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  • Help with debugging COM errors? (.mdi to .pdf file conversions using Microsoft Office Document Imagi

    - by RyanW
    I thought I had a working solution for converting .mdi files to PDF using the Microsoft Office Document Imaging object model. The solution is in a Windows Service, but now I'm running into some errors that I'm having trouble tracking down info on. The exception I get is: The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80010105): The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) at MODI.DocumentClass.Create(String FileOpen) at DocumentStore.Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) Then, in the Event Viewer there is the following Application error: Faulting application MyWindowsServiceName.exe, version 1.0.0.0, time stamp 0x4b97f185, faulting module mso.dll, version 12.0.6425.1000, time stamp 0x49d65443, exception code 0xc0000005, fault offset 0x0000bd8e, process id 0xa5c, application start time 0x01cac08cf032914b. Here's the method that is doing the conversion: private int? Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) { int? pageCount = null; string tmpTif = Path.GetTempFileName(); MODI.Document mdiDoc = new MODI.Document(); mdiDoc.Create(path); mdiDoc.SaveAs(tmpTif, MODI.MiFILE_FORMAT.miFILE_FORMAT_TIFF_LOSSLESS, MODI.MiCOMP_LEVEL.miCOMP_LEVEL_HIGH); mdiDoc.Close(false); pageCount = Tiff2PDF(tmpTif, newPath); if (File.Exists(tmpTif)) File.Delete(tmpTif); return pageCount; } I removed all threading from the service invoking this, so that only the primary thread was initializing the MODI object, but still got the error, so it doesn't appear to be threading related. I also built a a console apps converting hundreds of documents and DID NOT get the exception. So, it seems to be caused by creating too many instances of the MODI object, but only instantiated within a Service? Doesn't quite make sense. Anybody have any clues about these errors and how to debug them further?

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  • Annotate over Multi-table Inheritance in Django

    - by user341584
    I have a base LoggedEvent model and a number of subclass models like follows: class LoggedEvent(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True) timestamp = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) class AuthEvent(LoggedEvent): good = models.BooleanField() username = models.CharField(max_length=12) class LDAPSearchEvent(LoggedEvent): type = models.CharField(max_length=12) query = models.CharField(max_length=24) class PRISearchEvent(LoggedEvent): type = models.CharField(max_length=12) query = models.CharField(max_length=24) Users generate these events as they do the related actions. I am attempting to generate a usage-report of how many of each event-type each user has caused in the last month. I am struggling with Django's ORM and while I am close I am running into a problem. Here is the query code: ef usage(request): # Calculate date range today = datetime.date.today() month_start = datetime.date(year=today.year, month=today.month - 1, day=1) month_end = datetime.date(year=today.year, month=today.month, day=1) - datetime.timedelta(days=1) # Search for how many LDAP events were generated per user, last month baseusage = User.objects.filter(loggedevent__timestamp__gte=month_start, loggedevent__timestamp__lte=month_end) ldapusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__ldapsearchevent__id__lt=1).annotate(count=Count('loggedevent__pk')) authusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__authevent__id__lt=1).annotate(count=Count('loggedevent__pk')) return render_to_response('usage.html', { 'ldapusage' : ldapusage, 'authusage' : authusage, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Both ldapusage and authusage are both a list of users, each user annotated with a .count attribute which is supposed to represent how many particular events that user generated. However in both lists, the .count attributes are the same value. Infact the annotated 'count' is equal to how many events that user generated, regardless of type. So it would seem that my specific authusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__authevent__id__lt=1) isn't excluding by subclass. I have tried id_lt=1, id_isnull=True, and others. Halp.

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  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

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  • C# - update variable based upon results from backgroundworker

    - by Bruce
    I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way. Thanks for your help.

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  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

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  • what is this internet explorer (javascript?) syntax error -2146827286?

    - by ben
    Hi everyone, So, I've been trying to troubleshoot this bug where some big percentage of windows users who are on my ajax (jquery) web app are not able to play. I haven't been able to reproduce it on my end with a windows 7 IE8 running in a parallels vm. The main problem seems to be in the javascript somewhere because what users are complaining about is an ajax button isn't working. They click it and nothing happens, so either the event isn't firing, or my ajax call is failing, and possibly the return from the ajax could be failing. After trying some ideas, a friend suggested I check out damnit! https://damnit.jupiterit.com/ which will catch exceptions in javascript and email them to you. This is a pretty awesome tool! So, now i have a little more data, but, am stuck. Basically it seems like the majority of the exceptions seem to be complaining about a syntax error. I will paste the samples below. message: Syntax error number: -2146827286 description: Syntax error Browser: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 1.0.3705; OfficeLiveConnector.1.3; OfficeLivePatch.0.0) What's interesting is that the syntax error is consistently occurring in browsers reporting MSIE 8.0 but with windows vista, xp, and below, so older OS with the latest IE. Does anyone know of this error? Could this possibly be some weird slow computer/slow internet connection thing where may be my javascript files aren't fully loaded before I call the functions. I am using the jquery $(document).ready() to wait before I setup anything.

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  • IoC - Dynamic Composition of object instances

    - by Joshua Starner
    Is there a way using IoC, MEF [Imports], or another DI solution to compose dependencies on the fly at object creation time instead of during composition time? Here's my current thought. If you have an instance of an object that raises events, but you are not creating the object once and saving it in memory, you have to register the event handlers every time the object is created. As far as I can tell, most IoC containers require you to register all of the classes used in composition and call Compose() to make it hook up all the dependencies. I think this may be horrible design (I'm dealing with a legacy system here) to do this due to the overhead of object creation, dependency injection, etc... but I was wondering if it was possible using one of the emergent IoC technologies. Maybe I have some terminology mixed up, but my goal is to avoid writing a framework to "hook up all the events" on an instance of an object, and use something like MEF to [Export] handlers (dependencies) that adhere to a very specific interface and [ImportMany] them into an object instance so my exports get called if the assemblies are there when the application starts. So maybe all of the objects could still be composed when the application starts, but I want the system to find and call all of them as the object is created and destroyed.

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • Coupling between controller and view

    - by cheez
    The litmus test for me for a good MVC implementation is how easy it is to swap out the view. I've always done this really badly due to being lazy but now I want to do it right. This is in C++ but it should apply equally to non-desktop applications, if I am to believe the hype. Here is one example: the application controller has to check some URL for existence in the background. It may connect to the "URL available" event (using Boost Signals) as follows: BackgroundUrlCheckerThread(Controller & controller) { // ... signalUrlAvailable.connect( boost::bind(&Controller::urlAvailable,&controller,_1)) } So what does Controller::urlAvailable look like? Here is one possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { if(!view->askUser("URL available, wanna download it?")) return; else // Download the url in a new thread, repeat } This, to me, seems like a gross coupling of the view and the controller. Such a coupling makes it impossible to implement the view when using the web (coroutines aside.) Another possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { urlAvailableSignal(url); // Now, any view interested can do what it wants } I'm partial to the latter but it appears that if I do this there will be: 40 billion such signals. The application controller can get huge for a non-trivial application A very real possibility that a given view accidentally ignores some signals (APIs can inform you at link-time, but signals/slots are run-time) Thanks in advance.

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  • Why doesn't every class in the .Net framework have a corresponding interface?

    - by Thorsten Lorenz
    Since I started to develop in a test/behavior driven style, I appreciated the ability to mock out every dependency. Since mocking frameworks like Moq work best when told to mock an interface, I now implement an interface for almost every class I create b/c most likely I will have to mock it out in a test eventually. Well, and programming to an interface is good practice, anyways. At times, my classes take dependencies on .Net classes (e.g. FileSystemWatcher, DispatcherTimer). It would be great in that case to have an interface, so I could depend on an IDispatcherTimer instead, to be able to pass it a mock and simulate its behavior to see if my system under test reacts correctly. Unfortunately both of above mentioned classes do not implement such interfaces, so I have to resort to creating adapters, that do nothing else but inherit from the original class and conform to an interface, that I then can use. Here is such an adapter for the DispatcherTimer and the corresponding interface: using System; using System.Windows.Threading; public interface IDispatcherTimer { #region Events event EventHandler Tick; #endregion #region Properties Dispatcher Dispatcher { get; } TimeSpan Interval { get; set; } bool IsEnabled { get; set; } object Tag { get; set; } #endregion #region Public Methods void Start(); void Stop(); #endregion } /// <summary> /// Adapts the DispatcherTimer class to implement the <see cref="IDispatcherTimer"/> interface. /// </summary> public class DispatcherTimerAdapter : DispatcherTimer, IDispatcherTimer { } Although this is not the end of the world, I wonder, why the .Net developers didn't take the minute to make their classes implement these interfaces from the get go. It puzzles me especially since now there is a big push for good practices from inside Microsoft. Does anyone have any (maybe inside) information why this contradiction exists?

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  • How to eliminate Unhandled Exception dialog produced by 3rd party application

    - by Tappen
    I'm working with a 3rd party executable that I can't recompile (vendor is no longer available). It was originally written under .Net 1.1 but seems to work fine under later versions as well. I launch it using Process.Start from my own application (I've tried p/invoke CreateProcess as well with the same results so that's not relevant) Unfortunately this 3rd party app now throws an unhandled exception as it exits. The Microsoft dialog box has a title like "Exception thrown from v2.0 ... Broadcast Window" with the version number relating to the version of .Net it's running under (I can use a .exe.config file to target different .Net versions, doesn't help). The unhandled exception dialog box on exit doesn't cause any real problems, but is troubling to my users who have to click OK to dismiss it every time. Is there any way (a config file option perhaps) to disable this dialog from showing for an app I don't have the source code to? I've considered loading it in a new AppDomain which would give me access to the UnhandledException event but there's no indication I could change the appearence of the dialog. Maybe someone knows what causes the exception and I can fix this some other way?

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  • Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

    - by Dovix
    What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

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  • how to handle base tag target attribute in iphone uiwebview to open new window

    - by user217428
    When the links are supposed to open a new window, iphone uiwebview won't trigger an event when user click these links. We had to use javascript to do some trick to the target attribute of the links. I can handle 'a' tag to open in the '_self' window with the trick without problem. But when I do it the same way with the 'base' tag. it doesn't work. I believe the base target is set by the javascript. But the base tag is in the head, which may be handled by the uiwebview before my javascript executed, so the target change may not reflected in the webkit engine. Could someone please give some suggestion, so I can open the link in the same uiwebview? The following is the sample HTML opened in the uiwebview <html> <head> <base target='_blank'> </head> <body> <a href='http://google.ca'>google</a> </body> </html> The following is the code to be executed in the (void) webViewDidFinishLoad: (UIWebView*)webView static NSString* js = @"" "function bkModifyBaseTargets()" "{" "var allBases = window.document.getElementsByTagName('base');" "if (allBases)" "{" "for (var i = 0; i < allBases.length; i++)" "{" "base = allBases[i];" "target = base.getAttribute('target');" "if (target)" "{" "base.setAttribute('target', '_self');" "}" "}" "}" "}"; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: js]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: @"bkModifyBaseTargets()"];

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  • How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

    - by user279112
    For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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  • Javascript add a PHP file.

    - by Jordan Pagaduan
    var editing = false; if (document.getElementById && document.createElement) { var butt = document.createElement('BUTTON'); var buttext = document.createTextNode('Ready!'); butt.appendChild(buttext); butt.onclick = saveEdit; } function catchIt(e) { if (editing) return; if (!document.getElementById || !document.createElement) return; if (!e) var obj = window.event.srcElement; else var obj = e.target; while (obj.nodeType != 1) { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.tagName == 'TEXTAREA' || obj.tagName == 'A') return; while (obj.nodeName != 'P' && obj.nodeName != 'HTML') { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.nodeName == 'HTML') return; var x = obj.innerHTML; var y = document.createElement('TEXTAREA'); var z = obj.parentNode; z.insertBefore(y,obj); z.insertBefore(butt,obj); z.removeChild(obj); y.value = x; y.focus(); editing = true; } function saveEdit() { var area = document.getElementsByTagName('TEXTAREA')[0]; var y = document.createElement('P'); var z = area.parentNode; y.innerHTML = area.value; z.insertBefore(y,area); z.removeChild(area); z.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('button')[0]); editing = false; } document.onclick = catchIt; This code is a quick edit and I want to add a PHP script that will UPDATE my database base on the changes on the text.

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  • WPF Combobox Updates list but not the selected item

    - by JoshReedSchramm
    I have a combo box on a WPF form. On this form the user selects a record from the combo box which populates the rest of the fields on the form so the user can update that record. When they click save I am re-retrieving the combo box source which updates the combo box list. The problem is the selected item keeps the original label even though the data behind it is different. When you expand the combo box the selected item shows the right label. I am using a command binding mechanism. Here is some of the relevant code. private void SaveSalesRep() { BindFromView(); if (_salesRep.Id == 0) SalesRepRepository.AddAndSave(_salesRep); else SalesRepRepository.DataContext.SaveChanges(); int originalId = _salesRep.Id; InitSalesRepDropDown(); SalesRepSelItem = ((List<SalesRep>) SalesRepItems.SourceCollection).Find(x => x.Id == originalId); } private void InitSalesRepDropDown() { var salesRepRepository = IoC.GetRepository<ISalesRepRepository>(); IEnumerable<SalesRep> salesReps = salesRepRepository.GetAll(); _salesRepItems = new CollectionView(salesReps); NotifyPropertyChanged("SalesRepItems"); SalesRepSelItem = SalesRepItems.GetItemAt(0) as SalesRep; } The Selected Item property on the combo box is bound to SalesRepSelItem Property and the ItemsSource is bound to SalesRepItems which is backed by _salesRepItems. THe SalesRepSelItem property called NotifyPropertyChanges("SalesRepSelItem") which raises a PropertyChanged event. All told the binding of new items seems to work and the list updates, but the label on the selected item doesnt. Any ideas? Thanks all.

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  • NSUndoManager grouping problem?

    - by anonymous
    I'm working on a barebones drawing app. I'm attempting to implement undo/redo capability, so I tell the view's undoManager to save the current image before updating the display. This works perfectly (yes, I understand that redrawing/saving the entire view is not incredibly efficient, but to solve this problem before attempting to optimize the code). However, as expected, when I 'undo' or 'redo', only the minute change is reflected. My goal is to have the whole finger stroke undone/redone. To do that, I told the undoManager to [beginUndoGrouping] in the [touchesBegan] method, and to [endUndoGrouping] in [touchesEnded]. That works for a bit, but after drawing a few strokes, the app crashes, and gdb exits with exc_bad_access. I'm very grateful for any insight you can give me. - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { mouseDragged = YES; currentPoint = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(drawingImageView.bounds.size); [drawingImageView.image drawInRect:drawingImageView.bounds]; CGContextRef ctx = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetLineCap(ctx, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineWidth(ctx, drawingWidth); [drawingColor setStroke]; CGContextBeginPath(ctx); CGContextMoveToPoint(ctx, previousPoint.x, previousPoint.y); CGContextAddLineToPoint(ctx, currentPoint.x, currentPoint.y); CGContextStrokePath(ctx); [self.undoManager registerUndoWithTarget:drawingImageView selector:@selector(setImage:) object:drawingImageView.image]; drawingImageView.image = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); previousPoint = currentPoint; }

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  • How to debug browser crash when running Silverlight app

    - by onedozenbagels
    I am on a team of three people who are developing a Silverlight application. On two of our developers' machines the app seems to randomly crash. It never crashes on the third developer's machine. The nature of the crash is that internet explorer just dies with an "Internet Explorer has stopped working" message. The problem details look like this: Problem Event Name: BEX Application Name: IEXPLORE.EXE Application Version: 8.0.6001.18882 Application Timestamp: 4b3ed243 Fault Module Name: StackHash_2cd8 Fault Module Version: 0.0.0.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 00000000 Exception Offset: 0024df00 Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Data: 00000008 OS Version: 6.0.6002.2.2.0.256.6 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 2cd8 Additional Information 2: 0c337fa6c2057a9dbce1860c5e2d8315 Additional Information 3: e13b Additional Information 4: 5da012709e52526a1af19795dc4a33fd Then windows displays this message: "To help protect your computer, Data Execution Prevention has closed Internet Explorer." If I am attached to the app with the Visual Studio debugger the only information I get is this line in the output window: "The program '[2140] iexplore.exe: Silverlight' has exited with code -1073741819 (0xc0000005)." How should I go about debugging this problem? I'm not really sure where to start.

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  • Has the recent version of subversion dealt with "Access Denied" errors from windows services that mo

    - by Eric LaForce
    Does anyone know if this subversion "bug" has been dealt with? https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/subversion/tags/1.6.9/www/faq.html#windows-access-denied I'm getting occasional "Access Denied" errors on Windows. They seem to happen at random. Why? These appear to be due to the various Windows services that monitor the filesystem for changes (anti-virus software, indexing services, the COM+ Event Notification Service). This is not really a bug in Subversion, which makes it difficult for us to fix. A summary of the current state of the investigation is available here. A workaround that should reduce the incidence rate for most people was implemented in revision 7598; if you have an earlier version, please update to the latest release. Currently I am experiencing this same behavior in version 1.5.6 when I try and do a SVN switch (I have suspected McAfee as the culprit for a while and when I saw this I feel it validates my suspicions). I read through the link given but it seems pretty old, so I didn't know if this FAQ was just outdated and the issue has actually be resolved. Thanks for any help. Configuration: SVN 1.5.6 TortoiseSVN 1.5.9 Build 15518 Windows XP SP3 32-bit

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  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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  • DateChooser is behaving strangly

    - by Tam
    Hi, I'm writing a Flex application and I came accross what I think is a weird problem. I want to create a text box and a DateChooser as the datefield didn't do what I wanted and it's Halo so I can't skin it easily. I want the DateChooser to show when I click on the text input. Here is except from my code: <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" paddingRight="10" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> <s:Button label="Go" width="70" /> </s:Panel> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" visible = "false" change="useDate(event);" mouseOver="changeToNormalState = false;" y="{wholeDate.y + buttonsGroup.y + 20}" x="{wholeDate.x + buttonsGroup.x - 175 }" /> The weird thing is that it work as I wanted if I make it visible = "true" to start but if I have it visible="false" it doesn't work! it shows by the date I select doesn't show in the box as it does if I have it as visible="true" but I don't want it to be visible initially. Any ideas? Thanks, Tam

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  • Dojo: dojo onblur events

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys, I have a form setup with dojo 1.5. I am using a dijit.form.ComboBox and a dijit.form.TextBox The Combobox has values like "car","bike","motorcycle" and the textbox is meant to be an adjective to the Combobox. So it doesn't matter what is in the Combobox but if the ComboBox does have a value then something MUST be filled in the TextBox. Optionally, if nothing is in the ComboBox, then nothing can be in the TextBox and that is just fine. In fact if something isn't in the Combobox then nothing MUST be in the text box. In regular coding I would just use an onBlur event on the text box to go to a function that checks to see if the ComboBox has a value. I see in dojo that this doesn't work... Code example is below... Vehicle: <input dojoType="dijit.form.ComboBox" store="xvarStore" value="" searchAttr="name" name="vehicle_1" id="vehicle_1" /> Descriptor: <input type="text" dojoType="dijit.form.TextBox" value="" class=lighttext style="width:350px;height:19px" id="filter_value_1" name="filter_value_1" /> My initial attempt was to add an onBlur within the Descriptor's <input> tag but discovered that that doesn't work. How does Dojo handle this? Is it via a dojo.connect parameter? Even though in the example above the combobox has an id of "vehicle_1" and the text box has an id of "filter_value_1", there can be numerous comboboxes and textboxes numbering sequentially upward. (vehicle_2, vehicle_3, etc) Any advice or links to resources would be greatly appreciated. Janie

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  • Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

    - by ThantiK
    import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

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  • Custom ASPNetMembership FailureInformation always null, OnValidatingPassword issue

    - by bigb
    As stated here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.membershipprovider.onvalidatingpassword.aspx "When the ValidatingPassword event has completed, the properties of the ValidatePasswordEventArgs object supplied as the e parameter can be examined to determine whether the current action should be canceled and if a particular Exception, stored in the FailureInformation property, should be thrown." Here is some details/code which really shows why FailureInformation shouldn't be always null http://forums.asp.net/t/991002.aspx if any password security conditions not matched. According with my Membership settings i should get an exception that password does not match password security conditions, but it is not happened. Then i did try to debug System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll(in .NET 4.0 System.Web.Security located here) Framework Code to see whats really happens there, but i cant step into this assembly, may be because of this [TypeForwardedFrom("System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=Neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a")] public abstract class MembershipProvider : ProviderBase Easily i may step into any another .NET 4.0 assembly, but in this one not. I did check, symbols for System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll loaded. Now i have only one idea how ti fix it - to override method OnValidatingPassword(ValidatePasswordEventArgs e). Thats my story. May be some one may help: 1) Any ideas why OnValidatingPassword not working? 2) Any ideas how to step into it?

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  • Help with creating a custom ItemRenderer for Flex 4

    - by elmonty
    I'm trying to create a custom ItemRenderer for a TileList in Flex 4. Here's my renderer: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:ItemRenderer xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" autoDrawBackground="true"> <mx:Image x="0" y="0" source="../images/blank-offer.png" width="160" height="144" smoothBitmapContent="true"/> <s:Label x="5" y="20" text="{data.title}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="16" color="#696565" width="155"/> <s:Label x="5" y="42" text="{data.description}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="8" color="#696565" width="154"/> <mx:Text x="3" y="59" text="{data.details}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="8" color="#696565" width="157" height="65"/> <mx:Text x="3" y="122" text="{data.disclaimer}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="5" color="#696565" width="157" height="21"/> </s:ItemRenderer> Here's my tile list: <mx:TileList x="0" y="0" width="100%" height="100%" id="tileList" creationComplete="tileList_creationCompleteHandler(event)" dataProvider="{getDataResult.lastResult}" labelField="title" itemRenderer="renderers.OfferLibraryListRenderer"></mx:TileList> When I run the app, I get this error: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert renderers::OfferLibraryListRenderer@32fce0a1 to mx.controls.listClasses.IListItemRenderer.

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