Search Results

Search found 35149 results on 1406 pages for 'yield return'.

Page 534/1406 | < Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >

  • problem with binarysearch algorithm

    - by arash
    hi friends,the code below belongs to binary search algorithm,user enter numbers in textbox1 and enter the number that he want to fing with binarysearch in textbox2.i have a problem with it,that is when i enter for example 15,21 in textbox1 and enter 15 in textbox2 and put brakpoint on the line i commented below,and i understood that it doesnt put the number in textbox2 in searchnums(commented),for more explanation i comment in code.thanks in advance public void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int searchnums = Convert.ToInt32(textBox2.Text);//the problem is here,the value in textbox2 doesnt exist in searchnums and it has value 0. int result = binarysearch(searchnums); MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); } public int binarysearch(int searchnum) { string[] source = textBox1.Text.Split(','); int[] nums = new int[source.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < source.Length; i++) { nums[i] = Convert.ToInt32(source[i]); } int first =0; int last = nums.Length; int mid = (int)Math.Floor(nums.Length / 2.0); while (1<= nums.Length) { if (searchnum < nums[mid]) { last = mid - 1; } if (searchnum > nums[mid]) { first = mid + 1; } else { return nums[mid]; } } return -1; }

    Read the article

  • copy rows before updating them to preserve archive in Postgres

    - by punkish
    I am experimenting with creating a table that keeps a version of every row. The idea is to be able to query for how the rows were at any point in time even if the query has JOINs. Consider a system where the primary resource is books, that is, books are queried for, and author info comes along for the ride CREATE TABLE authors ( author_id INTEGER NOT NULL, version INTEGER NOT NULL CHECK (version > 0), author_name TEXT, is_active BOOLEAN DEFAULT '1', modified_on TIMESTAMP DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (author_id, version) ) INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (1, 1, 'John'), (2, 1, 'Jack'), (3, 1, 'Ernest'); I would like to be able to update the above like so UPDATE authors SET author_name = 'Jack K' WHERE author_id = 1; and end up with 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 2, 2, Jack K, t, 2012-03-29 21:37:40 which I can then query with SELECT author_name, modified_on FROM authors WHERE author_id = 2 AND modified_on < '2012-03-29 21:37:00' ORDER BY version DESC LIMIT 1; to get 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 Something like the following doesn't really work CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION archive_authors() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $archive_author$ BEGIN IF (TG_OP = 'UPDATE') THEN -- The following fails because author_id,version PK already exists INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (OLD.author_id, OLD.version, OLD.author_name); UPDATE authors SET version = OLD.version + 1 WHERE author_id = OLD.author_id AND version = OLD.version; RETURN NEW; END IF; RETURN NULL; -- result is ignored since this is an AFTER trigger END; $archive_author$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER archive_author AFTER UPDATE OR DELETE ON authors FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE archive_authors(); How can I achieve the above? Or, is there a better way to accomplish this? Ideally, I would prefer to not create a shadow table to store the archived rows.

    Read the article

  • derived class as default argument g++

    - by Vincent
    Please take a look at this code: template<class T> class A { class base { }; class derived : public A<T>::base { }; public: int f(typename A<T>::base& arg = typename A<T>::derived()) { return 0; } }; int main() { A<int> a; a.f(); return 0; } Compiling generates the following error message in g++: test.cpp: In function 'int main()': test.cpp:25: error: default argument for parameter of type 'A<int>::base&' has type 'A<int>::derived' The basic idea (using derived class as default value for base-reference-type argument) works in visual studio, but not in g++. I have to publish my code to the university server where they compile it with gcc. What can I do? Is there something I am missing?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net membership salt?

    - by chobo2
    Hi Does anyone know how Asp.net membership generates their salt key and then how they encode it(ie is it salt + password or password + salt)? I am using sha1 with my membership but I would like to recreate the same salts so the built in membership stuff could hash the stuff the same way as my stuff can. Thanks Edit 2 Never Mind I mis read it and was thinking it said bytes not bit. So I was passing in 128 bytes not 128bits. Edit I been trying to make it so this is what I have public string EncodePassword(string password, string salt) { byte[] bytes = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(password); byte[] src = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(salt); byte[] dst = new byte[src.Length + bytes.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(src, 0, dst, 0, src.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(bytes, 0, dst, src.Length, bytes.Length); HashAlgorithm algorithm = HashAlgorithm.Create("SHA1"); byte[] inArray = algorithm.ComputeHash(dst); return Convert.ToBase64String(inArray); } private byte[] createSalt(byte[] saltSize) { byte[] saltBytes = saltSize; RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); rng.GetNonZeroBytes(saltBytes); return saltBytes; } So I have not tried to see if the asp.net membership will recognize this yet the hashed password looks close. I just don't know how to convert it to base64 for the salt. I did this byte[] storeSalt = createSalt(new byte[128]); string salt = Encoding.Unicode.GetString(storeSalt); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(storeSalt); int test = base64Salt.Length; Test length is 172 what is well over the 128bits so what am I doing wrong? This is what their salt looks like vkNj4EvbEPbk1HHW+K8y/A== This is what my salt looks like E9oEtqo0livLke9+csUkf2AOLzFsOvhkB/NocSQm33aySyNOphplx9yH2bgsHoEeR/aw/pMe4SkeDvNVfnemoB4PDNRUB9drFhzXOW5jypF9NQmBZaJDvJ+uK3mPXsWkEcxANn9mdRzYCEYCaVhgAZ5oQRnnT721mbFKpfc4kpI=

    Read the article

  • Controller class not available in Add View ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I have created the following controller i want to add view that should have the data access class UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems but when i add view by right clicking on view folder,it is not showing "UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems" in add data class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using UserManagement.Models; namespace UserManagement.Controllers { public class menuitems { EvoLetDataContext db1 = new EvoLetDataContext(); public menuitems() { } public IQueryable<UMUserType> menuitems() { return db1.UMUserTypes; //this.Packages = _SysPackage; //this.Modules = _SysModule; } public List<SysPackage> Packages { get; private set; } public List<SysModule> Modules { get; private set; } } public class Default1Controller : Controller { // // GET: /Default1/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(new menuitems()); } } }

    Read the article

  • Why does GCC need extra declarations in templates when VS does not?

    - by Kyle
    template<typename T> class Base { protected: Base() {} T& get() { return t; } T t; }; template<typename T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Base<T>::get; // Line A Base<T>::t; // Line B void foo() { t = 4; get(); } }; int main() { return 0; } If I comment out lines A and B, this code compiles fine under Visual Studio 2008. Yet when I compile under GCC 4.1 with lines A and B commented, I get these errors: In member function ‘void TemplateDerived::foo()’: error: ‘t’ was not declared in this scope error: there are no arguments to ‘get’ that depend on a template parameter, so a declaration of ‘get’ must be available Why would one compiler require lines A and B while the other doesn't? Is there a way to simplify this? In other words, if derived classes use 20 things from the base class, I have to put 20 lines of declarations for every class deriving from Base! Is there a way around this that doesn't require so many declarations?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

    Read the article

  • Cannot clear the form after Submit using the Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Question about Client IDs

    - by George
    I have a user control that is emmitting javascript using the ClientId function. For example: Out &= "ValidatorHookupControlID(" & Quote & ddlMonth.ClientID & Quote & "), document.all(" & Quote & CustomValidator1.ClientID & Quote & "));" & vbCrLf It appears to me that the ClientID function DOES not return the ultimate ID that is sent to the browser. Instead, the ClientID function only appears to be aware of its current parent control, which in this case is a the User Control and so the ID that is returned is the ID "dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" When in fact the usercontrol is included in a master page and the ultimate ID that is used is: "ctl00_phPageContent_dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" I may be nuts, but that's what it appears to be doing. I expect that the ClientID function would return the ultimate ID used in the HTML. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

    Read the article

  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

    Read the article

  • How do I iterate over a collection that is in an object passed as parameter in a jasper report?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have an object A that has as an instance variable a collection of object Bs. Example: public class A{ String name; List<B> myList; ... public List<B> getMyList(){ return myList; } ... } I want this object to be the only source of information the jasper report gets, since all the information the report need is in A. I am currently doing something like: A myObjectA = new A(...); InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Object> parameters = new HashMap<String, Object>(); parameters.put("objectA", myObjectA); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JRBeanCollectionDataSource(myObjectA.getMyList())); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); thereby passing "two" parameters, the objectA as a concrete parameter and the collection of object Bs that is in A as a bean data source. How do I iterate over the Bs in A by passing only A? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • NSURLConnection receives data even if no data was thrown back

    - by Anna Fortuna
    Let me explain my situation. Currently, I am experimenting long-polling using NSURLConnection. I found this and I decided to try it. What I do is send a request to the server with a timeout interval of 300 secs. (or 5 mins.) Here is a code snippet: NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageAllowedInMemoryOnly timeoutInterval:300]; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&resp error:&err]; Now I want to test if the connection will "hold" the request if no data was thrown back from the server, so what I did was this: if (data != nil) [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(dataReceived:) withObject:data waitUntilDone:YES]; And the function dataReceived: looks like this: - (void)dataReceived:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"DATA RECEIVED!"); NSString *string = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[data bytes]]; NSLog(@"THE DATA: %@", string); } Server-side, I created a function that will return a data once it fits the arguments and returns none if nothing fits. Here is a snippet of the PHP function: function retrieveMessages($vardata) { if (!empty($vardata)) { $result = check_data($vardata) //check_data is the function which returns 1 if $vardata //fits the arguments, and 0 if it fails to fit if ($result == 1) { $jsonArray = array('Data' => $vardata); echo json_encode($jsonArray); } } } As you can see, the function will only return data if the $result is equal to 1. However, even if the function returns nothing, NSURLConnection will still perform the function dataReceived: meaning the NSURLConnection still receives data, albeit an empty one. So can anyone help me here? How will I perform long-polling using NSURLConnection? Basically, I want to maintain the connection as long as no data is returned. So how will I do it? NOTE: I am new to PHP, so if my code is wrong, please point it out so I can correct it.

    Read the article

  • .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

    - by larryq
    I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

    Read the article

  • Type or namespace could not be found

    - by Jason Shultz
    I'm using LINQ to SQL to connect my database to my home page. I created my datacontext (named businessModel.dbml) In it I have two tables named Category and Business. In home controller I reference the model and attempt to return to the view the table: var dataContext = new businessModelDataContext(); var business = from b in dataContext.Businesses select b; ViewData["WelcomeMessage"] = "Welcome to Jerome, Arizona!"; ViewData["MottoMessage"] = "Largest Ghost Town in America!"; return View(business); and in the view I have this: <%@ Import Namespace="WelcomeToJerome.Models" %> and <% foreach (business b in (IEnumerable)ViewData.Model) { %> <li><%= b.Title %></li> <% } %> Yet, in the view business is cursed with the red underline and say's that The type or namespace name 'business' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) What am I doing wrong? This has had me stumped all afternoon. link to all the code in pastebin: http://pastebin.com/es4RnS2q

    Read the article

  • Searching with a UISearchbar is slow and blocking the main thread.

    - by Robert
    I have a Table with over 3000 entries and searching is very slow. At the moment I am doing just like in the 'TableSearch' example code (but without scopes) - (BOOL)searchDisplayController:(UISearchDisplayController *)controller shouldReloadTableForSearchString:(NSString *)searchString { [self filterContentForSearchText: searchString]; // Return YES to cause the search result table view to be reloaded. return YES; } And the filterContentForSearchText method is as follows: - (void) filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText { // Update the filtered array based on the search text // First clear the filtered array. [filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // Search the main list whose name matches searchText // add items that match to the filtered array. if (fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { for (id object in fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { NSString* searchTarget = [tableTypeDelegate getStringForSearchFilteringFromObject:object]; if ([searchTarget rangeOfString:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch)].location != NSNotFound) { [filteredListContent addObject:object]; } } } } My question is twofold: How do can I make the searching process faster? How can I stop the search from blocking the main thread? i.e. stop it preventing the user from typing more characters. For the second part, I tried "performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:" and "cancelPreviousPerformRequests..." without much success. I suspect that I will need to use threading instead, but I do not have much experience with it.

    Read the article

  • Django: Applying Calculations To A Query Set

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a QuerySet that I wish to pass to a generic view for pagination: links = Link.objects.annotate(votes=Count('vote')).order_by('-created')[:300] This is my "hot" page which lists my 300 latest submissions (10 pages of 30 links each). I want to now sort this QuerySet by an algorithm that HackerNews uses: (p - 1) / (t + 2)^1.5 p = votes minus submitter's initial vote t = age of submission in hours Now because applying this algorithm over the entire database would be pretty costly I am content with just the last 300 submissions. My site is unlikely to be the next digg/reddit so while scalability is a plus it is required. My question is now how do I iterate over my QuerySet and sort it by the above algorithm? For more information, here are my applicable models: class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category, blank=False, default=1) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) url = models.URLField(max_length=1024, unique=True, verify_exists=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=512) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s (%s)' % (self.name, self.url) class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s vote for %s' % (self.user, self.link) Notes: I don't have "downvotes" so just the presence of a Vote row is an indicator of a vote or a particular link by a particular user.

    Read the article

  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a BitmapImage from a background thread to the UI thread in WPF?

    - by DanM
    I have a background thread that generates a series of BitmapImage objects. Each time the background thread finishes generating a bitmap, I would like to show this bitmap to the user. The problem is figuring out how to pass the BitmapImage from the background thread to the UI thread. This is an MVVM project, so my view has an Image element: <Image Source="{Binding GeneratedImage}" /> My view-model has a property GeneratedImage: private BitmapImage _generatedImage; public BitmapImage GeneratedImage { get { return _generatedImage; } set { if (value == _generatedImage) return; _generatedImage= value; RaisePropertyChanged("GeneratedImage"); } } My view-model also has the code that creates the background thread: public void InitiateGenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { ThreadStart generatorThreadStarter = delegate { GenerateImages(coordinates); }; var generatorThread = new Thread(generatorThreadStarter); generatorThread.ApartmentState = ApartmentState.STA; generatorThread.IsBackground = true; generatorThread.Start(); } private void GenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { foreach (var coordinate in coordinates) { var backgroundThreadImage = GenerateImage(coordinate); // I'm stuck here...how do I pass this to the UI thread? } } I'd like to somehow pass backgroundThreadImage to the UI thread, where it will become uiThreadImage, then set GeneratedImage = uiThreadImage so the view can update. I've looked at some examples dealing with the WPF Dispatcher, but I can't seem to come up with an example that addresses this issue. Please advise.

    Read the article

  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

    Read the article

  • nhibernate : Repository Session Management

    - by frosty
    At the moment my repository has 2 constructors. When i call these from my mvc website i am alway calling first constructor and thus opening a new session. Should i been passing in the session. How should i be doing this. public CompanyRepository() { _session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession(); } public CompanyRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } public class NHibernateHelper { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (_sessionFactory == null) { var configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(UserProfile).Assembly); configuration.SetProperty(NHibernate.Cfg.Environment.ConnectionStringName, System.Environment.MachineName); _sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } I'm using the Ninject IOC container ( very new to me ). I have the following container. How would i bind the ISession to the CompanyRepository. private class EStoreDependencies : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<ICompanyRepository>().To<CompanyRepository>(); Bind<IUserProfileRepository>().To<UserProfileRepository>(); Bind<IAddressRepository>().To<AddressRepository>(); Bind<IRolesService>().To<AspNetRoleProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IUserService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<ICurrentUserSerivce>().To<DefaultCurrentUserSerivce>(); Bind<IPasswordService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IStatusResponseRepository>().To<StatusResponseRepository>(); Bind<ICategoryRepository>().To<CategoryRepository>(); Bind<IProductRepository>().To<ProductRepository>(); } }

    Read the article

  • jquery clone only once

    - by tsiger
    I have a series of divs like this: <div id="available-posts"> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> </div> The unique_id is a different number for each of the divs. Now i have a new empty div like this <div class="related-posts"></div> And i clone items in there. The thing is that i want to check if an item is already cloned. If it is i want to stop it from being cloned again. This is how i clone items: // clone it $('.addme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').clone().fadeIn('normal').appendTo('#related-posts').find('a.addme').html('Remove').removeClass('addme').addClass('removeme'); return false; }); // remove it $('.removeme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').fadeOut('normal', function() {$(this).remove(); }); return false; }); In other words i want the cloned list to contain only unique items. Not for example 2 clones of the same post. *edit: i am using live coz the first list (available posts) is populated through an AJAX call.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - How to Unit Test boundaries in the Repository pattern?

    - by JK
    Given a basic repository interface: public interface IPersonRepository { void AddPerson(Person person); List<Person> GetAllPeople(); } With a basic implementation: public class PersonRepository: IPersonRepository { public void AddPerson(Person person) { ObjectContext.AddObject(person); } public List<Person> GetAllPeople() { return ObjectSet.AsQueryable().ToList(); } } How can you unit test this in a meaningful way? Since it crosses the boundary and physically updates and reads from the database, thats not a unit test, its an integration test. Or is it wrong to want to unit test this in the first place? Should I only have integration tests on the repository? I've been googling the subject and blogs often say to make a stub that implements the IRepository: public class PersonRepositoryTestStub: IPersonRepository { private List<Person> people = new List<Person>(); public void AddPerson(Person person) { people.Add(person); } public List<Person> GetAllPeople() { return people; } } But that doesnt unit test PersonRepository, it tests the implementation of PersonRepositoryTestStub (not very helpful).

    Read the article

  • Very slow guards in my monadic random implementation (haskell)

    - by danpriduha
    Hi! I was tried to write one random number generator implementation, based on number class. I also add there Monad and MonadPlus instance. What mean "MonadPlus" and why I add this instance? Because of I want to use guards like here: -- test.hs -- import RandomMonad import Control.Monad import System.Random x = Rand (randomR (1 ::Integer, 3)) ::Rand StdGen Integer y = do a <-x guard (a /=2) guard (a /=1) return a here comes RandomMonad.hs file contents: -- RandomMonad.hs -- module RandomMonad where import Control.Monad import System.Random import Data.List data RandomGen g => Rand g a = Rand (g ->(a,g)) | RandZero instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => Monad (Rand g) where return x = Rand (\g ->(x,g)) (RandZero)>>= _ = RandZero (Rand argTransformer)>>=(parametricRandom) = Rand funTransformer where funTransformer g | isZero x = funTransformer g1 | otherwise = (getRandom x g1,getGen x g1) where x = parametricRandom val (val,g1) = argTransformer g isZero RandZero = True isZero _ = False instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => MonadPlus (Rand g) where mzero = RandZero RandZero `mplus` x = x x `mplus` RandZero = x x `mplus` y = x getRandom :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g ->a getRandom (Rand f) g = (fst (f g)) getGen :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g -> g getGen (Rand f) g = snd (f g) when I run ghci interpreter, and give following command getRandom y (mkStdGen 2000000000) I can see memory overflow on my computer (1G). It's not expected, and if I delete one guard, it works very fast. Why in this case it works too slow? What I do wrong?

    Read the article

  • Using PHP GD to create image form text with different fonts.

    - by Meredith
    I have been using this simple script to generate images from text: <?php header('Content-type: image/png'); $color = RgbfromHex($_GET['color']); $text = urldecode($_GET['text']); $font = 'arial.ttf'; $im = imagecreatetruecolor(400, 30); $bg_color = imagecolorallocate($im, 255, 255, 255); $font_color = imagecolorallocate($im, $color[0], $color[1], $color[2]); imagefilledrectangle($im, 0, 0, 399, 29, $bg_color); imagettftext($im, 20, 0, 10, 20, $font_color, $font, $text); imagepng($im); imagedestroy($im); function RgbfromHex($hexValue) { if(strlen(trim($hexValue))==6) { return array( hexdec(substr($hexValue,0,2)), // R hexdec(substr($hexValue,2,4)), // G hexdec(substr($hexValue,4,6)) // B ); } else return array(0, 0, 0); } ?> I call the script with file.php?text=testing script&color=000000 Now I'd like to know how could I generate text with normal and bold fonts mixed in the same image, something like file.php?text=testing <b>script</b>&color=000000

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >