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  • WCF wsHttpBinding "There was no channel that could accept the message with action"

    - by Steffen Schindler
    I have a webservice in IIS. I'm trying to call a function but i get an errormessage like: There was no channel that could accept the message with action 'http://Datenlotsen.Cyquest/ICyquestService/ValidateSelfAssessment' I'm hosting it in an IIS in the standard website. There I created a virtual directory named "CyQuestwebservice". For the client side config i'm using Soap UI. That Tool generates the client config from the wsdl. my webconfig looks like this, can you help me?: <system.serviceModel> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="wsdlExtensions" type="WCFExtras.Wsdl.WsdlExtensionsConfig, WCFExtras, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="CyquestWebService.Service1Behavior" name="CyquestWebService.CyquestService"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="EndPointBehavior" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingNamespace="http://Datenlotsen.Cyquest" contract="CyquestWebService.ICyquestService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" bindingNamespace="http://Datenlotsen.Cyquest" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="EndPointBehavior" > <wsdlExtensions location="http://wssdev04.datenlotsen.intern/Cyquestwebservice/CyquestService.svc" singleFile="True"/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="CyquestWebService.Service1Behavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.ServiceModel" switchValue="Information, ActivityTracing" propagateActivity="true"> <listeners> <add name="traceListener" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData= "c:\log\Traces.svclog" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> </system.diagnostics> </configuration>

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  • How to fix basicHttpBinding in WCF when using multiple proxy clients?

    - by Hemant
    [Question seems a little long but please have patience. It has sample source to explain the problem.] Consider following code which is essentially a WCF host: [ServiceContract (Namespace = "http://www.mightycalc.com")] interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2); } [ServiceBehavior (InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)] class Calculator: ICalculator { public int Add (int aNum1, int aNum2) { Thread.Sleep (2000); //Simulate a lengthy operation return aNum1 + aNum2; } } class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { try { using (var serviceHost = new ServiceHost (typeof (Calculator))) { var httpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding (BasicHttpSecurityMode.None); serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint (typeof (ICalculator), httpBinding, "http://172.16.9.191:2221/calc"); serviceHost.Open (); Console.WriteLine ("Service is running. ENJOY!!!"); Console.WriteLine ("Type 'stop' and hit enter to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine (); if (serviceHost.State == CommunicationState.Opened) serviceHost.Close (); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine (e); Console.ReadLine (); } } } Also the WCF client program is: class Program { static int COUNT = 0; static Timer timer = null; static void Main (string[] args) { var threads = new Thread[10]; for (int i = 0; i < threads.Length; i++) { threads[i] = new Thread (Calculate); threads[i].Start (null); } timer = new Timer (o => Console.WriteLine ("Count: {0}", COUNT), null, 1000, 1000); Console.ReadLine (); timer.Dispose (); } static void Calculate (object state) { var c = new CalculatorClient ("BasicHttpBinding_ICalculator"); c.Open (); while (true) { try { var sum = c.Add (2, 3); Interlocked.Increment (ref COUNT); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine ("Error on thread {0}: {1}", Thread.CurrentThread.Name, ex.GetType ()); break; } } c.Close (); } } Basically, I am creating 10 proxy clients and then repeatedly calling Add service method on separate threads. Now if I run both applications and observe opened TCP connections using netstat, I find that: If both client and server are running on same machine, number of tcp connections are equal to number of proxy objects. It means all requests are being served in parallel. Which is good. If I run server on a separate machine, I observed that maximum 2 TCP connections are opened regardless of the number of proxy objects I create. Only 2 requests run in parallel. It hurts the processing speed badly. If I switch to net.tcp binding, everything works fine (a separate TCP connection for each proxy object even if they are running on different machines). I am very confused and unable to make the basicHttpBinding use more TCP connections. I know it is a long question, but please help!

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  • Small performance test on a web service

    - by vtortola
    Hi, I'm trying to develop a small application that test how many requests per second can my service support but I think I'm doing something wrong. The service is in an early development stage, but I'd like to have this test handy in order to check in time to time I'm not doing something that decrease the performance. The problem is that I cannot get the web server or the database server go to the 100% of CPU. I'm using three different computers, in one is the web server (WinSrv Standard 2008 x64 IIS7), in other the database (Win 2K - SQL Server 2005) and the last is my computer (Win7 x64 ultimate), where I'll run the test. The computers are connected through a 100 ethernet switch. The request POST is 9 bytes and the response will be 842 bytes. The test launches several threads, and each thread has a "while" loop, in each loop it creates a WebRequest object, performs a call, increment a common counter and waits between 1 and 5 millisencods, then it do it again: static Int32 counter = 0; static void Main(string[] args) { ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit = 250; Console.WriteLine("Ready. Press any key..."); Console.ReadKey(); Console.WriteLine("Running..."); String localhost = "localhost"; String linuxmono = "192.168.1.74"; String server= "192.168.1.5:8080"; DateTime start = DateTime.Now; Random r = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); for (int i = 0; i < 50; i++) { new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(Test)).Start(server); Thread.Sleep(r.Next(1, 3)); } Thread.Sleep(2000); while (true) { Console.WriteLine("Request per second :" + counter/DateTime.Now.Subtract(start).TotalSeconds ); Thread.Sleep(3000); } } public static void Test(Object ip) { Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); Random r = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { String test = "<lalala/>"; WebRequest req = WebRequest.Create("http://" + (String)ip + "/WebApp/"+guid.ToString()+"/Data/Tables=whatever"); req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/xml"; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("aaa", "aaa","domain"); Byte[] array = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(test); req.ContentLength = array.Length; using (Stream reqStream = req.GetRequestStream()) { reqStream.Write(array, 0, array.Length); reqStream.Close(); } using (Stream responseStream = req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()) { String response = new StreamReader(responseStream).ReadToEnd(); if (response.Length != 842) Console.Write(" EEEE "); } Interlocked.Increment(ref counter); Thread.Sleep(r.Next(1,5)); } } If I run the test neither of the computers do an excesive CPU usage. Let's say I get a X requests per second, if I run the console application two times at the same moment, I get X/2 request per second in each one... but still the web server is on 30% of CPU, the database server on 25%... I've tried to remove the thread.sleep in the loop, but it doesn't make a big difference. I'd like to put the machines to the maximun, to check how may requests per second they can provide. I guessed that I could do it in this way... but apparently I'm missing something here... What is the problem? Kind regards.

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  • ASP Classic Session Variable Not Always Getting Set

    - by Mike at KBS
    I have a classic ASP site I'm maintaining and recently we wanted to do special rendering actions if the visitor was coming from one specific set of websites. So in the page where those visitors have to come through to get to our site, I put a simple line setting a session variable: <!-- #include virtual="/clsdbAccess.cs"--> <% set db = new dbAccess %> <html> <head> ... <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> ... </script> </head> <body> <% Session("CAME_FROM_NEWSPAPER") = "your local newspaper" ... %> ... html stuff ... </body> </html> Then, in all the following pages, whenever I need to put up nav links, menus, etc., that we don't want to show to those visitors, I test for if that session variable is "" or not, then render accordingly. My problem is that it seems to work great for me in development, then I get it out into Production and it works great sometimes, and other times it doesn't work at all. Sometimes the session variable gets set, sometimes it doesn't. Everything else works great. But our client is seeing inconsistent results on pages rendered to their visitors and this is a problem. I've tried logging on from different PC's and I confirm that I get different, and unpredictable, results. The problem is I can't reproduce it at will, and I can't troubleshoot/trace Production. For now I've solved this by just creating duplicate pages with the special rendering, and making sure those visitors go there. But this is a hack and will eventually be difficult to maintain. Is there something special or inconsistent about session variables in Classic ASP? Is there a better way to approach the problem? TIA.

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  • How to assess a job offer with stock options? [closed]

    - by seas
    Cannot help expressing my curiosity about this issue. First of all, Russia, a country, I live in, as far as I understand, is a virgin land on this matter. Motivation is purely developed here and options are not existed at all. So, I am absolutely not aware about this. I roughly understand the mechanism of options. And, as far as I understand, the major white spot in the whole that story, how much will a singe share cost. How much will I get from all those N x 1000 options? I see two ways one can get money from the business: 1. Business goes IPO !!! 2. Business is sold as a whole to another owner. Next way is rather questionable about getting money: 3. Business goes without IPO "forever" (a generation would rather die before it IPO). I am also interested some explanations about situation ?3. Situation ?1 is clear - market decides everything, you either wait for stock price you satisfied or sell everything now. But topic is rather about ?2 - business is sold to another business. I am considering the following model: I am well payed specialist with company X. Somebody, with a company Y makes me an offer. Y is a startup. They cannot offer me much money and cannot overbid my salary, but they grow fast and hope to be bought soon. Instead of money, they offer me N x 1000 options. My problem is "how to assess this offer against my current, stable and well-payed job"? Are there any average cost of virtual share during selling one company to another? Are there any average stock price companies prefer to go to IPO? Are there any barriers against spreading the value of sock before selling the company or IPO (hiring too much people with options package too fast will decrease each package value, I mean)? Are there any good articles with explanations? Is all that somehow written in the law?

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  • Some help needed with setting up the PERFECT workflow for web development with 2-3 guys using subver

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys! I run a small web development company along side with my brother and friend. After doing extensive research I have decided on using subversion for version control. Here is how I currently plan on running typical development. Keep in mind there are 3 of us each in a separate location. I set up an account with springloops (springloops.com) subversion hosting. Each time I work on a new project, I create a repository for it. So lets say in this case I am working on site1. I want to have 3 versions of the site on the internet: Web Development - This is the server me and the other developers publish to. (site1.dev.bythepixel.com) Client Preview - This is the server that we update every few days with a good revision for the client to see. (site1.bythepixel.com) Live Site - The site I publish to when going live (site1.com) Each web development machine (at each location) will have a local copy of xamp running virtual host to allow multiple websites to be worked on. The root of the local copy is set up to be the same as the local copy of the subversion repository. This is set up so we can make small tweaks and preview them immediately. When some work has been done, a commit is made to the repository for the site. I will have the dev site automatically be pushed (its an option in springloops). Then, whenever I feel ready to push to the client site I will do so. Now, I have a few concerns with those work flow: I am using codeigniter currently, and in the config file I generally set the root of the site. Ex. http://www.site1.com. So, it looks like each time I publish to one of the internet servers, I will have to modify the config file? Is there any way to make it so certain files are set for each server? So when I hit publish to client preview it just uploads the config file for the client preview server. I don't want the live site , the client preview site and the dev site to share the same mysql server for a variety of reasons. So does this once again mean that I have to adjust the db server info each time I push to a different site? Does this workflow make sense? If you have any suggestion please let me know. I plan for this to be the work flow I use for the next few year. I just need to put a system in place that allows for future expansion! Thanks a bunch!!

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  • Mac 10.6 Universal Binary scipy: cephes/specfun "_aswfa_" symbol not found

    - by Markus
    Hi folks, I can't get scipy to function in 32 bit mode when compiled as a i386/x86_64 universal binary, and executed on my 64 bit 10.6.2 MacPro1,1. My python setup With the help of this answer, I built a 32/64 bit intel universal binary of python 2.6.4 with the intention of using the arch command to select between the architectures. (I managed to make some universal binaries of a few libraries I wanted using lipo.) That all works. I then installed scipy according to the instructions on hyperjeff's article, only with more up-to-date numpy (1.4.0) and skipping the bit about moving numpy aside briefly during the installation of scipy. Now, everything except scipy seems to be working as far as I can tell, and I can indeed select between 32 and 64 bit mode using arch -i386 python and arch -x86_64 python. The error Scipy complains in 32 bit mode: $ arch -x86_64 python -c "import scipy.interpolate; print 'success'" success $ arch -i386 python -c "import scipy.interpolate; print 'success'" Traceback (most recent call last): File "<string>", line 1, in <module> File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/interpolate/__init__.py", line 7, in <module> from interpolate import * File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/interpolate/interpolate.py", line 13, in <module> import scipy.special as spec File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/__init__.py", line 8, in <module> from basic import * File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/basic.py", line 8, in <module> from _cephes import * ImportError: dlopen(/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/_cephes.so, 2): Symbol not found: _aswfa_ Referenced from: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/_cephes.so Expected in: flat namespace in /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/_cephes.so Attempt at tracking down the problem It looks like scipy.interpolate imports something called _cephes, which looks for a symbol called _aswfa_ but can't find it in 32 bit mode. Browsing through scipy's source, I find an ASWFA subroutine in specfun.f. The only scipy product file with a similar name is specfun.so, but both that and _cephes.so appear to be universal binaries: $ cd /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/ $ file _cephes.so specfun.so _cephes.so: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures _cephes.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 _cephes.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64 specfun.so: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures specfun.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 specfun.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64 Ho hum. I'm stuck. Things I may try but haven't figured out how yet include compiling specfun.so myself manually, somehow. I would imagine that scipy isn't broken for all 32 bit machines, so I guess something is wrong with the way I've installed it, but I can't figure out what. I don't really expect a full answer given my fairly unique (?) setup, but if anyone has any clues that might point me in the right direction, they'd be greatly appreciated. (edit) More details to address questions: I'm using gfortran (GNU Fortran from GCC 4.2.1 Apple Inc. build 5646). Python 2.6.4 was installed more-or-less like so: cd /tmp curl -O http://www.python.org/ftp/python/2.6.4/Python-2.6.4.tar.bz2 tar xf Python-2.6.4.tar.bz2 cd Python-2.6.4 # Now replace buggy pythonw.c file with one that supports the "arch" command: curl http://bugs.python.org/file14949/pythonw.c | sed s/2.7/2.6/ > Mac/Tools/pythonw.c ./configure --enable-framework=/Library/Frameworks --enable-universalsdk=/ --with-universal-archs=intel make -j4 sudo make frameworkinstall Scipy 0.7.1 was installed pretty much as described as here, but it boils down to a simple sudo python setup.py install. It would indeed appear that the symbol is undefined in the i386 architecture if you look at the _cephes library with nm, as suggested by David Cournapeau: $ nm -arch x86_64 /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/_cephes.so | grep _aswfa_ 00000000000d4950 T _aswfa_ 000000000011e4b0 d _oblate_aswfa_data 000000000011e510 d _oblate_aswfa_nocv_data (snip) $ nm -arch i386 /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/scipy/special/_cephes.so | grep _aswfa_ U _aswfa_ 0002e96c d _oblate_aswfa_data 0002e99c d _oblate_aswfa_nocv_data (snip) however, I can't yet explain its absence.

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  • Yesterday's broken codebase hunt me back

    - by sandun dhammika
    I need a fun oky. I just love this openmoko hardware and hacking into it. Please could somebody help me to compile qemu.I 'm so sad and I want to compile qemu and it required the GCC3.x and then I downloaded gcc 3.2 but when I configure it and build it, it gives a very sad error message. G_FOR_TARGET=" "SHELL=/bin/sh" "EXPECT=expect" "RUNTEST=runtest" "RUNTESTFLAGS=" "exec_prefix=/gcc-3.2" "infodir=/gcc-3.2/info" "libdir=/gcc-3.2/lib" "prefix=/gcc-3.2" "tooldir=/gcc-3.2/i686-pc-linux-gnu" "AR=ar" "AS=as" "CC=gcc" "CXX=c++" "LD=ld" "LIBCFLAGS=-g -O2" "NM=nm" "PICFLAG=" "RANLIB=ranlib" "DESTDIR=" DO=all multi-do make[1]: Leaving directory `/gcc-3.2/gcc-3.2/zlib' make[1]: Entering directory `/gcc-3.2/gcc-3.2/fastjar' make[1]: Leaving directory `/gcc-3.2/gcc-3.2/fastjar' make[1]: Entering directory `/gcc-3.2/gcc-3.2/gcc' gcc -c -DIN_GCC -g -O2 -W -Wall -Wwrite-strings -Wstrict-prototypes -Wmissing-prototypes -Wtraditional -pedantic -Wno-long-long -DHAVE_CONFIG_H -DGENERATOR_FILE -I. -I. -I. -I./. -I./config -I./../include ./read-rtl.c -o read-rtl.o In file included from ./read-rtl.c:24:0: ./rtl.h:125:3: warning: type of bit-field ‘code’ is a GCC extension ./rtl.h:128:3: warning: type of bit-field ‘mode’ is a GCC extension ./read-rtl.c: In function ‘fatal_with_file_and_line’: ./read-rtl.c:61:1: warning: traditional C rejects ISO C style function definitions ./read-rtl.c: In function ‘read_rtx’: ./read-rtl.c:662:8: error: lvalue required as increment operand make[1]: *** [read-rtl.o] Error 1 make[1]: Leaving directory `/gcc-3.2/gcc-3.2/gcc' make: *** [all-gcc] Error 2 This is so sad and this is sooo bad. I have searched patches and workaround all over the Internet to this,but I couldn't find any alternative for this. I'm out of my patience now. I want that virtual machine ready and I want to make a debug host cos I don't have some money to buy original neo 1937 hardware. The patch that I have found comes with a nasty error too. I'm so sick of it.Any idea how could I fix this problem and make this work? Please please I'm begging you somebody help me please. Thanks all.

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  • Need help diagnosing network performance issues

    - by tokes
    I am currently working in a developing country as a system analyst for a government department. My area of expertise is software projects, but I've come across a few issues with the network setup in my office. (Unfortunately, being a developing country, there's not a lot of professional help available for this sort of thing.) Most recently, I am trying to diagnose a problem with slowness on the network. Our office is connected to the internet via an ADSL wireless modem/router (called Router). The modem is connected via ethernet to a switch (called Switch). The modem also acts as a wireless access point (called Wireless1), though because it is in a room at the end of the floor, it's range is limited. There are ethernet ports installed around the office. The cables of these all lead back to the same switch. In closer vicinity to the bulk of the client computers, there is another wireless router that acts as an access point for those clients (called Wireless2). That router is connected via ethernet to a wall port, and therefore to Switch. There is also a Windows server which acts as a DNS server (called DNSBox) which is located in the same room and is connected directly to Switch. ---Internet----------| Router/Wireless1 192.168.10.1 ---------------| |----|=========| DNSBox | |-------------------- 192.168.10.4 --------------------| Switch |---Other clients---- | |-------------------- |----|=========| Wireless2 ------------------| 192.168.10.198 One final thing to mention about the network setup. All clients are configured with manual IP addresses. Their router/gateway is set to the IP address of Router, and their DNS server is set to the IP address of DNSBox (with a secondary IP set to an external IP - that of our ISP's DNS server). Here are the symptoms we are experiencing: Clients connected to Wireless2 AP experience slow and unstable connections to the internet. (Slow here is defined as speeds of ~1KB/s, though ping response times seem to be as normal.) Clients connected via ethernet to Switch also experience the same slowness. Clients connected to Wireless1 AP (i.e. connecting via wireless directly to the ADSL modem) experience normal connections to the internet. Clients connected via ethernet to Router (i.e. connecting via ethernet directly to the ADSL modem) also experience normal connections to the internet. I also tried to gauge the connection performance between two machines on the network via ethernet: A file transfer between two clients who were both directly connected to Switch was the fastest; A file transfer between one client directly connected to Switch, and one client directly connected to Router (which is directly connected to Switch) performed much slower; A file transfer between two clients directly connected to Router also performed slowly. Things I have attempted to diagnose the problem: Restarted Switch -- no change. We tried unplugging ethernet jacks from Switch 4 at a time and testing the internet connection. The thought here was that perhaps a client on the network has contracted a virus, and is possibly spamming the network with traffic? (Not very technical, I know.) Unfortunately we couldn't get any significant increases in performance using this method. There were a couple of times when it seemed to be better, but then the connection speed quickly dropped back to slow/dead pace. I didn't want to unplug all jacks from Switch because I was concerned that users might be affected or that I would re-plug in the jacks incorrectly (should I even be worried about that? a port is a port on a switch, right?) I tried swapping the ethernet cable used to connect Router to Switch -- no change in performance. I tried swapping the port used on Switch for Router -- no change in performance. Anyone got any ideas on what this could be? Should I be mentioning specific brand names/models of the hardware used? Virii outbreaks are common in this country/office -- what could I be doing to figure out if a virus is at fault? If it is a virus, it doesn't seem to be generating a lot of traffic to/from the internet, because a) I can still get a good speed if I am directly connected to Router / Wireless1 and b) our ISP data usage has not risen suspiciously. Thanks for your help! Update #1 Here are the specs of some of the hardware: Switch is an Edimax ES3132RL 32-Port 10/100 Rackmount Switch Router is a D-Link DSL-G604T Update #2 I just tried unplugging everything except a laptop and Router from Switch. Speeds are still slow. I guess that means that Router / Switch are not being flooded? It seems more and more likely that the cause is something to do with the interaction between Router and Switch. However, I still can't find any useful resources on setting the LAN speed for either (and I'm not well-versed in these advanced networking configurations).

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  • how do I access XHR responseBody from Javascript?

    - by Cheeso
    I've got a web page that uses XMLHttpRequest to download a binary resource. Because it's binary I'm trying to use xhr.responseBody to access the bytes. I've seen a few posts suggesting that it's impossible to access the bytes directly from Javascript. This sounds crazy to me. Weirdly, xhr.responseBody is accessible from VBScript, so the suggestion is that I must define a method in VBScript in the webpage, and then call that method from Javascript. See jsdap for one example. var IE_HACK = (/msie/i.test(navigator.userAgent) && !/opera/i.test(navigator.userAgent)); if (IE_HACK) document.write('<script type="text/vbscript">\n\ Function BinaryToArray(Binary)\n\ Dim i\n\ ReDim byteArray(LenB(Binary))\n\ For i = 1 To LenB(Binary)\n\ byteArray(i-1) = AscB(MidB(Binary, i, 1))\n\ Next\n\ BinaryToArray = byteArray\n\ End Function\n\ </script>'); var xml = (window.XMLHttpRequest) ? new XMLHttpRequest() // Mozilla/Safari/IE7+ : (window.ActiveXObject) ? new ActiveXObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") // IE6 : null; // Commodore 64? xml.open("GET", url, true); if (xml.overrideMimeType) { xml.overrideMimeType('text/plain; charset=x-user-defined'); } else { xml.setRequestHeader('Accept-Charset', 'x-user-defined'); } xml.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xml.readyState == 4) { if (!binary) { callback(xml.responseText); } else if (IE_HACK) { // call a VBScript method to copy every single byte callback(BinaryToArray(xml.responseBody).toArray()); } else { callback(getBuffer(xml.responseText)); } } }; xml.send(''); Is this really true? The best way? copying every byte? For a large binary stream that's not gonna be very efficient. There is also a possible technique using ADODB.Stream, which is a COM equivalent of a MemoryStream. See here for an example. It does not require VBScript but does require a separate COM object. if (typeof (ActiveXObject) != "undefined" && typeof (httpRequest.responseBody) != "undefined") { // Convert httpRequest.responseBody byte stream to shift_jis encoded string var stream = new ActiveXObject("ADODB.Stream"); stream.Type = 1; // adTypeBinary stream.Open (); stream.Write (httpRequest.responseBody); stream.Position = 0; stream.Type = 1; // adTypeBinary; stream.Read.... /// ???? what here } I don't think that's gonna work - ADODB.Stream is disabled on most machines these days. In The IE8 developer tools - the IE equivalent of Firebug - I can see the responseBody is an array of bytes and I can even see the bytes themselves. The data is right there. I don't understand why I can't get to it. Is it possible for me to read it with responseText? hints? (other than defining a VBScript method)

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  • How to configure a WCF service to only accept a single client identified by a x509 certificate

    - by Johan Levin
    I have a WCF client/service app that relies on secure communication between two machines and I want to use use x509 certificates installed in the certificate store to identify the server and client to each other. I do this by configuring the binding as <security authenticationMode="MutualCertificate"/>. There is only client machine. The server has a certificate issued to server.mydomain.com installed in the Local Computer/Personal store and the client has a certificate issued to client.mydomain.com installed in the same place. In addition to this the server has the client's public certificate in Local Computer/Trusted People and the client has the server's public certificate in Local Computer/Trusted People. Finally the client has been configured to check the server's certificate. I did this using the system.servicemodel/behaviors/endpointBehaviors/clientCredentials/serviceCertificate/defaultCertificate element in the config file. So far so good, this all works. My problem is that I want to specify in the server's config file that only clients that identify themselves with the client.mydomain.com certificate from the Trusted People certificate store are allowed to connect. The correct information is available on the server using the ServiceSecurityContext, but I am looking for a way to specify in app.config that WCF should do this check instead of my having to check the security context from code. Is that possible? Any hints would be appreciated. By the way, my server's config file looks like this so far: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="MyServer.Server" behaviorConfiguration="CertificateBehavior"> <endpoint contract="Contracts.IMyService" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureConfig"> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost/SecureWcf"/> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="CertificateBehavior"> <serviceCredentials> <serviceCertificate storeLocation="LocalMachine" x509FindType="FindBySubjectName" findValue="server.mydomain.com"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="SecureConfig"> <security authenticationMode="MutualCertificate"/> <httpTransport/> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • Windows 7 Machine Makes Router Drop -All- Wireless Connections

    - by Hammer Bro.
    Some background: My home network consists of my Desktop, a two-month old Windows 7 (x64) machine which is online most frequently (N-spec), as well as three other Windows XP laptops (all G) that only connect every now and then (one for work, one for Netflix, and the other for infrequent regular laptop uses). I used to have a Belkin F5D8236-4 wireless router, and everything worked great. A week ago, however, I found out that the Belkin absolutely in no way would establish a VPN connection, something that has become important for work. So I bought a Netgear WNR3500v2/U/L. The wireless was acting a little sketchy at first for just the Windows 7 machine, but I thought it had something to do with 802.11N and I was in a hurry so I just fished up an ethernet cable and disabled the computer's wireless. It has now become apparent, though, that whenever the Windows 7 machine is connected to the router, all wireless connections become unstable. I was using my work laptop for a solid six hours today with no trouble, having multiple SSH connections open over VPN and streaming internet radio in the background. Then, within two minutes of turning on this Windows 7 box, I had lost all connectivity over the wireless. And I was two feet away from the router. The same sort of thing happens on all of the other laptops -- Netflix can be playing stuff all weekend, but if I come up here and do things on this (W7) computer, the streaming will be dead within ten minutes. So here are my basic observations: If the Windows 7 machine is off, then all connections will have a Signal Strength of Very Good or Excellent and a Speed of 48-54 Mbps for an indefinite amount of time. Shortly after the Windows 7 machine is turned on, all wireless connections will experience a consistent decline in Speed down to 1.0 Mbps, eventually losing their connection entirely. These machines will continue to maintain 70% signal strength, as observed by themselves and router. Once dropped, a wireless connection will have difficulty reconnecting. And, if a connection manages to become established, it will quickly drop off again. The Windows 7 machine itself will continue to function just fine if it's using a wired connection, although it will experience these same issues over the wireless. All of the drivers and firmwares are up to date, and this happened both with the stock Netgear firmware as well as the (current) DD-WRT. What I've tried: Making sure each computer is being assigned a distinct IP. (They are.) Disabling UPnP and Stateful Packet Inspection on the router. Disabling Network Sharing, SSDP Discovery, TCP/IP NetBios Helper and Computer Browser services on the Windows 7 machine. Disabling QoS Packet Scheduler, IPv6, and Link Layer Topology Discovery options on my ethernet controller (leaving only Client for Microsoft Networks, File and Printer Sharing, and IPv4 enabled). What I think: It seems awfully similar to the problems discussed in detail at http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/wsk/thread/1064e397-9d9b-4ae2-bc8e-c8798e591915 (which was both the most relevant and concrete information I could dig up on the internet). I still think that something the Windows 7 IP stack (or just Operating System itself) is doing is giving the router fits. However, I could be wrong, because I have two key differences. One is that most instances of this problem are reported as the entire router dying or restarting, and mine still works just fine over the wired connection. The other is that it's a new router, tested with both the factory firmware and the (I assume) well-maintained DD-WRT project. Even if Windows 7 is still secretly sending IPv6 packets or the TCP Window Scaling implementation that I hear Vista caused some trouble with (even though I've tried my best to disable anything fancy), this router should support those functions. I don't want to get a new or a replacement router unless someone can convince me that this is a defective unit. But the problem seems too specific and predictable by my instincts to be a hardware hiccup. And I don't want to deal with the inevitable problems that always seem to take half a day to resolve when getting a new router, since I'm frantically working (including tomorrow) to complete a project by next week's deadline. Plus, I think in the worst case scenario, I could keep this router connected directly to the modem, disable its wireless entirely, and connect the old Belkin to it directly. That should allow me to still use VPN (although I'll have to plug my work laptop directly into that router), and then maintain wireless connections for all of the other computers. But that feels so wrong to me. Anyone have any ideas what the cause and possible solution could be? Clarifications: The Windows 7 machine is directly connected via an ethernet cable to the router for everything above. But while it is online, all other computers' wireless connections become unusable. It is not an issue of signal strength or interference -- no other devices within scanning range are using Channel 1, and the problem will affect computers that are literally feet away from the router with 95% signal strength.

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  • Hooking DirectX EndScene from an injected DLL

    - by Etan
    I want to detour EndScene from an arbitrary DirectX 9 application to create a small overlay. As an example, you could take the frame counter overlay of FRAPS, which is shown in games when activated. I know the following methods to do this: Creating a new d3d9.dll, which is then copied to the games path. Since the current folder is searched first, before going to system32 etc., my modified DLL gets loaded, executing my additional code. Downside: You have to put it there before you start the game. Same as the first method, but replacing the DLL in system32 directly. Downside: You cannot add game specific code. You cannot exclude applications where you don't want your DLL to be loaded. Getting the EndScene offset directly from the DLL using tools like IDA Pro 4.9 Free. Since the DLL gets loaded as is, you can just add this offset to the DLL starting address, when it is mapped to the game, to get the actual offset, and then hook it. Downside: The offset is not the same on every system. Hooking Direct3DCreate9 to get the D3D9, then hooking D3D9-CreateDevice to get the device pointer, and then hooking Device-EndScene through the virtual table. Downside: The DLL cannot be injected, when the process is already running. You have to start the process with the CREATE_SUSPENDED flag to hook the initial Direct3DCreate9. Creating a new Device in a new window, as soon as the DLL gets injected. Then, getting the EndScene offset from this device and hooking it, resulting in a hook for the device which is used by the game. Downside: as of some information I have read, creating a second device may interfere with the existing device, and it may bug with windowed vs. fullscreen mode etc. Same as the third method. However, you'll do a pattern scan to get EndScene. Downside: doesn't look that reliable. How can I hook EndScene from an injected DLL, which may be loaded when the game is already running, without having to deal with different d3d9.dll's on other systems, and with a method which is reliable? How does FRAPS for example perform it's DirectX hooks? The DLL should not apply to all games, just to specific processes where I inject it via CreateRemoteThread.

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  • Vs2010 MvcBuildViews Not firing

    - by Maslow
    This project in Vs2008 targeting .net 3.5 used to compile views. Vs2010 Targeting .net 4.0 the following view code is not picked up as an error, and I have not found anyway to listen to the mvcBuildview trace/debug output: <%{ %> A completely unmatched code block declaration is not being picked up, neither was a partial view inheriting from a non existent namespace/class. <PropertyGroup Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'DebugWithBuildViews|AnyCPU' "> <!--<BaseIntermediateOutputPath>bin/intermediate</BaseIntermediateOutputPath>--> <!--<MvcBuildViews Condition=" '$(Configuration)' == 'DebugWithBuildViews' ">true</MvcBuildViews>--> <EnableUpdateable>false</EnableUpdateable> <MvcBuildViews>true</MvcBuildViews> <DebugSymbols>true</DebugSymbols> <OutputPath>bin</OutputPath> <DefineConstants>DEBUG;TRACE</DefineConstants> <DebugType>full</DebugType> <PlatformTarget>AnyCPU</PlatformTarget> <CodeAnalysisUseTypeNameInSuppression>true</CodeAnalysisUseTypeNameInSuppression> <CodeAnalysisModuleSuppressionsFile>GlobalSuppressions.cs</CodeAnalysisModuleSuppressionsFile> <ErrorReport>prompt</ErrorReport> <CodeAnalysisRuleSet>AllRules.ruleset</CodeAnalysisRuleSet> <RunCodeAnalysis>true</RunCodeAnalysis> </PropertyGroup> My BeforeBuild: <Target Name="BeforeBuild"> <WriteLinesToFile File="$(OutputPath)\env.config" Lines="$(Configuration)" Overwrite="true"> </WriteLinesToFile> My AfterBuild: <Target Name="AfterBuild" Condition="'$(MvcBuildViews)'=='true'"> <!--<BaseIntermediateOutputPath>[SomeKnownLocationIHaveAccessTo]</BaseIntermediateOutputPath>--> <Message Importance="high" Text="Precompiling views" /> <!--<AspNetCompiler VirtualPath="temp" PhysicalPath="$(ProjectDir)..\$(ProjectName)" />--> <!--<AspNetCompiler VirtualPath="temp" />--> <!--PhysicalPath="$(ProjectDir)\..\$(ProjectName)"--> I know the MvcBuildViews property is true because the Precompiling views message comes through. The compile is a success but it does not catch the view compilation errors. I have Vs2010 ultimate, vs 2008 developer+database edition on this machine. So either it compiles ignoring the errors with some combinations of the fixes I've tried, or it errors with Error 410 It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. web.config 100 The commented out sections are things I have tried Previously I have tried the fixes from these posts: Compile Views in Asp.net Mvc AllowDefinitionMachinetoApplicationError MvcBuildviews Issue Turning on MVC Build Views in 2010 TFS Johnny Coder

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  • ASP.NET Web Service Throws 401 (unauthorized) Error

    - by user268611
    Hi Experts, I have this .NET application to be run in an intranet environment. It is configured so that it requires Windows Authentication before you can access the website (Anonymous access is disabled). This website calls a web service (enable anonymous access) and the web service calls the DB. We do have a token-based authentication between the web application and the web service to secure the communication between them. The issue I'm facing is that when I deploy this to production, I'm having an intermittent issue whereby the communication between the web application and the web service failed. The 401 issue was thrown. This is actually working fine in our QA environment. Is this an issue with Active Directory? Or could it be an isssue with FQDN as mentioned here: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;en-us;896861? The weirdest thing is that this is happening intermittently when tested in both on the server itself and a remote workstation in my client's environment. But, this is working perfectly in my environment. OS: Windows Server SP1 IIS 6 .NET 3.5 Framework Any idea about the 401 (Unauthorized) issue?? Thx for the help... This is from the log... Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 4/5/2010 10:44:57 AM Event time (UTC): 4/5/2010 2:44:57 AM Event ID: 6c8ea2607b8d4e29a7f0b1c392b1cb21 Event sequence: 155112 Event occurrence: 2 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: xxx Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: xxx Application Path: xxx Machine name: xxx Process information: Process ID: 4424 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: WebException Exception message: The request failed with HTTP status 401: Unauthorized. Request information: Request URL: http://[ip]/[app_path] Request path: xxx User host address: [ip] User: xxx Is authenticated: True Authentication Type: Negotiate Thread account name: xxx Thread information: Thread ID: 6 Thread account name: xxx Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at wsVulnerabilityAdvisory.Service.test() at test.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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  • How to override PHP configuration when running in CGI mode

    - by Fitrah M
    There are some tutorials out there telling me how to override PHP configuration when it is running in CGI mode. But I'm still confused because lots of them assume that the server is running on Linux. While I need to do that also in Windows. My hosting is indeed using Linux but my local development computer is using Windows XP with Xampp 1.7.3. So I need to do that in my local computer first, then I want to change the configuration on hosting server. The PHP in my hosting server is already run as CGI while in my local computer still run as Apache module. At this point, the processes that I understand are: Change PHP to work in CGI mode. I did this by commenting these two line in "httpd-xampp.conf": # LoadFile "C:/xampp/php/php5ts.dll" # LoadModule php5_module modules/php5apache2_2.dll Create "cgi-bin" directory in DocumentRoot. My DocumentRoot is in "D:\www\" (I'm using apache with virtual host). So it is now "D:\www\cgi-bin". Change the default "cgi-bin" directory settings from "C:/xampp/cgi-bin/" to "D:\www\cgi-bin": ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "D:/www/cgi-bin/" <Directory "D:\www\cgi-bin"> Options MultiViews Indexes SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Includes ExecCGI AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> At this point, my PHP is now running as CGI. I checked this with phpinfo(). It tells me that Server API is now CGI/FastCGI. Now I want to override php configuration. I copied 'php.ini' file to "D:\www\cgi-bin" and modify upload_max_filesize setting from 128M to 10M. Create 'php.cgi' file in "D:\www\cgi-bin" and put these code inside the file: #!/bin/sh /usr/local/cpanel/cgi-sys/php5 -c /home/user/public_html/cgi-bin/ That's it. I'm stuck at this point. All of tutorials tell me to create 'php.cgi' file and put shell code inside the file. How to do the 6th step on Windows? I know the next step is to create handler in .htaccess file to load that 'php.cgi'. And also, because I will also need to change PHP configuration on my hosting server (Linux), is the 6th step above right? Some tutorial tells to insert these line instead of above: #!/bin/sh export PHPRC=/site/ini/1 exec /cgi-bin/php5.cgi I'm sorry if my question is not clear. I'm a new member and this is my first question in this site. Thank you.

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  • People Picker can't find Forms Authentication Users in WSS 3.0

    - by beyti
    I used a lot of tutorials to turn my windows authenticated default wss web app to use Forms Authentication. What I've done since; 1. created a web app. and a site in wss 3.0. Made its anonymous access enabled for all site content. This wss app is in the "wss3" server. 2. created a membership db with regsql.exe in .net framework folder.Created it with its default settings, like aspnetdb named database.This db is in the "sqlserver" server. 3. gave db.owner permission to the web app. admin of wss to the aspnetdb database. The user is registered under the same domain as the sql and the wss machines. 4. configured site's web.config file with following changes/adds: ..added the connectionString: <connectionStrings> <clear /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="server=sqlserver;database=aspnetdb; Integrated Security=SSPI" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> ..added the membershipProvider: <membership> <providers> <add name="AspNetSqlMembershipProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" applicationName="/" requiresUniqueEmail="false" passwordFormat="Hashed" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="7" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="1" passwordAttemptWindow="10" passwordStrengthRegularExpression="" /> </providers> </membership> ..also checked the peoplepicker settings: <PeoplePickerWildcards> <clear /> <add key="AspNetSqlMembershipProvider" value="%" /> </PeoplePickerWildcards> 5. After all, I changed the application provider of the site I created to use forms. Gave it the provider name of "AspNetSqlMembershipProvider". 6. I've created some users for Forms Authentication via ASP.net Configuration page by visual studio. 7. Checked the users in the db aspnetdb. They are there. 8. Tried to login to wss with one of them. Successfully logged in. With no privilages ofcourse. 9. Tried to give permission via Web Application Policy to that user which logged in. 10. People Picker couldn't find it at all. Any of the forms users couldn't be found. But it clearly tells that AD connection is also changed that none of the AD users couldn't be found either. It seems I'm missing something to configure about people picker. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Beytan

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  • Ivy resolve not working with dynamic artifact

    - by richever
    I've been using Ivy a bit but I seem to still have a lot to learn. I have two projects. One is a web app and the other is a library upon which the web app depends. The set up is that the library project is compiled to a jar file and published using Ivy to a directory within the project. In the web app build file, I have an ant target that calls the Ivy resolve ant task. What I'd like to do is have the web app using the dynamic resolve mode during development (on developer's local machines) and default resolve mode for test and production builds. Previously I was appending a time stamp to the library archive file so that Ivy would notice changes in file when the web app tried to resolve its dependency on it. Within Eclipse this is cumbersome because, in the web app, the project had to be refreshed and the build path tweaked every time a new library jar was published. Publishing a similarly named jar file every time would, I figure, only require developers to refresh the project. The problem is that the web app is unable to retrieve the dynamic jar file. The output I get looks something like this: resolve: [ivy:configure] :: Ivy 2.1.0 - 20090925235825 :: http://ant.apache.org/ivy/ :: [ivy:configure] :: loading settings :: file = /Users/richard/workspace/webapp/web/WEB-INF/config/ivy/ivysettings.xml [ivy:resolve] :: resolving dependencies :: com.webapp#webapp;[email protected] [ivy:resolve] confs: [default] [ivy:resolve] found com.webapp#library;latest.integration in local [ivy:resolve] :: resolution report :: resolve 142ms :: artifacts dl 0ms --------------------------------------------------------------------- | | modules || artifacts | | conf | number| search|dwnlded|evicted|| number|dwnlded| --------------------------------------------------------------------- | default | 1 | 0 | 0 | 0 || 0 | 0 | --------------------------------------------------------------------- [ivy:resolve] [ivy:resolve] :: problems summary :: [ivy:resolve] :::: WARNINGS [ivy:resolve] :::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::: [ivy:resolve] :: UNRESOLVED DEPENDENCIES :: [ivy:resolve] :::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::: [ivy:resolve] :: com.webapp#library;latest.integration: impossible to resolve dynamic revision [ivy:resolve] :::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::: [ivy:resolve] :::: ERRORS [ivy:resolve] impossible to resolve dynamic revision for com.webapp#library;latest.integration: check your configuration and make sure revision is part of your pattern [ivy:resolve] [ivy:resolve] :: USE VERBOSE OR DEBUG MESSAGE LEVEL FOR MORE DETAILS BUILD FAILED /Users/richard/workspace/webapp/build.xml:71: impossible to resolve dependencies: resolve failed - see output for details The web app resolve target looks like this: <target name="resolve" depends="load-ivy"> <ivy:configure file="${ivy.dir}/ivysettings.xml" /> <ivy:resolve file="${ivy.dir}/ivy.xml" resolveMode="${ivy.resolve.mode}"/> <ivy:retrieve pattern="${lib.dir}/[artifact]-[revision].[ext]" type="jar" sync="true" /> </target> In this case, ivy.resolve.mode has a value of 'dynamic' (without quotes). The web app's Ivy file is simple. It looks like this: <ivy-module version="2.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="http://ant.apache.org/ivy/schemas/ivy.xsd"> <info organisation="com.webapp" module="webapp"/> <dependencies> <dependency name="library" rev="${ivy.revision.default}" revConstraint="${ivy.revision.dynamic}" /> </dependencies> </ivy-module> During development, ivy.revision.dynamic has a value of 'latest.integration'. While, during production or test, 'ivy.revision.default' has a value of '1.0'. Any ideas? Please let me know if there's any more information I need to supply. Thanks!

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  • problem with template inheritance

    - by amiad
    I'm trying to understand whay i get an error on this code: (the error is under g++ unix compiler. VS is compiling OK) template<class T> class A { public: T t; public: A(const T& t1) : t(t1) {} virtual void Print() const { cout<<*this<<endl;} friend ostream& operator<<(ostream& out, const A<T>& a) { out<<"I'm "<<typeid(a).name()<<endl; out<<"I hold "<<typeid(a.t).name()<<endl; out<<"The inner value is: "<<a.t<<endl; return out; } }; template<class T> class B : public A<T> { public: B(const T& t1) : A<T>(t1) {} const T& get() const { return t; } }; int main() { A<int> a(9); a.Print(); B<A<int> > b(a); b.Print(); (b.get()).Print(); return 0; } This code is giving the following error: main.cpp: In member function 'const T& B::get() const': main.cpp:23: error: 't' was not declared in this scope It did compiled when i changed the code of B to this: template<class T> class B : public A<T> { public: B(const T& t1) : A<T>(t1) {} const T& get() const { return A<T>::t; } }; I just cant understand what is the problem with the first code... It doesn't make sense that i really need to write "A::" every time...

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  • C++ How to deep copy a struct with unknown datatype?

    - by Ewald Peters
    hi, i have a "data provider" which stores its output in a struct of a certain type, for instance struct DATA_TYPE1{ std::string data_string; }; then this struct has to be casted into a general datatype, i thought about void * or char *, because the "intermediate" object that copies and stores it in its binary tree should be able to store many different types of such struct data. struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ void * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; this void * is then later taken by another object that casts the void * back into the (struct DATA_TYPE1 *) to get the original data. so the sender and the receiver know about the datatype DATA_TYPE1 but not the copying object inbetween. but how can the intermidiate object deep copy the contents of the different structs, when it doesn't know the datatype, only void * and it has no method to copy the real contents; dynamic_cast doesn't work for void *; the "intermediate" object should do something like: void store_data(void * CASTED_DATA_STRUCT){ void * DATA_COPY = create_a_deepcopy_of(CASTED_DATA_STRUCT); push_into_bintree(DATA_COPY); } a simple solution would be that the sending object doesn't delete the sent data struct, til the receiving object got it, but the sending objects are dynamically created and deleted, before the receiver got the data from the intermediate object, for asynchronous communication, therefore i want to copy it. instead of converting it to void * i also tried converting to a superclass pointer of which the intermediate copying object knows about, and which is inherited by all the different datatypes of the structs: struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT{ public: DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} DATA_BASE_OBJECT(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * old_ptr){ std::cout << "this should be automatically overridden!" << std::endl; } virtual ~DATA_BASE_OBJECT(){} }; struct DATA_TYPE1 : public DATA_BASE_OBJECT { public: string str; DATA_TYPE1(){} ~DATA_TYPE1(){} DATA_TYPE1(DATA_TYPE1 * old_ptr){ str = old_ptr->str; } }; and the corresponding binary tree entry would then be: struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY{ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * DATA; struct BINARY_TREE_ENTRY * next; }; and to then copy the unknown datatype, i tried in the class that just gets the unknown datatype as a struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * (before it was the void *): void * copy_data(DATA_BASE_OBJECT * data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct){ struct DATA_BASE_OBJECT * copy_sub = new DATA_BASE_OBJECT(data_that_i_get_in_the_sub_struct); push_into_bintree(copy_sub); } i then added a copy constructor to the DATA_BASE_OBJECT, but if the struct DATA_TYPE1 is first casted to a DATA_BASE_OBJECT and then copied, the included sub object DATA_TYPE1 is not also copied. i then thought what about finding out the size of the actual object to copy and then just memcopy it, but the bytes are not stored in one row and how do i find out the real size in memory of the struct DATA_TYPE1 which holds a std::string? Which other c++ methods are available to deepcopy an unknown datatype (and to maybe get the datatype information somehow else during runtime) thanks Ewald

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  • Modern Java alternatives

    - by Ralph
    I'm not sure if stackoverflow is the best forum for this discussion. I have been a Java developer for 14 years and have written an enterprise-level (~500,000 line) Swing application that uses most of the standard library APIs. Recently, I have become disappointed with the progress that the language has made to "modernize" itself, and am looking for an alternative for ongoing development. I have considered moving to the .NET platform, but I have issues with using something the only runs well in Windows (I know about Mono, but that is still far behind Microsoft). I also plan on buying a new Macbook Pro as soon as Apple releases their new rumored Arrandale-based machines and want to develop in an environment that will feel "at home" in Unix/Linux. I have considered using Python or Ruby, but the standard Java library is arguably the largest of any modern language. In JVM-based languages, I looked at Groovy, but am disappointed with its performance. Rumor has it that with the soon-to-be released JDK7, with its InvokeDynamic instruction, this will improve, but I don't know how much. Groovy is also not truly a functional language, although it provides closures and some of the "functional" features on collections. It does not embrace immutability. I have narrowed my search down to two JVM-based alternatives: Scala and Clojure. Each has its strengths and weaknesses. I am looking for the stackoverflow readerships' opinions. I am not an expert at either of these languages; I have read 2 1/2 books on Scala and am currently reading Stu Halloway's book on Clojure. Scala is strongly statically typed. I know the dynamic language folks claim that static typing is a crutch for not doing unit testing, but it does provide a mechanism for compile-time location of a whole class of errors. Scala is more concise than Java, but not as much as Clojure. Scala's inter-operation with Java seems to be better than Clojure's, in that most Java operations are easier to do in Scala than in Clojure. For example, I can find no way in Clojure to create a non-static initialization block in a class derived from a Java superclass. For example, I like the Apache commons CLI library for command line argument parsing. In Java and Scala, I can create a new Options object and add Option items to it in an initialization block as follows (Java code): final Options options = new Options() { { addOption(new Option("?", "help", false, "Show this usage information"); // other options } }; I can't figure out how to the same thing in Clojure (except by using (doit...)), although that may reflect my lack of knowledge of the language. Clojure's collections are optimized for immutability. They rarely require copy-on-write semantics. I don't know if Scala's immutable collections are implemented using similar algorithms, but Rich Hickey (Clojure's inventor) goes out of his way to explain how that language's data structures are efficient. Clojure was designed from the beginning for concurrency (as was Scala) and with modern multi-core processors, concurrency takes on more importance, but I occasionally need to write simple non-concurrent utilities, and Scala code probably runs a little faster for these applications since it discourages, but does not prohibit, "simple" mutability. One could argue that one-off utilities do not have to be super-fast, but sometimes they do tasks that take hours or days to complete. I know that there is no right answer to this "question", but I thought I would open it up for discussion. If anyone has a suggestion for another JVM-based language that can be used for enterprise level development, please list it. Also, it is not my intent to start a flame war. Thanks, Ralph

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • Preloading Winforms using a Stack and Hidden Form

    - by msarchet
    I am currently working on a project where we have a couple very control heavy user controls that are being used inside a MDI Controller. This is a Line of Business app and it is very data driven. The problem that we were facing was the aforementioned controls would load very very slowly, we dipped our toes into the waters of multi-threading for the control loading but that was not a solution for a plethora of reasons. Our solution to increasing the performance of the controls ended up being to 'pre-load' the forms onto a hidden window, create a stack of the existing forms, and pop off of the stack as the user requested a form. Now the current issue that I'm seeing that will arise as we push this 'fix' out to our testers, and the ultimately our users is this: Currently the 'hidden' window that contains the preloaded forms is visible in task manager, and can be shut down thus causing all of the controls to be lost. Then you have to create them on the fly losing the performance increase. Secondly, when the user uses up the stack we lose the performance increase (current solution to this is discussed below). For the first problem, is there a way to hide this window from task manager, perhaps by creating a parent form that encapsulates both the main form for the program and the hidden form? Our current solution to the second problem is to have an inactivity timer that when it fires checks the stacks for the forms, and loads a new form onto the stack if it isn't full. However this still has the potential of causing a hang in the UI while it creates the forms. A possible solutions for this would be to put 'used' forms back onto the stack, but I feel like there may be a better way. EDIT: For control design clarification From the comments I have realized there is a lack of clarity on what exactly the control is doing. Here is a detailed explanation of one of the controls. I have defined for this control loading time as the time it takes from when a user performs an action that would open a control, until the time a control is accessible to be edited. The control is for entering Prescriptions for a patient in the system, it has about 5 tabbed groups with a total of about 180 controls. The user selects to open a new Prescription control from inside the main program, this control is loaded into the MDI Child area of the Main Form (which is a DevExpress Ribbon Control). From the time the user clicks New (or loads an existing record) until the control is visible. The list of actions that happens in the program is this: The stack is checked for the existence of a control. If the control exists it is popped off of the stack. The control is rendered on screen. This is what takes 2 seconds The control then is populated with a blank object, or with existing data. The control is ready to use. The average percentage of loading time, across about 10 different machines, with different hardware the control rendering takes about 85 - 95 percent of the control loading time. Without using the stack the control takes about 2 seconds to load, with the stack it takes about .8 seconds, this second time is acceptable. I have looked at Henry's link and I had previously already implemented the applicable suggestions. Again I re-iterate my question as What is the best method to move controls to and from the stack with as little UI interruption as possible?

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  • Delphi native Web Service applications not working. IIS 7 seems to be stripping the pathinfo

    - by Cary Jensen
    I've run into an interesting problem that I never encountered with XP or IIS 6. Basically, I can't get a native Delphi (WebBroker) Web service server to work with a native Web service client in Windows 7 64-bit. Here's the most basic breakdown. If I create a new Web service application in Delphi 2010 (or any version, back to Delphi 7), and access it using IE 8, I can see the HTML that the WSDLHTMLPublish component creates, but I can never get to the SOAP. In the same way, the WSDL Importer cannot get to the SOAP either. (I have IIS 7 configured to use a 32-bit application pool, and I have created a working Script Map to the Handler Mappings. In short, the 32-bit ISAPI Web service is running). For example, I have a simple Web service server named TestService (created using the default sample interface generated when you create a new Web service server). I installed it in a virtual directory named scripts. If I enter http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll/wsdl, IIS 7 displays the page http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll. If I put my mouse over the WSDL link for the ITestService, I see http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll/wsdl/ITestService in the status bar. However, when I click this link, the address bar shows http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll/wsdl/ITestService, but I see only the HTML from http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll. There seems no way to get to the SOAP definition. IIS 7 seems to be ignoring everything after the script name (it is ignoring the pathinfo). Additional evidence that IIS7 is stripping off the pathinfo is that if I pause my mouse over the ITestService link, the statusbar shows http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll?intf=ITestService. Clicking that link takes me to another HTML page, the one associated with http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll?intf=ITestService. However, any link that includes a pathinfo following the script name, takes me simply to http://localhost/scripts/TestService.dll. I have tested this in Delphi 7, Delphi 2010, and Delphi XE, with the same results. I am guessing that IIS7 is stripping off the pathinfo, since even the WSDL Importer cannot get to the SOAP definition. Tried creating a new Web service using the CGI option, and got the same result. Have any idea what is going on? Added: Bob Swart reports he has had no problems under Windows 7 32-bit. Downloading the 32-bit OS and will try that (in a new VM).

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  • Add objects to association in OnPreInsert, OnPreUpdate

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I have an event listener (for Audit Logs) which needs to append audit log entries to the association of the object: public Company : IAuditable { // Other stuff removed for bravety IAuditLog IAuditable.CreateEntry() { var entry = new CompanyAudit(); this.auditLogs.Add(entry); return entry; } public virtual IEnumerable<CompanyAudit> AuditLogs { get { return this.auditLogs } } } The AuditLogs collection is mapped with cascading: public class CompanyMap : ClassMap<Company> { public CompanyMap() { // Id and others removed fro bravety HasMany(x => x.AuditLogs).AsSet() .LazyLoad() .Access.ReadOnlyPropertyThroughCamelCaseField() .Cascade.All(); } } And the listener just asks the auditable object to create log entries so it can update them: internal class AuditEventListener : IPreInsertEventListener, IPreUpdateEventListener { public bool OnPreUpdate(PreUpdateEvent ev) { var audit = ev.Entity as IAuditable; if (audit == null) return false; Log(audit); return false; } public bool OnPreInsert(PreInsertEvent ev) { var audit = ev.Entity as IAuditable; if (audit == null) return false; Log(audit); return false; } private static void LogProperty(IAuditable auditable) { var entry = auditable.CreateAuditEntry(); entry.CreatedAt = DateTime.Now; entry.Who = GetCurrentUser(); // Might potentially execute a query. // Also other information is set for entry here } } The problem with it though is that it throws TransientObjectException when commiting the transaction: NHibernate.TransientObjectException : object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing. Type: CompanyAudit, Entity: CompanyAudit at NHibernate.Engine.ForeignKeys.GetEntityIdentifierIfNotUnsaved(String entityName, Object entity, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Type.EntityType.GetIdentifier(Object value, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Type.ManyToOneType.NullSafeSet(IDbCommand st, Object value, Int32 index, Boolean[] settable, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Persister.Collection.AbstractCollectionPersister.WriteElement(IDbCommand st, Object elt, Int32 i, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Persister.Collection.AbstractCollectionPersister.PerformInsert(Object ownerId, IPersistentCollection collection, IExpectation expectation, Object entry, Int32 index, Boolean useBatch, Boolean callable, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Persister.Collection.AbstractCollectionPersister.Recreate(IPersistentCollection collection, Object id, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Action.CollectionRecreateAction.Execute() at NHibernate.Engine.ActionQueue.Execute(IExecutable executable) at NHibernate.Engine.ActionQueue.ExecuteActions(IList list) at NHibernate.Engine.ActionQueue.ExecuteActions() at NHibernate.Event.Default.AbstractFlushingEventListener.PerformExecutions(IEventSource session) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultFlushEventListener.OnFlush(FlushEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.Flush() at NHibernate.Transaction.AdoTransaction.Commit() As the cascading is set to All I expected NH to handle this. I also tried to modify the collection using state but pretty much the same happens. So the question is what is the last chance to modify object's associations before it gets saved? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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