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• Using Maven for maintaining product documentation

  - by Waldheinz

  We are using Maven for building a Java server-style application. It consists of several modules (in a single Maven "reactor") which can be plugged together to generate a final product (essentially a .jar) with the features enabled that the customer needs. All the internals are documented using JavaDoc and all, but that's not what you can give to the customer to find out how to get the thing running. Currently we have an OpenOffice document which serves as end-user documentation. I'd like to integrate this documentation into the Maven build process where each module's documentation is maintained (hand-edited) together with the Module's sources and the final document can reference the required Module documentation sections, add some friendly foreword and, if possible at all, can reference into the JavaDocs. Ultimately, the document should be output as a PDF. Is there any experience on Maven plugins can help with this? Is DocBook the right tool? Maybe Latex? Or something completely different? A sound "stick with OpenOffice and some text blocks" could be an answer, too.

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• Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

  - by Ninsuo

  I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

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• Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

  - by Twelve47

  I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

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• jQuery load() problem with html that contain jQuery plugin

  - by Victorgalaxy

  FYI, here is my code: [index.html] <script type="text/javascript" src="js/script.js"></script> [script.js] $(document).ready(function() { $('#buttonEphone').click(function() { $('#apDiv2').load("ePhone.html, #content"); }); }); "ePhone.html" contain some lightbox effect. (making use of code below) [ePhone.html] <script type="text/javascript" src="js/prototype.lite.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/moo.fx.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/litebox-1.0.js"></script> The Litebox plugin also required to add onload="initLightbox()" within the BODY tag of ePhone.html. From the above code, I can load ePhone.html's content(#content div) to my (apDiv2) of my index.html. However, the lightbox effect is no longer work. I've also try loading the whole html instead of only #content: $('#apDiv2').load('ePhone.html'); but it still doesn't work. Please help, thx

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• CoreMidi _MIDINetworkNotificationContactsDidChange symbol not found

  - by Domestic Cat

  I'm getting the following error after a crash in an iPad app that uses CoreMIDI (The * are to blank out the app name): Dyld Error Message: Symbol not found: _MIDINetworkNotificationContactsDidChange Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/8F08B78E-929D-4C5A-9F02-08FD5743C17F/***.app/*** Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/CoreMIDI.framework/CoreMIDI in /var/mobile/Applications/8F08B78E-929D-4C5A-9F02-08FD5743C17F/***.app/*** Dyld Version: 179.4 When the app launches, I listen for MIDI Network Sessions using [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(sessionDidChange:) name:MIDINetworkNotificationSessionDidChange object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(sessionDidChange:) name:MIDINetworkNotificationContactsDidChange object:nil]; Which seems to be what is causing the crash. This is after I call session = [MIDINetworkSession defaultSession]; session.enabled = YES; session.connectionPolicy = MIDINetworkConnectionPolicy_Anyone; MIDIClientCreate(CFSTR("MidiManager"), midiNotifyProc, (void*)self, &midiClientRef); This kind of looks like CoreMIDI library has not been included in the build. Problem is, it IS included in the build as a required framework. (And the deployment target is set to 4.2). I can run the build fine on my iPad and have been testing extensively with other users' iPads also with no problems whatsoever. Also, this is an update to an existing app that has had several updates already with no problems. I just double checked my deployment build and the framework is definitely included, and I just installed that build onto my iPad (with a different provisioning profile from the store) and it works fine also. What could be happening? Could it be that Xcode just did a bad build for the one I sent to Apple, or am I missing something obvious? Could I change the MIDINetworkNotificationSessionDidChange notification symbol to a literal string (@"MIDINetworkNotificationSessionDidChange") to fix things for the mean time? Thanks for any help!

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• To implement a remote desktop sharing solution

  - by Cameigons

  Hi, I'm on planning/modeling phase to develop a remote desktop sharing solution, which must be web browser based. In other words: an user will be able to see and interact with someone's remote desktop using his web-browser. Everything the user who wants to share his desktop will need, besides his browser, is installing an add-in, which he's going to be prompted about when necessary. The add-in is required since (afaik) no browser technology allows desktop control from an app running within the browser alone. The add-in installation process must be as simple and transparent as possible to the user (similar to AdobeConnectNow, in case anyone's acquainted with it). The user can share his desktop with lots of people at the same time, but concede desktop control to only one of them at a time(makes no sense being otherwise). Project requirements: All technology employed must be open-source license compatible Both front ends are going to be in flash (browser) Must work on Linux, Windows XP(and later) and MacOSX. Must work at least with IE7(and later) and Firefox3.0(and later). At the very least, once the sharer's stream hits the server from where it'll be broadcast, hereon it must be broadcasted in flv (so I'm thinking whether to do the encoding at the client's machine (the one sharing the desktop) or send it in some other format to the server and encode it there). Performance and scalability are important: It must be able to handle hundreds of dozens of users(one desktop sharer, the rest viewers) We'll definitely be using red5. My doubts concern mostly implementing the desktop publisher side (add-in and streamer): 1) Are you aware of other projects that I could look into for ideas? (I'm aware of bigbluebutton.org and code.google.com/p/openmeetings) 2) Should I base myself on VNC ? 3) Bearing in mind the need to have it working cross-platform, what language should I go with? (My team is very used with java and I have some knowledge of C/C++, but anything goes really). 4) Any other advices are appreciated.

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• Online job-searching is tedious. Help me automate it.

  - by ehsanul

  Many job sites have broken searches that don't let you narrow down jobs by experience level. Even when they do, it's usually wrong. This requires you to wade through hundreds of postings that you can't apply for before finding a relevant one, quite tedious. Since I'd rather focus on writing cover letters etc., I want to write a program to look through a large number of postings, and save the URLs of just those jobs that don't require years of experience. I don't require help writing the scraper to get the html bodies of possibly relevant job posts. The issue is accurately detecting the level of experience required for the job. This should not be too difficult as job posts are usually very explicit about this ("must have 5 years experience in..."), but there may be some issues with overly simple solutions. In my case, I'm looking for entry-level positions. Often they don't say "entry-level", but inclusion of the words probably means the job should be saved. Next, I can safely exclude a job the says it requires "5 years" of experience in whatever, so a regex like /\d\syears/ seems reasonable to exclude jobs. But then, I realized some jobs say they'll take 0-2 years of experience, matches the exclusion regex but is clearly a job I want to take a look at. Hmmm, I can handle that with another regex. But some say "less than 2 years" or "fewer than 2 years". Can handle that too, but it makes me wonder what other patterns I'm not thinking of, and possibly excluding many jobs. That's what brings me here, to find a better way to do this than regexes, if there is one. I'd like to minimize the false negative rate and save all the jobs that seem like they might not require many years of experience. Does excluding anything that matches /[3-9]\syears|1\d\syears/ seem reasonable? Or is there a better way? Training a bayesian filter maybe?

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• asp.net custom control with form field validation issue

  - by Ibrar Afzal

  Hi, I have created a custom asp .net control some fields have validation controal associated with them. The problem arised when I declare more than one initializtion on a page. When I hit submit on one of the intialized control. Form validation occur on all other control that were declared. Due to this issue I can submit a for. Here is the code `<%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="FinancialAdvisorHelp.ascx.cs" Inherits="FinancialAdvisorHelp" %                                           Invalid Email." Member Name* E-Mail Address* Telephone Number Ask Darryl your question Note: you should receive a response within two (2) business days. *Required information.   `

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• Invoking code both before and after WebControl.Render method

  - by Dirk

  I have a set of custom ASP.NET server controls, most of which derive from CompositeControl. I want to implement a uniform look for "required" fields across all control types by wrapping each control in a specific piece of HTML/CSS markup. For example: <div class="requiredInputContainer"> ...custom control markup... </div> I'd love to abstract this behavior in such a way as to avoid having to do something ugly like this in every custom control, present and future: public class MyServerControl : TextBox, IRequirableField { public IRequirableField.IsRequired {get;set;} protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer){ RequiredFieldHelper.RenderBeginTag(this, writer) //render custom control markup RequiredFieldHelper.RenderEndTag(this, writer) } } public static class RequiredFieldHelper{ public static void RenderBeginTag(IRequirableField field, HtmlTextWriter writer){ //check field.IsRequired, render based on its values } public static void RenderEndTag(IRequirableField field, HtmlTextWriter writer){ //check field.IsRequired , render based on its values } } If I was deriving all of my custom controls from the same base class, I could conceivably use Template Method to enforce the before/after behavior;but I have several base classes and I'd rather not end up with really a convoluted class hierarchy anyway. It feels like I should be able to design something more elegant (i.e. adheres to DRY and OCP) by leveraging the functional aspects of C#, but I'm drawing a blank.

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• Tired of Exploring

  - by Abhi

  Dear All I am tired of my work. I am exploring all day and at the end of the day i feel that i have not gain anything. Its been 1 year & 3 month working in Wince 6.0 r3 but i feel that i have gained nothing. I feel like that i have wasted these month without doing anything. At fast i worked in GUI application in which i was gaining confidence but then i was shifted from that domain to something for which lot of knowledge is required i.e writing or adjusting BSP. Now at present i have shifted to work on silverlight which is again a new domain for me. My day starts from 10am and ends at 7pm @ office by doing nothing. I am tired completely. Can anyone help me what shall i do in this situation? How shall i start to achieve the target? Where should i stick "deadline" or "learning the target first" as deadline is also important? I am completely depressed.

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• Initializing Disqus comments in hidden element causes issue in FF 14.0.1

  - by Bazze

  This issue appears only in Firefox 14.0.1 (well I couldn't reproduce it in any other browser). If you put the code for Disqus comments inside an element that is hidden and wait until everything is fully loaded and then display the element using JavaScript, the comment box nor comments will show up. However if you resize the window, it'll show up immediately. It's working fine in latest version of Google Chrome and Safari though. What's causing this and how to fix it? Sample code to reproduce: <div id="test" style="display:none;"> <div id="disqus_thread"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* * * CONFIGURATION VARIABLES: EDIT BEFORE PASTING INTO YOUR WEBPAGE * * */ var disqus_shortname = 'onlinefunctions'; // required: replace example with your forum shortname /* * * DON'T EDIT BELOW THIS LINE * * */ (function() { var dsq = document.createElement('script'); dsq.type = 'text/javascript'; dsq.async = true; dsq.src = 'http://' + disqus_shortname + '.disqus.com/embed.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(dsq); })(); </script> <noscript>Please enable JavaScript to view the <a href="http://disqus.com/?ref_noscript">comments powered by Disqus.</a></noscript> <a href="http://disqus.com" class="dsq-brlink">comments powered by <span class="logo-disqus">Disqus</span></a> </div> <a href="#" onclick="document.getElementById('test').style.display = 'block'">show</a> I could post a link to a live example but I'm not sure about the policy of posting links here on Stack Overflow.

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• Should a C++ constructor do real work?

  - by Wade Williams

  I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

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• Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

  - by Kevin

  We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

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• Load PEM encoded private RSA key in Crypto++

  - by 01100110

  Often times, user will have PEM encoded RSA private keys. Crypto++ requires that these keys be in DER format to load. I've been asking people to manually convert their PEM files to DER beforehand using openssl like this: openssl pkcs8 -in in_file.pem -out out_file.der -topk8 -nocrypt -outform der That works fine, but some people don't understand how to do that nor do they want to. So I would like to convert PEM files to DER files automatically within the program. Is it as simple as striping the "-----BEGIN CERTIFICATE-----" and "-----END CERTIFICATE-----" from the PEM or is some other transformation required as well? I've been told that between those markers that it's just b64 encoded DER. Here's some code that demonstrates the issue: // load the private key CryptoPP::RSA::PrivateKey PK; CryptoPP::ByteQueue bytes; try { CryptoPP::FileSource File( rsa.c_str(), true, new CryptoPP::Base64Decoder() ); File.TransferTo( bytes ); bytes.MessageEnd(); // This line Causes BERDecodeError when a PEM encoded file is used PK.Load( bytes ); } catch ( CryptoPP::BERDecodeErr ) { // Convert PEM to DER and try to load the key again } I'd like to avoid making system calls to openssl and do the transformation entirely in Crypto++ so that users can provide either format and things "just work". Thanks for any advice.

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• How can I unit test my custom validation attribute

  - by MightyAtom

  I have a custom asp.net mvc class validation attribute. My question is how can I unit test it? It would be one thing to test that the class has the attribute but this would not actually test that the logic inside it. This is what I want to test. [Serializable] [EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute(ErrorMessage = "You must answer yes or no to all questions")] public class Eligability { [BooleanRequiredToBeTrue(ErrorMessage = "You must agree to the statements listed")] public bool StatementAgree { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please choose an option")] public bool? Income { get; set; } .....removed for brevity } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute : ValidationAttribute { // If AnyDebts is true then // StudentDebts must be true or false public override bool IsValid(object value) { Eligability elig = (Eligability)value; bool ok = true; if (elig.AnyDebts == true) { if (elig.StudentDebts == null) { ok = false; } } return ok; } } I have tried to write a test as follows but this does not work: [TestMethod] public void Eligability_model_StudentDebts_is_required_if_AnyDebts_is_true() { // Arrange var eligability = new Eligability(); var controller = new ApplicationController(); // Act controller.ModelState.Clear(); controller.ValidateModel(eligability); var actionResult = controller.Section2(eligability,null,string.Empty); // Assert Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actionResult, typeof(ViewResult)); Assert.AreEqual(string.Empty, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewName); Assert.AreEqual(eligability, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.Model); Assert.IsFalse(((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } The ModelStateDictionary does not contain the key for this custom attribute. It only contains the attributes for the standard validation attributes. Why is this? What is the best way to test these custom attributes? Thanks

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• Easiest way to remove Keys from a 2D Array?

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, I have an Array that looks like this: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key2' => 'b', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) I need a function to get an array containing just a (variable) number of keys, i.e. reduce_array(array('key1', 'key3')); should return: array( 0 => array( 'key1' => 'a', 'key3' => 'c' ), 1 => array( 'key1' => 'c', 'key3' => 'a' ), ... ) What is the easiest way to do this? If possible without any additional helper function like array_filter or array_map as my coworkers already complain about me using too many functions. The source array will always have the given keys so it's not required to check for existance. Bonus points if the values are unique (the keys will always be related to each other, meaning that if key1 has value a then the other key(s) will always have value b). My current solution which works but is quite clumsy (even the name is horrible but can't find a better one): function get_unique_values_from_array_by_keys(array $array, array $keys) { $result = array(); $found = array(); if (count($keys) > 0) { foreach ($array as $item) { if (in_array($item[$keys[0]], $found)) continue; array_push($found, $item[$keys[0]]); $result_item = array(); foreach ($keys as $key) { $result_item[$key] = $item[$key]; } array_push($result, $result_item); } } return $result; } Addition: PHP Version is 5.1.6.

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• How to send data after form has been validated using jQuery?

  - by Keith Donegan

  I have a simple email address sign up form as follows: <form action="" id="newsletterform" method="get"> <input type="text" name="email" class="required email" id="textnewsletter" /> <input type="submit" id="signup" /> </form> Here's what I want to be able to do: Validate the form to look for an empty string or a incorrectly filled out email address one the user clicks submit or hits enter. If one of the above happens (empty string etc), I would like to generate an error to let the user know. Then once the user fills out a correctly formed email address and hits submit (or enter) I want the form to send the email address to wherever I specify in the jQuery code and then generate a little "Thank you for signing up notice", all without reloading the browser. I have looked at too many tutorials and my eyes are pretty much aching at this stage, so please don't point me to any urls (I most likely have been there). If someone could provide a barebone outline of what to do It would be so much appreciated.

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• SQL trigger to delete rows from database

  - by wpearse

  I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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• How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

  - by hornairs

  I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

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• jQuery Suspected Naming Convention Problem

  - by donfigga

  Hi all, I'm having a problem with this jQuery function, the portion of the function that renames the id, class and name of the dropdown only works for the first dropdown, subsequent ones do not work, any ideas? I suspect it may have something to do with naming convention as in cat.parent_id but it is required for asp.net mvc model binding. $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { //problematic portion $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>").attr("value", "-1").text("-please select item-")); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); sel.name = 'cat.parent_id'; sel.id = 'cat.parent_id'; } }); } }); });

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• OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

  - by Konrad Rudolph

  I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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• jQuery Manual Resizable DIV

  - by JC

  Hi, I'm trying to create a resizable div without using jQuery's interface library. var myY = 0; var mouseDown = false; var originalHeight = 0; function resize(e){ if(mouseDown == true){ $("#cooldiv").height(originalHeight+e.pageY-myY); } } $(document).ready(function(){ $().mouseup(function(e){ myY = 0; mouseDown = false; originalHeight = 0; $().unbind("mousemove", resize); }); $("#resizeBar").mousedown(function(e){ myY = e.pageY; originalHeight = $("#cooldiv").height(); mouseDown = true; $().bind("mousemove", resize); }); }); ... <div id="cooldiv" style="width: 500px; height: 300px; background-color: #cccccc; position: relative;"> <div id="resizeBar" style="height: 10px; width: 500px; background-color: #aaaaaa; position: absolute; bottom: 0;"></div> </div> The first resize works fine(i.e. mousedown, mousemove then mouseup), but on subsequent (mousedown+mousemove)s, the browser attempts to drag the whole resizeBar div instead of properly resizing its parent container. On mouseup, the div then starts resizing "cooldiv" on mousemove without any mousedown required, until a further click of the mouse. These problems don't show up in Internet Explorer.

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• form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

  - by dhaval

  I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

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• Inline text box labels with WPF

  - by Douglas

  I'm trying to reproduce the layout of some paper forms in a WPF application. Labels for text boxes are to be "inline" with the content of the text boxes, rather than "outside" like normal Windows forms. So, with an Xxxxxx label: +-----------------------------+ | Xxxxxx: some text written | | in the multiline input. | | | | another paragraph continues | | without indentation. | | | | | +-----------------------------+ The Xxxxxx cannot be editable, if the user selects all the content of the text box, the label must remain unselected, I need to be able to style the text colour/formatting of the label separately, when there is no text in the text box, but it has focus, the caret should flash just after the label, and I need the baselines of the text in the text box and the label to line up. One solution I tried was putting a textblock partially over the input, then using text indent to indent the editable text, though this caused problems with following paragraphs, since they were indented too. I'm not sure how to indent just the first paragraph. It required some fiddling to get the text to line up - a more reliable setup would be ideal. So, any suggestions on how to set this up? Thanks

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• Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

  - by Travis Brooks

  Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

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