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  • JPA - Entity design problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application and using JPA for persistence. I have a problem mentioned below: I have two entities: Country City Country has the following attribute: CountryName (PK) City has the following attribute: CityName Now as there can be two cities with same name in two different countries, the primaryKey for City table in the datbase is a composite primary key composed of CityName and CountryName. Now my question is How to implement the primary key of the City as an Entity in Java @Entity public class Country implements Serializable { private String countryName; @Id public String getCountryName() { return this.countryName; } } @Entity public class City implements Serializable { private CityPK cityPK; private Country country; @EmbeddedId public CityPK getCityPK() { return this.cityPK; } } @Embeddable public class CityPK implements Serializable { public String cityName; public String countryName; } Now as we know that the relationship from Country to City is OneToMany and to show this relationship in the above code, I have added a country variable in City class. But then we have duplicate data(countryName) stored in two places in the City class: one in the country object and other in the cityPK object. But on the other hand, both are necessary: countryName in cityPK object is necessary because we implement composite primary keys in this way. countryName in country object is necessary because it is the standard way of showing relashionship between objects. How to get around this problem?

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  • what does this attempted trojan horse code do?

    - by bstullkid
    It looks like this just sends a ping, but whats the point of that when you can just use ping? /* WARNING: this is someone's attempt at writing a malware trojan. Do not compile and *definitely* don't install. I added an exit as the first line to avoid mishaps - msw */ int main (int argc, char *argv[]) { exit(1); unsigned int pid = 0; char buffer[2]; char *args[] = { "/bin/ping", "-c", "5", NULL, NULL }; if (argc != 2) return 0; args[3] = strdup(argv[1]); for (;;) { gets(buffer); /* FTW */ if (buffer[0] == 0x6e) break; switch (pid = fork()) { case -1: printf("Error Forking\n"); exit(255); case 0: execvp(args[0], args); exit(1); default: break; } } return 255; }

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  • Cannot clear the form after Submit using the Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

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  • derived class as default argument g++

    - by Vincent
    Please take a look at this code: template<class T> class A { class base { }; class derived : public A<T>::base { }; public: int f(typename A<T>::base& arg = typename A<T>::derived()) { return 0; } }; int main() { A<int> a; a.f(); return 0; } Compiling generates the following error message in g++: test.cpp: In function 'int main()': test.cpp:25: error: default argument for parameter of type 'A<int>::base&' has type 'A<int>::derived' The basic idea (using derived class as default value for base-reference-type argument) works in visual studio, but not in g++. I have to publish my code to the university server where they compile it with gcc. What can I do? Is there something I am missing?

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  • How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

    - by Jamie Ide
    I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

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  • Are functional programming languages good for practical tasks?

    - by Clueless
    It seems to me from my experimenting with Haskell, Erlang and Scheme that functional programming languages are a fantastic way to answer scientific questions. For example, taking a small set of data and performing some extensive analysis on it to return a significant answer. It's great for working through some tough Project Euler questions or trying out the Google Code Jam in an original way. At the same time it seems that by their very nature, they are more suited to finding analytical solutions than actually performing practical tasks. I noticed this most strongly in Haskell, where everything is evaluated lazily and your whole program boils down to one giant analytical solution for some given data that you either hard-code into the program or tack on messily through Haskell's limited IO capabilities. Basically, the tasks I would call 'practical' such as Aceept a request, find and process requested data, and return it formatted as needed seem to translate much more directly into procedural languages. The most luck I have had finding a functional language that works like this is Factor, which I would liken to a reverse-polish-notation version of Python. So I am just curious whether I have missed something in these languages or I am just way off the ball in how I ask this question. Does anyone have examples of functional languages that are great at performing practical tasks or practical tasks that are best performed by functional languages?

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • Reading in bytes produced by PHP script in Java to create a bitmap

    - by Kareem
    I'm having trouble getting the compressed jpeg image (stored as a blob in my database). here is the snippet of code I use to output the image that I have in my database: if($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)) { $size = $row['image_size']; $image = $row['image']; if($image == null){ echo "no image!"; } else { header('Content-Type: content/data'); header("Content-length: $size"); echo $image; } } here is the code that I use to read in from the server: URL sizeUrl = new URL(MYURL); URLConnection sizeConn = sizeUrl.openConnection(); // Get The Response BufferedReader sizeRd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(sizeConn.getInputStream())); String line = ""; while(line.equals("")){ line = sizeRd.readLine(); } int image_size = Integer.parseInt(line); if(image_size == 0){ return null; } URL imageUrl = new URL(MYIMAGEURL); URLConnection imageConn = imageUrl.openConnection(); // Get The Response InputStream imageRd = imageConn.getInputStream(); byte[] bytedata = new byte[image_size]; int read = imageRd.read(bytedata, 0, image_size); Log.e("IMAGEDOWNLOADER", "read "+ read + " amount of bytes"); Log.e("IMAGEDOWNLOADER", "byte data has length " + bytedata.length); Bitmap theImage = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(bytedata, 0, image_size); if(theImage == null){ Log.e("IMAGEDOWNLOADER", "the bitmap is null"); } return theImage; My logging shows that everything has the right length, yet theImage is always null. I'm thinking it has to do with my content type. Or maybe the way I'm uploading?

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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

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  • CoInitialize fails in dll

    - by Quandary
    Question: I have the following program, which uses COM to use the Microsoft Speech API (SAPI) to take a text and output it as sound. Now it works fine as long as I have it in a .exe. When I load it as .dll, it fails. Why? I used dependencywalker, and saw the exe doesn't have MSVCR100D and ole32, so I loaded them like this: LoadLibraryA("MSVCR100D.DLL"); LoadLibraryA("ole32.dll"); but it didn't help... Any idea why ? #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include <cstdlib> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; if (FAILED(::CoInitialize(NULL))) return FALSE; HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Noobie was fragged by GSG9 Googlebot", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"Test Test", 0, NULL); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"This sounds normal <pitch middle = '-10'/> but the pitch drops half way through", SPF_IS_XML, NULL ); pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } ::CoUninitialize(); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • Getting values from the html to the controller

    - by tina
    Hi, I'm trying to access the values a user introduces in a table from my controller. This table is NOT part of the model, and the view source code is something like: <table id="tableSeriales" summary="Seriales" class="servicesT" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td class="servHd">Seriales</td> </tr> <tr id="t0"> <td class="servBodL"> <input id="0" type="text" value="1234" onkeypress = "return handleKeyPress(event, this.id);"/> <input id="1" type="text" value="578" onkeypress = "return handleKeyPress(event, this.id);"/> . . . </td> </tr> </table> How can I get those values (1234, 578) from the controller? Receiving a formcollection doesn't work since it does not get the table... Thank you.

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  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

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  • nhibernate : Repository Session Management

    - by frosty
    At the moment my repository has 2 constructors. When i call these from my mvc website i am alway calling first constructor and thus opening a new session. Should i been passing in the session. How should i be doing this. public CompanyRepository() { _session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession(); } public CompanyRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } public class NHibernateHelper { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (_sessionFactory == null) { var configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(UserProfile).Assembly); configuration.SetProperty(NHibernate.Cfg.Environment.ConnectionStringName, System.Environment.MachineName); _sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } I'm using the Ninject IOC container ( very new to me ). I have the following container. How would i bind the ISession to the CompanyRepository. private class EStoreDependencies : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<ICompanyRepository>().To<CompanyRepository>(); Bind<IUserProfileRepository>().To<UserProfileRepository>(); Bind<IAddressRepository>().To<AddressRepository>(); Bind<IRolesService>().To<AspNetRoleProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IUserService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<ICurrentUserSerivce>().To<DefaultCurrentUserSerivce>(); Bind<IPasswordService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IStatusResponseRepository>().To<StatusResponseRepository>(); Bind<ICategoryRepository>().To<CategoryRepository>(); Bind<IProductRepository>().To<ProductRepository>(); } }

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  • Django: Applying Calculations To A Query Set

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a QuerySet that I wish to pass to a generic view for pagination: links = Link.objects.annotate(votes=Count('vote')).order_by('-created')[:300] This is my "hot" page which lists my 300 latest submissions (10 pages of 30 links each). I want to now sort this QuerySet by an algorithm that HackerNews uses: (p - 1) / (t + 2)^1.5 p = votes minus submitter's initial vote t = age of submission in hours Now because applying this algorithm over the entire database would be pretty costly I am content with just the last 300 submissions. My site is unlikely to be the next digg/reddit so while scalability is a plus it is required. My question is now how do I iterate over my QuerySet and sort it by the above algorithm? For more information, here are my applicable models: class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category, blank=False, default=1) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) url = models.URLField(max_length=1024, unique=True, verify_exists=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=512) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s (%s)' % (self.name, self.url) class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s vote for %s' % (self.user, self.link) Notes: I don't have "downvotes" so just the presence of a Vote row is an indicator of a vote or a particular link by a particular user.

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  • problem with binarysearch algorithm

    - by arash
    hi friends,the code below belongs to binary search algorithm,user enter numbers in textbox1 and enter the number that he want to fing with binarysearch in textbox2.i have a problem with it,that is when i enter for example 15,21 in textbox1 and enter 15 in textbox2 and put brakpoint on the line i commented below,and i understood that it doesnt put the number in textbox2 in searchnums(commented),for more explanation i comment in code.thanks in advance public void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int searchnums = Convert.ToInt32(textBox2.Text);//the problem is here,the value in textbox2 doesnt exist in searchnums and it has value 0. int result = binarysearch(searchnums); MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); } public int binarysearch(int searchnum) { string[] source = textBox1.Text.Split(','); int[] nums = new int[source.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < source.Length; i++) { nums[i] = Convert.ToInt32(source[i]); } int first =0; int last = nums.Length; int mid = (int)Math.Floor(nums.Length / 2.0); while (1<= nums.Length) { if (searchnum < nums[mid]) { last = mid - 1; } if (searchnum > nums[mid]) { first = mid + 1; } else { return nums[mid]; } } return -1; }

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  • Controller class not available in Add View ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I have created the following controller i want to add view that should have the data access class UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems but when i add view by right clicking on view folder,it is not showing "UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems" in add data class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using UserManagement.Models; namespace UserManagement.Controllers { public class menuitems { EvoLetDataContext db1 = new EvoLetDataContext(); public menuitems() { } public IQueryable<UMUserType> menuitems() { return db1.UMUserTypes; //this.Packages = _SysPackage; //this.Modules = _SysModule; } public List<SysPackage> Packages { get; private set; } public List<SysModule> Modules { get; private set; } } public class Default1Controller : Controller { // // GET: /Default1/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(new menuitems()); } } }

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  • Question about Client IDs

    - by George
    I have a user control that is emmitting javascript using the ClientId function. For example: Out &= "ValidatorHookupControlID(" & Quote & ddlMonth.ClientID & Quote & "), document.all(" & Quote & CustomValidator1.ClientID & Quote & "));" & vbCrLf It appears to me that the ClientID function DOES not return the ultimate ID that is sent to the browser. Instead, the ClientID function only appears to be aware of its current parent control, which in this case is a the User Control and so the ID that is returned is the ID "dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" When in fact the usercontrol is included in a master page and the ultimate ID that is used is: "ctl00_phPageContent_dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" I may be nuts, but that's what it appears to be doing. I expect that the ClientID function would return the ultimate ID used in the HTML. Am I missing something?

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  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

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  • Using PHP as template language

    - by Kunal
    I wrote up this quick class to do templating via PHP -- I was wondering if this is easily exploitable if I were ever to open up templating to users (not the immediate plan, but thinking down the road). class Template { private $allowed_methods = array( 'if', 'switch', 'foreach', 'for', 'while' ); private function secure_code($template_code) { $php_section_pattern = '/\<\?(.*?)\?\>/'; $php_method_pattern = '/([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)[\s]*\(/'; preg_match_all($php_section_pattern, $template_code, $matches); foreach (array_unique($matches[1]) as $index => $code_chunk) { preg_match_all($php_method_pattern, $code_chunk, $sub_matches); $code_allowed = true; foreach ($sub_matches[1] as $method_name) { if (!in_array($method_name, $this->allowed_methods)) { $code_allowed = false; break; } } if (!$code_allowed) { $template_code = str_replace($matches[0][$index], '', $template_code); } } return $template_code; } public function render($template_code, $params) { extract($params); ob_start(); eval('?>'.$this->secure_code($template_code).'<?php '); $result = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $result; } } Example usage: $template_code = '<?= $title ?><? foreach ($photos as $photo): ?><img src="<?= $photo ?>"><? endforeach ?>'; $params = array('title' => 'My Title', 'photos' => array('img1.jpg', 'img2.jpg')); $template = new Template; echo $template->render($template_code, $params); The idea here is that I'd store the templates (PHP code) in the database, and then run it through the class which uses regular expressions to only allow permitted methods (if, for, etc.). Anyone see an obvious way to exploit this and run arbitrary PHP? If so, I'll probably go the more standard route of a templating language such as Smarty...

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  • How do I iterate over a collection that is in an object passed as parameter in a jasper report?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have an object A that has as an instance variable a collection of object Bs. Example: public class A{ String name; List<B> myList; ... public List<B> getMyList(){ return myList; } ... } I want this object to be the only source of information the jasper report gets, since all the information the report need is in A. I am currently doing something like: A myObjectA = new A(...); InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Object> parameters = new HashMap<String, Object>(); parameters.put("objectA", myObjectA); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JRBeanCollectionDataSource(myObjectA.getMyList())); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); thereby passing "two" parameters, the objectA as a concrete parameter and the collection of object Bs that is in A as a bean data source. How do I iterate over the Bs in A by passing only A? Thanks!

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  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

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  • .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

    - by larryq
    I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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