Search Results

Search found 57327 results on 2294 pages for 'nested set'.

Page 532/2294 | < Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >

  • Why RenderTarget2D overwrites other objects when trying to put some text in a model?

    - by cad
    I am trying to draw an object composited by two cubes (A & B) (one on top of the other, but for now I have them a little bit more open). I am able to do it and this is the result. (Cube A is the blue and Cube B is the one with brown text that comes from a png texture) But I want to have any text as parameter in the cube B. I have tried what @alecnash suggested in his question, but for some reason when I try to draw cube B, cube A dissapears and everything turns purple. This is my draw code: public void Draw(GraphicsDevice graphicsDevice, SpriteBatch spriteBatch, Matrix viewMatrix, Matrix projectionMatrix) { graphicsDevice.BlendState = BlendState.Opaque; graphicsDevice.DepthStencilState = DepthStencilState.Default; graphicsDevice.RasterizerState = RasterizerState.CullCounterClockwise; graphicsDevice.SamplerStates[0] = SamplerState.LinearClamp; // CUBE A basicEffect.View = viewMatrix; basicEffect.Projection = projectionMatrix; basicEffect.World = Matrix.CreateTranslation(ModelPosition); basicEffect.VertexColorEnabled = true; foreach (EffectPass pass in basicEffect.CurrentTechnique.Passes) { pass.Apply(); drawCUBE_TOP(graphicsDevice); drawCUBE_Floor(graphicsDevice); DrawFullSquareStripesFront(graphicsDevice, _numStrips, Color.Red, Color.Blue, _levelPercentage); DrawFullSquareStripesLeft(graphicsDevice, _numStrips, Color.Red, Color.Blue, _levelPercentage); DrawFullSquareStripesRight(graphicsDevice, _numStrips, Color.Red, Color.Blue, _levelPercentage); DrawFullSquareStripesBack(graphicsDevice, _numStrips, Color.Red, Color.Blue, _levelPercentage); } // CUBE B // Set the World matrix which defines the position of the cube texturedCubeEffect.World = Matrix.CreateTranslation(ModelPosition); // Set the View matrix which defines the camera and what it's looking at texturedCubeEffect.View = viewMatrix; // Set the Projection matrix which defines how we see the scene (Field of view) texturedCubeEffect.Projection = projectionMatrix; // Enable textures on the Cube Effect. this is necessary to texture the model texturedCubeEffect.TextureEnabled = true; Texture2D a = SpriteFontTextToTexture(graphicsDevice, spriteBatch, arialFont, "TEST ", Color.Black, Color.GhostWhite); texturedCubeEffect.Texture = a; //texturedCubeEffect.Texture = cubeTexture; // Enable some pretty lights texturedCubeEffect.EnableDefaultLighting(); // apply the effect and render the cube foreach (EffectPass pass in texturedCubeEffect.CurrentTechnique.Passes) { pass.Apply(); cubeToDraw.RenderToDevice(graphicsDevice); } } private Texture2D SpriteFontTextToTexture(GraphicsDevice graphicsDevice, SpriteBatch spriteBatch, SpriteFont font, string text, Color backgroundColor, Color textColor) { Vector2 Size = font.MeasureString(text); RenderTarget2D renderTarget = new RenderTarget2D(graphicsDevice, (int)Size.X, (int)Size.Y); graphicsDevice.SetRenderTarget(renderTarget); graphicsDevice.Clear(Color.Transparent); spriteBatch.Begin(); //have to redo the ColorTexture //spriteBatch.Draw(ColorTexture.Create(graphicsDevice, 1024, 1024, backgroundColor), Vector2.Zero, Color.White); spriteBatch.DrawString(font, text, Vector2.Zero, textColor); spriteBatch.End(); graphicsDevice.SetRenderTarget(null); return renderTarget; } The way I generate texture with dynamic text is: Texture2D a = SpriteFontTextToTexture(graphicsDevice, spriteBatch, arialFont, "TEST ", Color.Black, Color.GhostWhite); After commenting several parts to see what caused the problem, it seems to be located in this line graphicsDevice.SetRenderTarget(renderTarget);

    Read the article

  • Can I nest a command string within another command string?

    - by Zach L
    Whenever I run the following command in an elevated command prompt, I get the 0x80070005 Access Denied error code. I'm assuming it's a permissions error for the child shell. I'm running the command in an elevated prompt on Winddows 7 Pro SP1. FORFILES /P %WINDIR%\servicing\Packages /M Microsoft-Windows-InternetExplorer-* 9.*.mum /c "cmd /c echo Uninstalling package @fname && start /w pkgmgr /up:@fname /norestart" Can place the "Runas" command within the already nested command in order to run the child shell as an admin? I don't think I can because of conflicts with quotation mark locations. If there's another way to do this, such as via a batch file, I'm open to alternative methods, although I do prefer running it as a single string. Sidenote1: Ignore the space after the first asterisk in the command string. It was added one for aesthetics & accuracy. Sub-question: Could I use this "fix" to circumnavigate the problem entirely? Prompt as Administrator? Reference for Runas #1 Reference for Runas #2

    Read the article

  • Is this over-abstraction? (And is there a name for it?)

    - by mwhite
    I work on a large Django application that uses CouchDB as a database and couchdbkit for mapping CouchDB documents to objects in Python, similar to Django's default ORM. It has dozens of model classes and a hundred or two CouchDB views. The application allows users to register a "domain", which gives them a unique URL containing the domain name that gives them access to a project whose data has no overlap with the data of other domains. Each document that is part of a domain has its domain property set to that domain's name. As far as relationships between the documents go, all domains are effectively mutually exclusive subsets of the data, except for a few edge cases (some users can be members of more than one domain, and there are some administrative reports that include all domains, etc.). The code is full of explicit references to the domain name, and I'm wondering if it would be worth the added complexity to abstract this out. I'd also like to know if there's a name for the sort of bound property approach I'm taking here. Basically, I have something like this in mind: Before in models.py class User(Document): domain = StringProperty() class Group(Document): domain = StringProperty() name = StringProperty() user_ids = StringListProperty() # method that returns related document set def users(self): return [User.get(id) for id in self.user_ids] # method that queries a couch view optimized for a specific lookup @classmethod def by_name(cls, domain, name): # the view method is provided by couchdbkit and handles # wrapping json CouchDB results as Python objects, and # can take various parameters modifying behavior return cls.view('groups/by_name', key=[domain, name]) # method that creates a related document def get_new_user(self): user = User(domain=self.domain) user.save() self.user_ids.append(user._id) return user in views.py: from models import User, Group # there are tons of views like this, (request, domain, ...) def create_new_user_in_group(request, domain, group_name): group = Group.by_name(domain, group_name)[0] user = User(domain=domain) user.save() group.user_ids.append(user._id) group.save() in group/by_name/map.js: function (doc) { if (doc.doc_type == "Group") { emit([doc.domain, doc.name], null); } } After models.py class DomainDocument(Document): domain = StringProperty() @classmethod def domain_view(cls, *args, **kwargs): kwargs['key'] = [cls.domain.default] + kwargs['key'] return super(DomainDocument, cls).view(*args, **kwargs) @classmethod def get(cls, *args, **kwargs, validate_domain=True): ret = super(DomainDocument, cls).get(*args, **kwargs) if validate_domain and ret.domain != cls.domain.default: raise Exception() return ret def models(self): # a mapping of all models in the application. accessing one returns the equivalent of class BoundUser(User): domain = StringProperty(default=self.domain) class User(DomainDocument): pass class Group(DomainDocument): name = StringProperty() user_ids = StringListProperty() def users(self): return [self.models.User.get(id) for id in self.user_ids] @classmethod def by_name(cls, name): return cls.domain_view('groups/by_name', key=[name]) def get_new_user(self): user = self.models.User() user.save() views.py @domain_view # decorator that sets request.models to the same sort of object that is returned by DomainDocument.models and removes the domain argument from the URL router def create_new_user_in_group(request, group_name): group = request.models.Group.by_name(group_name) user = request.models.User() user.save() group.user_ids.append(user._id) group.save() (Might be better to leave the abstraction leaky here in order to avoid having to deal with a couchapp-style //! include of a wrapper for emit that prepends doc.domain to the key or some other similar solution.) function (doc) { if (doc.doc_type == "Group") { emit([doc.name], null); } } Pros and Cons So what are the pros and cons of this? Pros: DRYer prevents you from creating related documents but forgetting to set the domain. prevents you from accidentally writing a django view - couch view execution path that leads to a security breach doesn't prevent you from accessing underlying self.domain and normal Document.view() method potentially gets rid of the need for a lot of sanity checks verifying whether two documents whose domains we expect to be equal are. Cons: adds some complexity hides what's really happening requires no model modules to have classes with the same name, or you would need to add sub-attributes to self.models for modules. However, requiring project-wide unique class names for models should actually be fine because they correspond to the doc_type property couchdbkit uses to decide which class to instantiate them as, which should be unique. removes explicit dependency documentation (from group.models import Group)

    Read the article

  • if I define `my_domain`, postfix does not expand mail aliases

    - by Norky
    I have postfix v2.6.6 running on CentOS 6.3, hostname priest.ocsl.local (private, internal domain) with a number of aliases supportpeople: [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] requests: "|/opt/rt4/bin/rt-mailgate --queue 'general' --action correspond --url http://localhost/", supportpeople help: "|/opt/rt4/bin/rt-mailgate --queue 'help' --action correspond --url http://localhost/", supportpeople If I leave postfix with its default configuration, then the aliases are resolved correctly/as I expect, so that incoming mail to, say, [email protected] will be piped through the rt-mailgate mailgate command and also be delivered (via the mail server for ocsl.co.uk (a publicly resolvable domain)) to [email protected], user2, etc. The problem comes when I define mydomain = ocsl.co.uk in /etc/postfix/main.cf (with the intention that outgoing mail come from, for example, [email protected]). When I do this, postfix continues to run the piped command correctly, however it no longer expands the nested aliases as I expect: instead of trying to deliver to [email protected], user2 etc, it tries to send to [email protected], which does not exist on the upstream mail server and generates NDRs. postconf -n for the non-working configuration follows (the working configuration differs only by the "mydomain" line. alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases command_directory = /usr/sbin config_directory = /etc/postfix daemon_directory = /usr/libexec/postfix data_directory = /var/lib/postfix debug_peer_level = 2 html_directory = no inet_interfaces = all inet_protocols = all mail_owner = postfix mailq_path = /usr/bin/mailq.postfix manpage_directory = /usr/share/man mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$mydomain, localhost mydomain = ocsl.co.uk newaliases_path = /usr/bin/newaliases.postfix queue_directory = /var/spool/postfix readme_directory = /usr/share/doc/postfix-2.6.6/README_FILES sample_directory = /usr/share/doc/postfix-2.6.6/samples sendmail_path = /usr/sbin/sendmail.postfix setgid_group = postdrop unknown_local_recipient_reject_code = 550 We did have things working as we expected/wanted previously on an older system running Sendmail.

    Read the article

  • Ubuntu 12.04 VirtualBox on powerful W7 quite slow

    - by wnstnsmth
    I own a Thinkpad T420s with 8GB RAM, 160 GB SSD and a quite fast i7 processor. Summa summarum a very fast computer that works perfectly. Now, I am not very impressed by the performance of my Ubuntu 12.04 virtual machine running on VirtualBox 4.1.18. I assume that Virtual Machines are always a bit slower than the guest system, still I think it should be more performant given the hardware settings I give it: 4096 MB RAM 1 CPU without CPU limitation (I would like to give it more but then it does not seem to work - I am not experienced in this maybe somebody could give me advice on this too) Activated PAE/NX, VT-x/AMD-V and Nested Paging 96 MB Graphics Memory (no 2D or 3D acceleration) ~ 14 GB disk space, currently about 7 GB are used Maybe I misconfigured something, could you give me a hint please? Thanks! Edit: What I mean by slow is that for example switching tabs in the browser (whether FF or Chrome) only goes with a 0.5s delay or something, as well as switching application windows and/or double-clicking applications in the dock to get all open windows.. opening Aptana takes about a minute whereas opening something like Photoshop on the guest system takes 5 seconds

    Read the article

  • How many VPS do I need for my website? [duplicate]

    - by michael
    This question already has an answer here: How do you do load testing and capacity planning for web sites? 3 answers I made a website which aims at simulating a trading market. There are a list of prices and corresponding volumes that people want to purchase. Users can purchase at any price any time. My website retrieves the prices and volumes from my database every 2 seconds (I have to update the user's browser frequently to allow them to see the current market). Users' database INSERT query can be sent any time if they purchase. I used ajax to post or get data from my database (sometimes nested ajax calls). So, every 2 seconds, each user will send or retrieve data by using more than 20 database queries (in order to show a users the current prices and volumes). Also, I may have 200 users at a time. I was not using VPS before, and I got banned because of using too much CPU resources on my host. Now, I've purchased VPS*2 from a hosting servers. I have: CPU Speed: 2000 Mhz Memory: 2048 MB Disk Space: 20000 MB Bandwidth: 2000 GB Connection: 40 Mb/s Dedicated IP's 2 IP's Is this enough for my 200 users? Also, which VPS OS is suitable for me? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Border image on UIView

    - by drunknbass
    I want to have a UIView subclass that has a border image, but i dont want or care about this 'new' frame/bounds around the border image itself. What i wanted to do was just use drawRect and draw outside of the rect but all drawing is clipped and i dont see a way to not clip drawing outside of this context rect. So now i have added a sublayer to the views layer, set [self clipsToBounds] on the view and override setFrame to control my sublayers frame and always keep it at the proper size (spilling over the views frame by 40px) the problem with this is that setFrame on a uiview by default has no animation but seTFrame on a calayer does. i cant just disable the animations on the calayers setFrame because if i were to call setFrame on the uiview inside a uiview animation block the calayer would still have its animation disabled. the obvious solution is to look up the current animationDuration on the uiview animation and set a matching animation on the sublayer, but i dont know if this value is available. And even if it is, im afraid that calling an animation from within another animation is wrong. Unfortunately the best solution is to not use a calayer at all and just add a uiview as a subview and draw into that just like i am drawing into my layer, and hope that with autoresizingMask set to height and width that everything will 'just work'. Just seems like unnecessary overhead for such a simple task.

    Read the article

  • Dynamics CRM error "A currency is required if a value exists in a money field" after converting Acti

    - by Evgeny
    We have a Dynamics CRM 4.0 instance with some custom attributes of type "money" on the Case entity and on all Activity entities (Email, Phone Call, etc.) When I use the built-in "Convert Activity to Case" functionality I find that the resulting Case does not have a Currency set, even if the Activity it was created from does have it. Whenever the case is opened the user then gets this JavaScript error: A currency is required if a value exists in a money field. Select a currency and try again. This is extremely annoying! How do I fix it? Is there any way I can set the currency? It needs to be done synchronously, because the Case is opened immediately when it's created from an Activity. So even if I started a workflow to set the currency the user would still get that error at least once. Alterntatively, can I just suppress the warning somehow? I don't really care about setting the Currency, I just want the error gone. Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Refresh RadGridview when Insert,Update and Delete Operation done on Database in WPF

    - by patelriki13
    WPF and C#: Problem: 1. How to Refresh Radgridview when i Insert,update and Delete Record in database anrecord. 2.when i am Insert or Update Record than in radgridview that row is selected. i am useing sql server 2005. i am use to set data source of radgridview like " radgridview1.ItemsSource = ds; " == ds is dataset. i am beginner so if possible than tel me by code it is easy to understand....... can u help me as early as possible .... i give some code which i am useing for update RadGridview con.ConnectionString = @"Data Source=(local);Initial Catalog=DigiDms;Integrated Security=True"; cmd1.Connection = con; con.Open(); cmd1.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd1.CommandText = "Pro_Insurance_Master_Select"; da1.SelectCommand = cmd1; da1.Fill(ds1); con.Close(); //dataGrid.clear(); //dsGrid.Reset(); //dsGrid = dataGrid.GetData("Pro_Insurance_Master_Select"); //set datasource of gridview gridShowData.ItemsSource = null; gridShowData.ItemsSource = ds1; doing this , when i am delete or update record than folloning error generated... Error: "Object reference not set to an object" when i am doing the "gridShowData.ItemsSource = null;" and when i am doing insert operation than this error is not generated and RadGridview also updated..... so pls help me as early as possible.... i am beginer ........ my email address is [email protected]

    Read the article

  • Silverlight data binding to parent user control's properties with using MVVM in both controls

    - by MagicMax
    Hello! I have two UserControls ("UserControlParentView" and "UserControlChildView") with MVVM pattern implemented in both controls. Parent control is a container for Child control and child control's property should be updated by data binding from Parent control in order to show/hide some check box inside Child control. Parent Control Description UserControlParentViewModel has property: private bool isShowCheckbox = false; public bool IsShowCheckbox { get { return isShowCheckbox; } set { isShowCheckbox = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("IsShowCheckbox"); } } UserControlParentViewModel - how I set DataContext of Parent control: public UserControlParentView() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = new UserControlParentViewModel(); } UserControlParentView contains toggle button (in XAML), bound to UserControlParentViewModel's property IsShowCheckbox <ToggleButton Grid.Column="1" IsChecked="{Binding IsShowCheckbox, Mode=TwoWay}"></ToggleButton> Also Parent control contains instance of child element (somewhere in XAML) <local:UserControlChildView IsCheckBoxVisible="{Binding IsShowCheckbox}" ></local:UserControlChildView> so property in child control should be updated when user togggle/untoggle button. Child control contains Boolean property to be updated from parent control, but nothing happened! Breakpoint never fired! Property in UserControlChildView that should be updated from Parent control (here I plan to make chechBox visible/hidden in code behind): public bool IsCheckBoxVisible { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty); } set { SetValue(IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for IsCheckBoxVisible. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty IsCheckBoxVisibleProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsCheckBoxVisible", typeof(bool), typeof(TopMenuButton), new PropertyMetadata(false)); So the question is - what I'm doing wrong? Why child's property is never updated? BTW - there is no any binding error warnings in Output window...

    Read the article

  • Deploy ASP.NET MVC 2 to IIS 7.5 targeting .NET 3.5

    - by Agent_9191
    I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 application in Visual Studio 2008. I set the release build to go through the ASP.NET compiler to precompile all the views, minify Javascript and CSS, clean up the web.config, etc. Since the production deployment is going to an IIS6 server, I set up my pseudo-production deployment on my Windows 7 machine to have the application pool run in classic mode targeting the 2.0 runtime. I set up the extensionless handler in the web.config that's necessary and everything worked great. The problem came when I upgraded the solution to Visual Studio 2010. I'm still targeting the 3.5 framework, but now I'm using MSBuild 4.0 since that's what Visual Studio 2010 uses. Everything still compiles correctly because it runs fine under Cassini, but when I deploy it to the same location (same application pool, identity, etc) it now behaves differently. I still have the extensionless handler in the web.config, but now when I navigate to the root of the application it does directory browsing, and any routes that it had previously handled now come back as 404 errors being handled by the StaticFile handler in IIS. I'm at a loss for what changed and is causing the break. I have looked at this question, but I have already verified that all the prerequisite components are installed.

    Read the article

  • Flash AS3: (VideoEvent.COMPLETE, completePlay) - listener is triggered before video is completed

    - by Tevi
    Hello, I have a flash video using the standard FLV Playback component that comes with Flash. I'm using ActionScript 3 to modify the appearance and set up an event listener. I've set it up to go to a new URL using "externalInterface" when the video completes play. The URL is set in a variable using SWFObject. On only a few instances (3 people out of 50 - tested using Amazon Turk), people reported being taken directly to the new url, before the video even started playing. It's difficult to repeat the issue, but it did happen to me once. It doesn't have anything to do with cache, since it has been reported on people going to the url for the first time. Here's the url to the video: http://www.partstown.com/is-bin/INTERSHOP.enfinity/WFS/Reedy-PartsTown-Site/en_US/-/USD/ViewStaticPage-UnFramed?page=tourthetown Here's the code: import flash.external.*; import fl.video.*; var myVideo:FLVPlayback = new FLVPlayback(); var theUrl:String = this.loaderInfo.parameters.urlName; var theScript:String = this.loaderInfo.parameters.scriptName; myVideo.source = this.loaderInfo.parameters.videoPath;//"partstown.flv"; myVideo.skin = this.loaderInfo.parameters.skinPath;//"SkinUnderPlayStopSeekMuteVol.swf" myVideo.skinBackgroundColor = 0xAEBEFB; myVideo.skinBackgroundAlpha = 0.5; myVideo.width = 939; myVideo.height = 660; myVideo.addEventListener(VideoEvent.COMPLETE, completePlay); function completePlay(e:VideoEvent):void { myVideo.alpha=0.2; ExternalInterface.call(theScript); } addChild(myVideo); Why would the listener be triggered before the event complete? How can I fix it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • new ActiveXObject('Word.Application') creates new winword.exe process when IE security does not allo

    - by Mark Ott
    We are using MS Word as a spell checker for a few fields on a private company web site, and when IE security settings are correct it works well. (Zone for the site set to Trusted, and trusted zone modified to allow control to run without prompting.) The script we are using creates a word object and closes it afterward. While the object exists, a winword.exe process runs, but it is destroyed when the word object is closed. If our site is not set in the trusted zone (Internet zone with default security level) the call that creates the word object fails as expected, but the winword.exe process is still created. I do not have any way to interact with this process in the script, so the process stays around until the user logs off (users have no way to manually destroy the process, and it wouldn't be a good solution even if they did.) The call that attempts to create the object is... try { oWordApplication = new ActiveXObject('Word.Application'); } catch(error) { // irrelevant code removed, described in comments.. // notify user spell check cannot be used // disable spell check option } So every time the page is loaded this code may be run again, creating yet another orphan winword.exe process. oWordApplication is, of course, undefined in the catch block. I would like to be able to detect the browser security settings beforehand, but I have done some searching on this and do not think that it is possible. Management here is happy with it as it is. As long as IE security is set correctly it works, and it works well for our purposes. (We may eventually look at other options for spell check functionality, but this was quick, inexpensive, and does everything we need it to do.) This last problem bugs me and I'd like to do something about it, but I'm out of ideas and I have other things that are more in need of my attention. Before I put it aside, I thought I'd ask for suggestions here...

    Read the article

  • Getting warning about sensitive information that could be disclosed to 3rd parties - Asp.net MVC 2.0

    - by chobo2
    Hi I never gotten this message before I started to use asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery 1.4. <title>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</title> <span><H1>Server Error in '/' Application.<hr width=100% size=1 color=silver></H1> <h2> <i>This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.</i> </h2></span> <font face="Arial, Helvetica, Geneva, SunSans-Regular, sans-serif "> <b> Description: </b>An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. <br><br> <b> Exception Details: </b>System.InvalidOperationException: This request has been blocked because sensitive information could be disclosed to third party web sites when this is used in a GET request. To allow GET requests, set JsonRequestBehavior to AllowGet.<br><br> So it makes me wondering what sensitive data could be disclosed and if so how to get around this? What I was trying to send back was a rendered string of a partial view(http://www.klopfenstein.net/lorenz.aspx/render-partial-view-to-string-in-asp-net-mvc) and a success msg.

    Read the article

  • Problem with TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime: missed the Daylight Saving switch.

    - by SirMoreno
    My web app runs on .Net 3.5, all of the dates are saved on the DB in UTC time (not in user time). When I want to display a date I convert it to user date (from UTC) //Get the current datetime of the user exp: GMT TO ISRAEL +2 public static DateTime GetUserDateTime(DateTime dateUTC) { string userTzId = "Israel Standard Time"; TimeZoneInfo userTZ = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(userTzId); dateUTC = DateTime.SpecifyKind(dateUTC, DateTimeKind.Utc); DateTime ret = TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime(dateUTC, TimeZoneInfo.Utc, userTZ); return ret; } Until now it worked fine but I have users from Israel (GMT +2), and Israel switched to Daylight saving time on 26/3/10 so now it's (GMT +3). For some reason the TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTime don't know the Daylight saving time switch is on 26/3/10 so it still converts to GMT +2. The strange thing is that on localhost it works fine, I set up a test page: DateTime userdate = GetUserDateTime(DateTime.UtcNow); string str2 = "UserDateTime = " + userdate.ToString("dd/MM/yy") + " " + userdate.ToString("HH:mm"); On the Server (windows 2003 set to UTC time) it shows the wrong time (+2): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 21:38 On localhost (windows XP set to Israel Time) it shows the correct time (+3): UserDateTime = 27/03/10 22:38 How can I update the TimeZoneInfo that the Daylight saving time switch in Israel was on the 26/3/10? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to use multiple DisplayName attribute using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

    - by Picflight
    Depending on where I use my Class, I want to be able to show a different DisplayName. I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • ListView setOnItemClickListener and setOnItemSelectedListener to store the Selected Item Index

    - by Christophe
    Hi all, I have read on this site that it is necessary to customize the setOnItemSelectedListener and setOnItemClickListener of a ListView if we want to know the Index of the SelectedItem (.getSelectedItemPosition()). So that is what I do but it does not stores the position of the SekectedItem, instead i have always -1... What I want to do is just to give the user a way to delete items from a list by selected and Item and Clicking a button. See the code below : listViewPeople.setOnItemClickListener(new ListView.OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int i, long l) { try { // Remembers the selected Index listViewPeopleId = listViewPeople.getSelectedItemPosition(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot get the selected index"); } } }); listViewPeople.setOnItemSelectedListener(new ListView.OnItemSelectedListener() { @Override public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int i, long l) { try { // Remembers the selected Index listViewPeopleId = listViewPeople.getSelectedItemPosition(); System.out.println("Yay, set the selected index " + listViewPeopleId); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot get the selected index " + listViewPeopleId); } } @Override public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0) { try { // Remembers nothing selected listViewPeopleId = -1; System.out.println("Yay, set that nothing is selected " + listViewPeopleId); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Nay, cannot set that nothing is selected " + listViewPeopleId); } } }); What's wrong?? Thank you for your help! Christophe

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 Overriding the DataForm Autogenerate to insert Combo Boxes bound to Converters.

    - by kmacmahon
    I've been working towards a solution for some time and could use a little help. I know I've seen an example of this before, but tonight I cannot find anything close to what I need. I have a service that provides me all my DropDownLists, either from Cache or from the DomainService. They are presented as IEnumerable, and are requested from the a repository with GetLookup(LookupId). I have created a custom attribute that I have decorated my MetaDataClass that looks something like this: [Lookup(Lookup.Products)] public Guid ProductId I have created a custom Data Form that is set to AutoGenerateFields and I am intercepting the autogenerate fields. I am checking for my CustomAttribute and that works. Given this code in my CustomDataForm (standard comments removed for brevity), what is the next step to override the field generation and place a bound combobox in its place? public class CustomDataForm : DataForm { private Dictionary<string, DataField> fields = new Dictionary<string, DataField>(); public Dictionary<string, DataField> Fields { get { return this.fields; } } protected override void OnAutoGeneratingField(DataFormAutoGeneratingFieldEventArgs e) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = this.CurrentItem.GetType().GetProperty(e.PropertyName); foreach (Attribute attribute in propertyInfo.GetCustomAttributes(true)) { LookupFieldAttribute lookupFieldAttribute = attribute as LookupFieldAttribute; if (lookupFieldAttribute != null) { // Create a combo box. // Bind it to my Lookup IEnumerable // Set the selected item to my Field's Value // Set the binding two way } } this.fields[e.PropertyName] = e.Field; base.OnAutoGeneratingField(e); } } Any cited working examples for SL4/VS2010 would be appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Linq The specified type 'string' is not a valid provider type.

    - by Joe Pitz
    Using Linq to call a stored procedure that passes a single string, The stored procedure returns a data set row that contains a string and an int. Code: PESQLDataContext pe = new PESQLDataContext(strConnStr); pe.ObjectTrackingEnabled = false; gvUnitsPassed.DataSource = pe.PassedInspection(Line); gvUnitsPassed.DataBind(); pe.dispose(); When the code runs an exception gets called below: The exception is thrown at the IExecuteResult result = statement: Enclosed is my result class in the designer.cs file. [Function(Name = "dbo.PassedInspection")] public ISingleResult<PassedInspectionResult> PassedInspection([Parameter(Name = "Model", DbType = "VarChar(4)")] string model) { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall(this, ((MethodInfo)(MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod())), model); return ((ISingleResult<PassedInspectionResult>)(result.ReturnValue)); } public partial class PassedInspectionResult { private string _Date; private int _Passed; public PassedInspectionResult() { } [Column(Storage = "_Date", DbType = "string NULL")] public string Date { get { return this._Date; } set { if ((this._Date != value)) { this._Date = value; } } } [Column(Storage = "_Passed", DbType = "Int NULL")] public int Passed { get { return this._Passed; } set { if ((this._Passed != value)) { this._Passed = value; } } } } } I have other stored procedures with similar arguments that run just fine. Thanks

    Read the article

  • SSRS 2005 - Cascading parameters and default value update problem

    - by sHr0oMaN
    I have a report with cascading parameters. The first parameter is Finanical Period Type, being either Month or Week. The second parameter is a list of either financial months or weeks depending on what was selected for the first parameter. This all works well and selecting a series of different Financial Period Types in sequence correctly updates the second parameter's values. However I now wish to add a default value for the second parameter, which is once again dependent on the first parameter. So I've added an additional field to the dataset populating the second parameter called DefaultPeriod and set the second parameter's default value to be retrieved from the above field. The first time I select the Financial Period Type, the default is correctly set. However changing the Financial Period Type results in an updated list for the second parameter, but the default is incorrect. It remains set to the original default value, even thought the dataset has been refresh and the DefaultPeriod field is correct. This is both an issue in the IDE and on the Report Manager site.

    Read the article

  • VS 2010 debugger not loading symbols when attaching to NUnit

    - by Dave Hanna
    (I just posted this in the NUnit discussion group on groups.google.com) Under VS 2008, I would run my tests under NUnit, and, if I needed to debug, I would attach the VS2008 debugger to the running Nunit process (Debug - Attach to Process), and set any breakpoints on code I wanted to examine. When I hit the Run buttion in NUnit, it would hit the breakpoint. (BTW, if it matters, this was running NUnit 2.5.2). I just upgraded to NUnit 2.5.4 and VS 2010. When I set a breakpoint, then attach to NUnit, I get a little warning symbol on the breakpoint dot, and hovering over it gives the tooltip "Breakpoint will not be hit. No symbols are currently loaded". Going to the Debug - Windows - Modules window shows a whole bunch of Windows and NUnit modules loaded, with the Symbol Status of "Skipped loading symbols", and then 1 module with a funny name that changes each time (r1euhmh5 right now), and Symbol Status of "No symbols loaded". (There is no trace of a module with a name remotely like my DLL under test). Right clicking the funny filename (assuming that to be some mapping from my DLL under test), and clicking Load Symbols From - Symbol Path, and navigating to the bin\debug folder, then clicking the pdb file of my DLL under test, I get the message "A matching symbol was not found in this folder". (The top of the Open dialog box has a line that says "Original location: r1euhmh5.pdb") So what's changed? And how do I go about debugging/breakpointing under VS 2010/NUnit 2.5.4 (Or is it possible I screwed something up when I decided to go through my VS2010 options and set some of them to more advanced levels than I knew what I was doing?) I appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • Reducing WPF binding boilerplate with styles - updating the bindings themselves via styling?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

    Read the article

  • Spring security custom ldap authentication provider

    - by wuntee
    I currently have my ldap authentication context set up like this: <ldap-server url="ldap://host/dn" manager-dn="cn=someuser" manager-password="somepass" /> <authentication-manager> <ldap-authentication-provider user-search-filter="(samaccountname={0})"/> </authentication-manager> Now, I need to be able to set up a custom authorities mapper (it uses a different ldap server) - so I am assuming I need to set up my ldap-server similar to (http://static.springsource.org/spring-security/site/docs/2.0.x/reference/ldap.html): <bean id="ldapAuthProvider" class="org.springframework.security.providers.ldap.LdapAuthenticationProvider"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="org.springframework.security.providers.ldap.authenticator.BindAuthenticator"> <constructor-arg ref="contextSource"/> <property name="userDnPatterns"> <list><value>uid={0},ou=people</value></list> </property> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg> <bean class="org.springframework.security.ldap.populator.DefaultLdapAuthoritiesPopulator"> <constructor-arg ref="contextSource"/> <constructor-arg value="ou=groups"/> <property name="groupRoleAttribute" value="ou"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> But, how do I reference that 'ldapAuthProvider' to the ldap-server in the security context? I am also using spring-security 3, so '' does not exist...

    Read the article

  • JavaMail: Could not connect to SMPT server.

    - by javacode
    Hi The following code causes an error. Please help me understand what's wrong. import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import java.util.*; public class SendMail { public static void main(String [] args)throws MessagingException { SendMail sm=new SendMail(); sm.postMail(new String[]{"[email protected]"},"hi","hello","[email protected]"); } public void postMail( String recipients[ ], String subject, String message , String from) throws MessagingException { boolean debug = false; //Set the host smtp address Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "webmail.emailmyname.com"); // create some properties and get the default Session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); session.setDebug(debug); // create a message Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); // set the from and to address InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(from); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[recipients.length]; for (int i = 0; i < recipients.length; i++) { addressTo[i] = new InternetAddress(recipients[i]); } msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); // Optional : You can also set your custom headers in the Email if you Want msg.addHeader("MyHeaderName", "myHeaderValue"); // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg); } } Exception: Exception in thread "main" javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: webmail.emailmyname.com, port: 25, response: 421 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1694) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:525) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:291) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:172) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:121) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:190) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:120) at SendMail.postMail(SendMail.java:45) at SendMail.main(SendMail.java:9)

    Read the article

  • NHibernate SubclassMap gives DuplicateMappingException

    - by stiank81
    I'm using NHibernate to handle my database - with Fluent configuration. I'm not using Automappings. All mappings are written explicitly, and everything is working just fine. Now I wanted to add my first mapping to a subclass, using the SubclassMap, and I run into problems. With the simplest possible setup an Nhibernate DuplicateMappingException is thrown, saying that the subclass is mapped more than once: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping MyNamespace.SubPerson I get this with my simple classes written for testing: public class Person { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class SubPerson : Person { public string Foo { get; set; } } With the following mappings: public class PersonMapping : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.Id); Map(c => c.Name); } } public class SubPersonMapping : SubclassMap<SubPerson> { public SubPersonMapping() { Not.LazyLoad(); Map(m => m.Foo); } } Any idea why this is happening? If there were automappings involved I guess it might have been caused by the automappings adding a mapping too, but there should be no automapping. I create my database specifying a fluent mapping: private static ISession CreateSession() { var cfg = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().UsingFile("unit_test.db")). Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<SomeClassInTheAssemblyContainingAllMappings>()); var sessionSource = new SessionSource(cfg.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new TestModel()); var session = sessionSource.CreateSession(); _sessionSource.BuildSchema(session); return session; } Again; note that this only happens with SubclassMap. ClassMap's are working just fine!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539  | Next Page >