I have been trying for hours to figure this out. I have some JSON from a NSURLConnection. This is working fine and I have parsed it into an array. But I can't seem to get the array out of the connectionDidFinishLoading method. I an am getting (null) in the UITableViewCell method. I am assuming this is a scope of retain issue, but I am so new to ObjC I am not sure what to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Cheers. -(void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [responseData release]; SBJSON *json = [[SBJSON alloc] init]; NSDictionary *results = [json objectWithString:responseString]; self.dataArray = [results objectForKey:@"data"]; NSMutableArray *tableArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:nil]; for (NSString *element in dataArray) { //NSLog(@"%@", [element objectForKey:@"name"]); NSString *tmpString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[element objectForKey:@"name"]]; [tableArray addObject:tmpString]; } } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. //cell.textLabel.text = [self.tableView objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [self.tableArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(@"%@", tableArray); return cell; }

  Read the article

• How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

  - by Terry Robinson

  Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

  Read the article

• iPhone: Override UIButton buttonWithType to return subclass

  - by Amagrammer

  I want to be able to create a UIButton with an oversized responsive area. I know that one way to do that is to override the hitTest method in a subclass, but how do I instantiate my custom button object in the first place? [OversizedButton buttonWithType: UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; doesn't work out of the box because buttonWithType returns a UIButton, not an OversizedButton. So it seems like I need to override the buttonWithType method as well. Does anyone know how to do this? @implementation OversizedButton + (id)buttonWithType:(UIButtonType)buttonType { // Construct and return an OversizedButton rather than a UIButton // Needs to handle special types such as UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure // I NEED TO KNOW HOW TO DO THIS PART } - (UIView *)hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { // Return results if touch event was in oversized region // I ALREADY KNOW HOW TO DO THIS PART } @end Alternatively, maybe I could create the button using alloc/initWithFrame. But the buttonType property is readonly, so how do you create the custom button types? Note: I know there are other ways to do this, such as having an invisible button behind the visible one. I don't care for that approach and would prefer to avoid it. Any help on the approach described above would be very helpful. Thanks

  Read the article

• How to encrypt Amazon CloudFront signature for private content access using canned policy

  - by Chet

  Has anyone using .net actually worked out how to successfully sign a signature to use with CloudFront private content? After a couple of days of attempts all I can get is Access Denied. I have been working with variations of the following code and also tried using OpenSSL.Net and AWSSDK but that does not have a sign method for RSA-SHA1 yet. The signature (data) looks like this {"Statement":[{"Resource":"http://xxxx.cloudfront.net/xxxx.jpg","Condition":?{"DateLessThan":?{"AWS:EpochTime":1266922799}}}]} This method attempts to sign the signature for use in the canned url. So of the variations have included chanding the padding used in the has and also reversing the byte[] before signing as apprently OpenSSL do it this way. public string Sign(string data) { using (SHA1Managed SHA1 = new SHA1Managed()) { RSACryptoServiceProvider provider = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); RSACryptoServiceProvider.UseMachineKeyStore = false; // Amazon PEM converted to XML using OpenSslKey provider.FromXmlString("<RSAKeyValue><Modulus>....."); byte[] plainbytes = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(data); byte[] hash = SHA1.ComputeHash(plainbytes); //Array.Reverse(sig); // I have see some examples that reverse the hash byte[] sig = provider.SignHash(hash, "SHA1"); return Convert.ToBase64String(sig); } } Its useful to note that I have verified the content is setup correctly in S3 and CloudFront by generating a CloudFront canned policy url using my CloudBerry Explorer. How do they do it? Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks

  Read the article

• facebook connect api "Cannot use string offset as an array in" error

  - by Rees

  Please help! I have been grappling with this error for days and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I am using facebook connect and fetching a "contact_email" attribute using their api method users_getInfo. The issue is that when I execute this PHP file, i get this error: "Cannot use string offset as an array in...". This error specifically refers to this line of code: $firstName=$user_details[0]['contact_email']; I'm thinking this is because the user_getInfo method is not returning any results... However, the most ridiculous part about all this is that, I can execute the code below several dozens of times in a row SUCCESSFULLY without the above error, BUT THEN randomly without changing ANY code at all, I will suddenly encounter this error, in which case it will begin to give me an error several dozens of times, and then AGAIN without any code change, start executing successfully again. This odd behavior occurs regardless of the attribute i am fetching.. (contact_email, first_name, last_name, etc.). I am running php 5.2.11. Is there something I'm missing?? Please Help! include_once 'site/fbconnect/config.php'; //has $api_key and $secret defined. include_once 'site/facebook-platform/client/facebook.php'; global $api_key,$secret; $fb=new Facebook($api_key,$secret); $fb-require_login(); $fb_user=$fb-get_loggedin_user(); $user_details=$fb-api_client-users_getInfo($fb_user,array('last_name','first_name','contact_email')); $email=$user_details[0]['contact_email']; $firstName=$user_details[0]['first_name']; $lastName=$user_details[0]['last_name'];

  Read the article

• Sharp architecture; Accessing Validation Results

  - by nabeelfarid

  I am exploring Sharp Architecture and I would like to know how to access the validation results after calling Entity.IsValid(). I have two scenarios e.g. 1) If the entity.IsValid() return false, I would like to add the errors to ModelState.AddModelError() collection in my controller. E.g. in the Northwind sample we have an EmployeesController.Create() action when we do employee.IsValid(), how can I get access to the errors? public ActionResult Create(Employee employee) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid && employee.IsValid()) { employeeRepository.SaveOrUpdate(employee); } // .... } [I already know that when an Action method is called, modelbinder enforces validation rules(nhibernate validator attributes) as it parses incoming values and tries to assign them to the model object and if it can't parse the incoming values  then it register those as errors in modelstate for each model object property. But what if i have some custom validation. Thats why we do ModelState.IsValid first.] 2) In my test methods I would like to test the nhibernate validation rules as well. I can do entity.IsValid() but that only returns true/ false. I would like to Assert against the actual error not just true/ false. In my previous projects, I normally use a wrapper Service Layer for Repositories, and instead of calling Repositories method directly from controller, controllers call service layer methods which in turn call repository methods. In my Service Layer all my custom validation rules resides and Service Layer methods throws a custom exception with a NameValueCollection of errors which I can easily add to ModelState in my controller. This way I can also easily implement sophisticated business rules in my service layer as well. I kow sharp architecture also provides a Service Layer project. But what I am interested in and my next question is: How I can use NHibernate Vaidators to implement sophisticated custom business rules (not just null,empty, range etc.) and make Entity.IsValid() to verify those rules too ?

  Read the article

• Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

  - by jordan.baucke

  I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

  Read the article

• Save HTML to Pdf ABCPdf 4

  - by daisy

  Hello All, I'm using following code to save html to pdf file. But it fails to compile at if (!theDoc.Chainable(theID)). I do have using WebSupergoo.ABCpdf4; added at the begining of the code. Is this version issue? Is there any other method to save HTML string to pdf file in ABCPdf 4. Error Message is "'WebSupergoo.ABCpdf4.Doc' does not contain a definition for 'Chainable' and no extension method 'Chainable' accepting a first argument of type 'WebSupergoo.ABCpdf4.Doc' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Doc theDoc = new Doc(); theDoc.Rect.Inset(10, 50); theDoc.Page = theDoc.AddPage(); int theID; theID = theDoc.AddImageHtml(str); while (true) { if (!theDoc.Chainable(theID)) break; theDoc.Page = theDoc.AddPage(); theID = theDoc.AddImageToChain(theID); } for (int i = 1; i <= theDoc.PageCount; i++) { theDoc.PageNumber = i; theDoc.Flatten(); } theDoc.Save("path where u want 2 save" + ".pdf"); theDoc.Clear(); All the help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Spring Security HTTP Basic Authentication

  - by Raspayu

  Hi people! I am trying to do a really simple basic authentication with Spring Security. I have configured properly the namespace, and there are no Exceptions in the server. In my "servlet.xml" I have got the next for Spring Security: <security:http> <security:http-basic></security:http-basic> <security:intercept-url method="POST" pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> </security:http> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider> <security:user-service> <security:user name="cucu" password="tas" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> <security:user name="bob" password="bobspassword" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> </security:user-service> </security:authentication-provider> </security:authentication-manager> It nearly all goes perfect: the methods that are not POST doesn't prompt any login form, and the POST method prompt it. The problem is, that nor "cucu", neither "bob" can login there. Can anyone see what am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance! ;-)

  Read the article

• Update CGridView when a dropdown value changes

  - by Gautam Borad

  I have a CGridView with columns from a table "product" => {'product_id','category_id',...} I have another table "category" => {'category_id','category_name'} category_id is the FK in the product table. Now i want a dropdown list of the category table and on selecting a particular value the CGridView of product should be updated to show only the rows with that category_id. I also need the column filtering/sorting for the CGridView to work (using AJAX). I was able to refresh the CGridView when a value is selected from the dropdown, however i am not able to send the category_id with the 'data' for the CGridView: clientScript-registerScript('search', " $('.cat_dropdown').change(function(){ $.fn.yiiGridView.update('order-grid', { data: $(this).serialize(), }); return false; }); "); The data: $(this).serialize() sends only the values that are present in the filtering text fields of the CGridView. How do i append the category_id with it? If the above method is not the right one, please suggest an alternative method.

  Read the article

• Problem creating simple "windows script components" on Windows 7.

  - by Bigtoe

  Hi folks, I'm trying to get a Windows Script Component working on and x64 development machine. Works fine on x32 bit. But can't seem to get it running, I have the same problem with both JScript and VBScript. Here's the most simple wsc component possible. All that it does it pop up "Hello" in a message box. If you save the snippit below to a file called test_lib.wsc, you'll then be able to right click and register it. It's now available as a COM Component. <?xml version="1.0"?> <component> <?component error="true" debug="true"?> <registration description="Test Script Library" progid="TestScript.Lib" version="1.00" classid="{314042ea-1c42-4865-956f-08d56d1f00a8}" > </registration> <public> <method name="Hello"> </method> </public> <script language="VBScript"> <![CDATA[ Option Explicit Function Hello() MsgBox("Hello.") End Function ]]> </script> </component> Next create the following sample vb-script and save it to a file called test.vbs dim o set o = createobject("TestScript.Lib") o.hello() When I run the test.vbs with cscript or wscript I always get the following. "C:\test.vbs(3, 1) Microsoft VBScript runtime error: ActiveX component can't create object: 'TestScript.Lib'" This works perfectly fine on a 32 bit XP. Anyone got any ideas about what could be wrong? Thanks a bunch Noel.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >