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  • How to iterate properly across a const set?

    - by Jared
    I'm working on a program that's supposed to represent a graph. My issue is in my printAdjacencyList function. Basically, I have a Graph ADT that has a member variable "nodes", which is a map of the nodes of that graph. Each Node has a set of Edge* to the edges it is connected to. I'm trying to iterate across each node in the graph and each edge of a node. void MyGraph::printAdjacencyList() { std::map<std::string, MyNode*>::iterator mit; std::set<MyEdge*>::iterator sit; for (mit = nodes.begin(); mit != nodes.end(); mit++ ) { std::cout << mit->first << ": {"; const std::set<MyEdge*> edges = mit->second->getEdges(); for (sit = edges.begin(); sit != edges.end(); sit++) { std::pair<MyNode*, MyNode*> edgeNodes = *sit->getEndpoints(); } } std::cout << " }" << std::endl; } getEdges is declared as: const std::set<MyEdge*>& getEdges() { return edges; }; and get Endpoints is declared as: const std::pair<MyNode*, MyNode*>& getEndpoints() { return nodes; }; The compiler error I'm getting is: MyGraph.cpp:63: error: request for member `getEndpoints' in `*(&sit)->std::_Rb_tree_const_iterator<_Tp>::operator-> [with _Tp = MyEdge*]()', which is of non-class type `MyEdge* const' MyGraph.cpp:63: warning: unused variable 'edgeNodes' I have figured out that this probably means I'm misusing const somewhere, but I can't figure out where for the life of me. Any information would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • displaying the file data in correct format

    - by tazim
    hi, In views.py def showfiledata(request): with open("/home/tazim/webexample/tmp.txt") as f: read_data = f.read() f.closed return_dict = {'filedata':read_data} json = simplejson.dumps(return_dict) return HttpResponse(json,mimetype="application/json") In the template: < html < head < script type="text/javascript" src="/jquerycall/" < script type="text/javascript" $(document).ready(function() { $("button").click(function() { $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/showfiledata/", datatype:"json", success:function(data) { var s = data.filedata; $("#someid").html(s); } }); }); }); < /script < /head < body < form method="post" < button type="button"Click Me< /button < div id="someid"< /div < /form < /body < /html I am suppose to display file line by line . But, right now the lines get displayed withoout any linebreaks.

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  • LINQ to SQL - database relationships won't update after submit

    - by Quantic Programming
    I have a Database with the tables Users and Uploads. The important columns are: Users -> UserID Uploads -> UploadID, UserID The primary key in the relationship is Users -> UserID and the foreign key is Uploads -> UserID. In LINQ to SQL, I do the following operations: Retrieve files var upload = new Upload(); upload.UserID = user.UserID; upload.UploadID = XXX; db.Uploads.InsertOnSubmit(upload) db.SubmitChanges(); If I do that and rerun the application (and the db object is re-built, of course) - if do something like this: foreach(var upload in user.Uploads) I get all the uploads with that user's ID. (like added in the previous example) The problem is, that my application, after adding an upload an submitting changes, doesn't update the user.Uploads collection. i.e - I don't get the newly added uploads. The user object is stored in the Session object. At first, I though that the LINQ to SQL Framework doesn't update the reference of the object, therefore I should simply "reset" the user object from a new SQL request. I mean this: Session["user"] = db.Users.Where(u => u.UserID == user.UserID).SingleOrDefault(); (Where user is the previous user) But it didn't help. Please note: After rerunning the application, user.Uploads does have the new upload! Did anyone experience this type of problem, or is it normal behavior? I am a newbie to this framework. I would gladly take any advice. Thank you!

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  • How to end a thread in perl

    - by user1672190
    I am new to perl and i have a question about perl thread. I am trying to create a new thread to check if the running function is timed out, and my way of doing it is as below. Logic is 1.create a new thread 2.run the main function and see if it is timed out, if ture, kill it Sample code: $exit_tread = false; # a flag to make sure timeout thread will run my $thr_timeout = threads->new( \&timeout ); execute main function here; $exit_thread = true # set the flag to true to force thread ends $thr_timeout->join(); #wait for the timeout thread ends Code of timeout function sub timeout { $timeout = false; my $start_time = time(); while (!$exit_thread) { sleep(1); last if (main function is executed); if (time() - $start_time >= configured time ) { logmsg "process is killed as request timed out"; _kill_remote_process(); $timeout = true; last; } } } now the code is running as i expected, but i am just not very clear if the code $exit_thread = true works because there is a "last" at the end of while loop. Can anybody give me a answer? Thanks

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  • Building simple jQuery plugin, need assistance

    - by kirisu_kun
    Hi there, I'm building my first ever jQuery plugin (it's just a simple experiment). Here's what I have so far: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ auchieFader: function(options) { var defaults = { mask: '', topImg : '', } var options = $.extend(defaults, options); return this.each(function() { var o = options; var obj = $(this); var masker = $(o.mask, obj); masker.hover(function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "0" }, "slow"); }, function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "1" }, "slow"); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I'm then calling the plugin using: $('.fader').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); If I then add another request say: $('.fader2').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); Then no matter what instance of my 2 faders I hover both of them will trigger. I know this is because my mask mask and topImg options have the same class - but how can I modify the plugin to allow for these items to have the same class? I know it's probably something really simple, but I'm still finding my way with jQuery and Javascript in general. Any other tips on improving my code would also be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Chris

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  • Javascript Graph Layout Engine

    - by GJK
    I'm looking for a Javascript library/engine that can do graph layouts. (And when I say layouts, I mean logically position vertices nicely.) The graphs I'm working with are all m-ary trees. M is usually no more than 5 or 6, but it can be greater in some cases. I do have something that I use now, Graphviz's node program, and it works perfectly. The problem is, when running a web app, I have to send a request to the server every time I want a layout. Preferably, I would like something written in Javascript that can be quickly run on the client side. All it needs to do is provide layout information (relative positioning and whatnot). I don't need it to draw to a canvas or use SVG or anything, all I'm interested in is the layout. Library use like jQuery or RaphaelJS is fine by me. I'll work with it. I'm just looking for something to speed things along a little. Also, I'd consider writing my own if I could find a nice description of an algorithm to do the layouts. But I really don't want to spend too much time. I have something that works now, so getting it on the client side is just a bonus, not a necessity.

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  • How do I want untill is finished in C#?

    - by Grienders
    Let's say, I want to send a request to a server and get a result from it: private static string Send(int id) { Task<HttpResponseMessage> responseTask = client.GetAsync("aaaaa"); string result = string.Empty; responseTask.ContinueWith(x => result = Print(x)); responseTask.Wait(); // it doesn't wait for complemeting of response task return result; } private static string Print(Task<HttpResponseMessage> httpTask) { Task<string> task = httpTask.Result.Content.ReadAsStringAsync(); string result = string.Empty; task.ContinueWith(t => { Console.WriteLine("Result: " + t.Result); result = t.Result; }); task.Wait(); // it does wait return result; } Am I using task correct? I don't think so because Send() method return string.Empty all the time, while Print returns the correct value. What am I doing wrong? How do I get a result from a server?

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  • selenium and firefox timeout behavior

    - by Md. Reazul Karim
    I am facing this strange timeout behavior. I tried to load some page using: WebDriver drv = new FirefoxDriver(); drv.manage().timeouts().implicitlyWait(10, TimeUnit.SECONDS); drv.get(url); String email = ""; try { WebElement aElem = Util.safeFindElementByXpath(drv, "//p[1]/a[1]"); if (aElem != null) { email = aElem.getAttribute("href"); } } catch (Exception e) { } drv.quit(); return email; The safeFindElementByXpath is: static WebElement safeFindElementByXpath(WebDriver driver, String xpath) { try { return driver.findElement(By.xpath(xpath)); } catch (NoSuchElementException e) { return null; } } Now I set the firefox network.http.connection-timeout and network.http.connection-retry-timeout both to 10. Now if I restart the firefox I can see the new values. But if I try to run the above code - the firefox window opens and it waits for a particular website for a long time. Hence I open another tab in the same firefox window and check the values of timeout and find them to be 90 and 250. If I change the values on that same window, the selenium code immediately finishes requesting for the page (ie it goes after the exception block). So the thing is that the same code will work on many sites and I don't know beforehand which site is invalid/down and I was thinking of putting this code in a separate thread and kill the thread after some time from the calling thread. But that is not possible I guess because the child thread has no way to poll anything as it is stuck at page request and can't go to the polling code afterwards. Now the thing is that I want any kind of hack/workaround to accomplish this: try getting the emails for good sites and if there are bad sites just give up after a certain period (press the panic button sorta thing). Thanks

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  • Why won't Internet Explorer (or Chrome) display my 'Loading...' gif but Firefox will?

    - by codeLes
    I have a page that fires several xmlHttp requests (synchronous, plain-vanilla javascript, I'd love to be using jquery thanks for mentioning that). I'm hiding/showing a div with a loading image based on starting/stopping the related javascript functions (at times I have a series of 3 xmlhttp request spawning functions nested). div = document.getElementById("loadingdiv"); if(div) { if(stillLoading) { div.style.visibility='visible'; div.style.display=''; } else { div.style.visibility='hidden'; div.style.display='none'; } } In Firefox this seems to work fine. The div displays and shows the gif for the required processing. In IE/Chrome however I get no such feedback. I am only able to prove that the div/image will even display by putting alert() methods in place with I call the above code, this stops the process and seems to give the browsers in question the window they need to render the dom change. I want IE/Chrome to work like it works in Firefox. What gives?

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  • Page_Load or Page_Init

    - by balexandre
    Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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  • jquery .on() toggle div

    - by lollo
    i'm developing a blog with dynamic content loaded via ajax request and i'm trying to hide/show the "post comment" form, of the article, with a button : <div id="post"> ... <ol id="update" class="timeline"> <!-- comments here --> </ol> <button class="mybutton Bhome">Commenta</button><!-- hide/show button --> <div class="mycomment"><!-- div to hide/show --> <form action="#" method="post"> Nome: <input type="text" size="12" id="name" /><br /> Email: <input type="text" size="12" id="email" /><br /> <textarea rows="10" cols="50" class="mytext" id="commentArea"></textarea><br /> <input type="submit" class="Bhome" value=" Post " /> </form> </div><!-- mycomment --> </div><!-- post --> This jquery code works well but has effect on All the posts... $("div").on("click", ".mybutton", function(e){ $(".mycomment").slideToggle("slow"); e.stopPropagation(); }); I want that only the clicked hide/show button has effect on the related article but f i have more than one article on my page the button with .mybutton class hides or shows all the comment form of all the articles.

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  • Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

    - by Sukotto
    I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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  • C# SQL Data Adapter Fill on existing typed Dataset

    - by René
    I have an option to choose between local based data storing (xml file) or SQL Server based. I already created a long time ago a typed dataset for my application to save data local in the xml file. Now, I have a bool that changes between Server based version and local version. If true my application get the data from the SQL Server. I'm not sure but It seems that Sql Adapter's Fill Method can't fill the Data in my existing schema SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("Select * FROM dbo.Categories WHERE CatUserId = 1", _connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; _sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); _sqlAdapter.TableMappings.Add("Categories", "dbo.Categories"); _sqlAdapter.Fill(Program.Dataset); This should fill my data from dbo.Categories to Categories (in my local, typed dataset). but it doesn't. It creates a new table with the name "Table". It looks like it can't handle the existing schema. I can't figure it out. Where is the problem? btw. of course the database request I do isn't very useful that way. It's just a simplified version for testing...

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  • log activity. intrusion detection. user event notification ( interraction ). messaging

    - by Julian Davchev
    Have three questions that I somehow find related so I put them in same place. Currently building relatively large LAMP system - making use of messaging(activeMQ) , memcache and other goodies. I wonder if there are best practices or nice tips and tricks on howto implement those. System is user aware - meaning all actions done can be bind to particular logged user. 1. How to log all actions/activities of users? So that stats/graphics might be extracted later for analysing. At best that will include all url calls, post data etc etc. Meaning tons of inserts. I am thinking sending messages to activeMQ and later cron dumping in DB and cron analysing might be good idea here. Since using Zend Framework I guess I may use some request plugin so I don't have to make the log() call all over the code. 2.How to log stuff so may be used for intrusion detection? I know most things might be done on http level using apache mods for example but there are also specific cases like (5 failed login attempts in a row (leads to captcha) etc etc..) This also would include tons of inserts. Here I guess direct usage of memcache might be best approach as data don't seem vital to be permanantly persisted. Not sure if cannot use data from point 1. 3.System will notify users of some events. Like need approval , something broke..whatever.Some events will need feedback(action) from user, others are just informational. Wonder if there is common solutions for needs like this. Example: Based on occuring event(s) user will be notifed (user inbox for example) what happend. There will be link or something to lead him to details of thingy that happend and take action accordingly. Those seem trivial at first look but problem I see if coding it directly is becoming really fast hard to maintain.

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  • Sending a password securely using gwt and app engine?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I set up session handling on a google app project. This is supposed to allow my users to login and maintain state across pages. I just dumped it into the default greeting service to try it out: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public void sessionTest(String username) { HttpSession session = getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false); session.setAttribute("username", username); } } then attempting to pull it out in my landing project.jsp page: <% String username = null; HttpSession mysession = request.getSession(false); if (mysession.getAttribute("username") != null) { username = (String)mysession.getAttribute("username"); } else { username = "(not logged in yet)"; } <p>You are: <%= username %> </p> %> It works, but I don't know how to send the data in sessionTest() securely. If I were sending the user's password in there too, it would be in the clear. This would be ok (I think) if I was using https, but google app engine does not allow you to use https under custom domains (like www.mysite.com), they have to be under the (mysite.appspot.com) domain. I'm kind of stuck here - how do we send passwords securely? If I was using php, I think I could use digest authentication (I'm not too experienced here) - can we do something like that with gwt + gae? Thanks

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  • Same Origin issue with web service call

    - by Wjdavis5
    My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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  • integrating jquery with AJAX using MVC for ddl/html.dropdownlist

    - by needhelp
    the situation: a user on the page in question selects a category from a dropdown which then dynamically populates all the users of that category in a second dropdown beside it. all the data is being retrieved using LinqtoSQL and i was wondering if this can be done a) using html.dropdownlist in a strongly typed view? b) using jquery to trigger the ajax request on selected index change instead of a 'populate' button trigger? sorry i dont have code as what i was trying really wasnt working at all. I am having trouble with how to do it conceptually and programatically! will appreciate any links to examples etc greatly! thanks in advance! EDIT: this is kind of what i was trying to achieve.. first the ViewPage: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready function TypeSearch() { $.getJSON("/Home/Type", null, function(data) { //dont know what to do here }); } </script> <p> <label for="userType">userType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("userType") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("userType", "*") %> <input type="submit" runat="server" onclick="TypeSearch()" /> <label for="accountNumber">accountNumber:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("accountNumber") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("accountNumber", "*") %> </p> Then home controller action: public ActionResult Type() { string accountType = dropdownvalue; List<Account> accounts = userRep.GetAccountsByType(accountType).ToList(); return Json(accounts); }

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  • Receiving AJAX HTTP Response Code as 0

    - by shyam
    I have a pretty simple AJAX and PHP code. While calling the PHP through the AJAX it receives the response code as 0. The PHP code is successfully run, but I can't get the response. What does this status '0' denote and how can I solve this? function confirmUser(id) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); regid = id; if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url="confirm.php"; url=url+"?id="+id; url=url+"&a=confirm"; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { $("#txtHint" + regid).text("Awaiting confirmation"); } else { alert (xmlhttp.status); //this shows '0' } }; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } Well, this is the javascript I used. Pardon me if I should've added anything more than this. Also tell me what I missed. I appreciate your help

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • Writing to a file in a servlet

    - by ankur verma
    I am working in a servlet and has this code : public void doPost(blah blah){ response.setContentType("text/html"); String datasent = request.getParameter("dataSent"); System.out.println(datasent); try{ FileWriter writer = new FileWriter("C:/xyz.txt"); writer.write("hello"); System.out.println("I wrote"); }catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } response.getWriter().write("I am from server"); } But everytime it is throwing an error saying Access Denied.. Even when there is no lock on that file and there is no file whose name is C:/xyz.txt what should I do? ;( java.io.FileNotFoundException: C:\xyz.txt (Access is denied) at java.io.FileOutputStream.open(Native Method) at java.io.FileOutputStream.<init>(FileOutputStream.java:212) at java.io.FileOutputStream.<init>(FileOutputStream.java:104) at java.io.FileWriter.<init>(FileWriter.java:63) at test.TestServlet.doPost(TestServlet.java:49) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:641) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:722) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:306) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:210) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:240) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:161) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:164) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:108) at org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java:558) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:118) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:379) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:243) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:259) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:237) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$SocketProcessor.run(JIoEndpoint.java:281) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722)

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  • Add Source file link to the default ASP.NET Server Error page?

    - by Max Schilling
    Has anyone ever thought to attempt to modify the default ASP.NET Server error page to provide a link BACK to the error source in Visual Studio? Consider the following standard error page in ASP.NET: Server Error in '/myproject' Application. Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Source Error: Line 4323: cmd.CommandText = "usp_DoSomething"; Line 4324: Line 4325: using (var dr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) Line 4326: { Line 4327: if (dr != null) Source File: c:\development\myproject\myproject.components\providers\sql\sqldataprovider.cs Line: 4325 When an error like this is generated, the HTML has the source back to the file the error occurs in and the line number. Has anyone ever written or thought of writing some mechanism to turn the text into a link back to the error in Visual Studio? I've never seen anything that does it, but it just seems like it would be a helluva nice feature and I think about it in the back of my mind every time an error occurs when I have to manually go find it in the source. It would just be nice to be able to click a link to take me straight there. Anyone written any, or know of any solutions for this. I use Chrome or Firefox as my browsers of choice, but I'd even consider using IE again if someone found a plugin that did this. Thanks, Max

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  • POST method getting converted to GET in IE-9

    - by Sri127
    I have this line of code in my JSP. (I'm using struts 1.3) <html:form action="screening/mine.do" method="post"> . . . </html:form When the action corresponding to mine.do is invoked (using struts-config.xml), the page is getting submitted as GET instead of POST. All the request parameters including the required ones are getting lost due to this. This issue occcurs only in IE-9. The response remains as POST when I use other versions of IE or any other browsers. How do I make the response to remain as POST in IE-9 ? EDIT : I observed one more issue in this. Whenever the page is rendered in a new window, this issue occurs. Other places, the POST works fine in IE-9. Also, this issue occurs in Win7/IE-8, but works absolutely fine in XP/IE-8. Is there something to do with the OS as well??? Any solutions would be useful. Thanks!!

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  • Time out when creating a site collection

    - by Daeko
    I am trying to create a site collection programmatically. It has worked for about 6 months, but after the servers have been updated (various patches) it doesn’t work anymore (we have 3 servers: 1 development, 1 test, 1 production). It is still working in my development environment which hasn’t been updated, but not on the two others. I don’t receive any error messages, it just hangs at the code that is supposed to add the site collection (see code below). I am using Windows Server 2003 R2 and Sharepoint 2007 (version 12.0.0.6421 ). It doesn’t give me any errors, it just hangs until Internet Explorer comes with a “request timed out” response. If I try and debug the code, the code just stops there and nothing happens. No error messages or anything. public static string CreateSPAccountSite(string siteName) { string url = ""; SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; using (SPSite siteCollectionOuter = new SPSite(web.Site.ID)) { SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication; SPSiteCollection siteCollection = webApp.Sites; SPSite site = siteCollection.Add("sites/" + siteName, siteName, "Auto generated Site collection.", 1033, "STS#0", siteCollectionOuter.Owner.LoginName, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Name, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Email); //Hangs here site.PortalName = "Portal"; site.PortalUrl = mainUrl; // https://www.ourdomain.net url = site.Url; } }); return url; //Should be "https://www.outdomain.net/sites/siteName" }

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  • forcing a download using PHP / jQuery

    - by Dirty-flow
    I know there are already many questions about forcing a download with PHP, but I can't find what I'm doing wrong and what should I do. I'm having an list with filenames, and I want to download one of them by clicking a button. My jQuery: $(".MappeDownload").on("click",function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); fileId=$(this).val() $.post("ajax/DownloadFile.php",{ id : fileId}) }) and on the server side I have a table with the file names and the file path. $sql = "SELECT vUploadPfad, vUploadOriginname FROM tabUpload WHERE zUploadId='$_POST[id]'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(""); $file = mysql_fetch_array($result); $localfile = $file["vUploadPfad"]; $name=$file["vUploadOriginname"]; $fp = fopen($localfile, 'rb'); header("Cache-Control: "); header("Pragma: "); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Length: " . filesize($localfile)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='".$name."';"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); fpassthru($fp); exit; The AJAX request is successful, I'm getting the right header(filesize, filename etc...) but the download are not starting.

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  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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