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  • How does one properly redefine self while avoiding the "Multiple methods named ..." warning?

    - by Elise van Looij
    In Apple's The Objective-C Programming Language: Defining a Class the section named "Redifining self" recommends that that class methods allocate and return instances use 'self' only to allocate an instance and then refer only to that instance. Thus, I have a number of subclasses, that have class methods along the lines of: + (id)scrollViewWithFrame: (NSRect)rectFrame { id newInstance = [[[self alloc] initWithFrame:rectFrame] autorelease]; [newInstance setHasHorizontalScroller: YES]; [newInstance setHasVerticalScroller: YES]; [newInstance setBorderType: NSNoBorder]; [newInstance setAutoresizingMask: (NSViewWidthSizable | NSViewHeightSizable)]; return newInstance; } The above is, of course, a subclass of NSScrollView. Unfortunately, Xcode 3.x all these NSView subclasses now raise warnings: "Warning: Multiple methods named '-setAutoresizingMask' found". I believe it has something to do with GCC 4.2, the settings of which I have not changed. The warning is correct, of course, since NSView and its various subclasses all implement setAutoresizingMask, but it is also unnecessary. Since they're only warnings, I ignore them but there is a risk that in between the thirty or so unnecessary ones, a really useful warning lurks which I simply don't see. So, what to do? I do want to adhere to good coding practices and I want to build warning-free apps -- how can I do both?

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  • Problem with libcurl cookie engine

    - by Seb Rose
    [Cross-posted from lib-curl mailing list] I have a single threaded app (MSVC C++ 2005) build against a static LIBCURL 7.19.4 A test application connects to an in house server & performs a bespoke authentication process that includes posting a couple of forms, and when this succeeds creates a new resource (POST) and then updates the resource (PUT) using If-Match. I only use a single connection to libcurl (i.e. only one CURL*) The cookie engine is enabled from the start using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "") The cookie cache is cleared at the end of the authentication process using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIELIST, "SESS"). This is required by the authentication process. The next call, which completes a successful authentication, results in a couple of security cookies being returned from the server - they have no expiry date set. The server (and I) expect the security cookies to then be sent with all subsequent requests to the server. The problem is that sometimes they are sent and sometimes they aren't. I'm not a CURL expert, so I'm probably doing something wrong, but I can't figure out what. Running the test app in a loop results shows a random distribution of correct cookie handling. As a workaround I've disabled the cookie engine and am doing basic manual cookie handling. Like this it works as expected, but I'd prefer to use the library if possible. Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks Seb

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  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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  • Database warehoue design: fact tables and dimension tables

    - by morpheous
    I am building a poor man's data warehouse using a RDBMS. I have identified the key 'attributes' to be recorded as: sex (true/false) demographic classification (A, B, C etc) place of birth date of birth weight (recorded daily): The fact that is being recorded My requirements are to be able to run 'OLAP' queries that allow me to: 'slice and dice' 'drill up/down' the data and generally, be able to view the data from different perspectives After reading up on this topic area, the general consensus seems to be that this is best implemented using dimension tables rather than normalized tables. Assuming that this assertion is true (i.e. the solution is best implemented using fact and dimension tables), I would like to see some help in the design of these tables. 'Natural' (or obvious) dimensions are: Date dimension Geographical location Which have hierarchical attributes. However, I am struggling with how to model the following fields: sex (true/false) demographic classification (A, B, C etc) The reason I am struggling with these fields is that: They have no obvious hierarchical attributes which will aid aggregation (AFAIA) - which suggest they should be in a fact table They are mostly static or very rarely change - which suggests they should be in a dimension table. Maybe the heuristic I am using above is too crude? I will give some examples on the type of analysis I would like to carryout on the data warehouse - hopefully that will clarify things further. I would like to aggregate and analyze the data by sex and demographic classification - e.g. answer questions like: How does male and female weights compare across different demographic classifications? Which demographic classification (male AND female), show the most increase in weight this quarter. etc. Can anyone clarify whether sex and demographic classification are part of the fact table, or whether they are (as I suspect) dimension tables.? Also assuming they are dimension tables, could someone elaborate on the table structures (i.e. the fields)? The 'obvious' schema: CREATE TABLE sex_type (is_male int); CREATE TABLE demographic_category (id int, name varchar(4)); may not be the correct one.

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  • ColdFusion 8: Database Connection Reset Error

    - by Gavin
    I have been getting these intermittent ColdFusion Database connection reset errors and was wondering if anyone had experience with this and had a particular solution that worked? Here is the error: Error Executing Database Query.[Macromedia][SQLServer JDBC Driver]A problem occurred when attempting to contact the server (Server returned: Connection reset). Please ensure that the server parameters passed to the driver are correct and that the server is running. Also ensure that the maximum number of connections have not been exceeded for this server. This doesn't happen with any particular query, the code breaks in different queries every time, returning a SQLState error 08s01. These query's logic are fine, no logic errors etc. I checked the network logs and there were no database server connection refusals at the time of the error. Once the first error occurs, it keeps happening for no more than a minute or so at random times of the day, every few days. I've googled this thing and so far anyone that has had this issue was only on CF6 or 7, which the fixes coldFusion put out are only for CF6 or 7. Server configuration wise: The ColdFusion server is version 8 The database server is SQL Server 2005 Standard The database connections allowed setting is set to unlimited on both SQL Server and ColdFusion Any help would be greatly appreciated, Thanks!

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  • Secure Password Storage and Transfer

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

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  • rails server fails to start with mysql2 using rvm & ruby 1.9.2-p0 on OSX 10.6.5

    - by Scott
    I'm getting the following error when I start rails server: $ rails server /Users/ssmith/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2.rb:7:in `require': dlopen(/Users/ssmith/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle, 9): Library not loaded: libmysqlclient.16.dylib (LoadError) Referenced from: /Users/ssmith/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/mysql2- 0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle Reason: image not found - /Users/ssmith/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/mysql2- 0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle I've installed mysql2 with the following command after the rvm use ruby-1.9.2-p0 command: $ gem install mysql2 -- --with-mysql-dir=/usr/local/mysql --with-mysql-config=/usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config Building native extensions. This could take a while... Successfully installed mysql2-0.2.6 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for mysql2-0.2.6... Enclosing class/module 'mMysql2' for class Client not known Installing RDoc documentation for mysql2-0.2.6... Enclosing class/module 'mMysql2' for class Client not known I have mysql2 in my Gemfile as well as in the database.yml file and bundle install completes fine $ bundle show mysql2 /Users/ssmith/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/mysql2-0.2.6 I understand the rails server error is due to it not knowing the mysql_config location on OSX, however on gem install I specified the correct location. Yet RVM's gem is not respecting that mysql_config location it seems. Anyone have a solution to this? Thanks in advance. Scott

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  • Figuring out the performance limitation of an ADC on a PIC microcontroller

    - by AKE
    I'm spec-ing the suitability of a microcontroller like PIC for an analog-to-digital application. This would be preferable to using external A/D chips. To do that, I've had to run through some computations, pulling the relevant parameters from the datasheets. I'm not sure I've got it right -- would appreciate a check! Here's the simplest example: PIC10F220 is the simplest possible PIC with an ADC. Runs at clock speed of 8MHz. Has an instruction cycle of 0.5us (4 clock steps per instruction) So: Taking Tacq = 6.06 us (acquisition time for ADC, assume chip temp. = 50*C) [datasheet p34] Taking Fosc = 8MHz (? clock speed) Taking divisor = 4 (4 clock steps per CPU instruction) This gives TAD = 0.5us (TAD = 1/(Fosc/divisor) ) Conversion time is 13*TAD [datasheet p31] This gives conversion time 6.5us ADC duration is then 12.56 us [? Tacq + 13*TAD] Assuming at least 2 instructions for load/store: This is another 1 us [0.5 us per instruction] Which would give max sampling rate of 73.7 ksps (1/13.56) Supposing 8 more instructions for real-time processing: This is another 4 us Thus, total ADC/handling time = 17.56us (12.56us + 1us + 4us) So expected upper sampling rate is 56.9 ksps. Nyquist frequency for this sampling rate is therefore 28 kHz. If this is right, it suggests the (theoretical) performance suitability of this chip's A/D is for signals that are bandlimited to 28 kHz. Is this a correct interpretation of the information given in the data sheet? Any pointers would be much appreciated! AKE

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  • iPhone Landscape FAQ and Solutions

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    There has been a lot of confusion and a set of corresponding set of questions here on SO how iPhone applications with proper handling for Landscape/Portrait mode autorotation can be implemented. It is especially difficult to implement such an application when starting in landscape mode is desired. The most common observed effect are scrambled layouts and areas of the screen where touches are no longer recognized. A simple search for questions tagged iphone and landscape reveals these issues, which occur under certain scenarios: Landscape only iPhone app with multiple nibs: App started in Landscape mode, view from first nib is rendered fine, everything view loaded from a different nib is not displayed correctly. Iphone Landscape mode switching to Portraite mode on loading new controller: Self explanatory iPhone: In landscape-only, after first addSubview, UITableViewController doesn’t rotate properly: Same issue as above. iPhone Landscape-Only Utility-Template Application: Layout errors, controller does not seem to recognize the view should be rotated but displays a clipped portrait view in landscape mode, causing half of the screen to stay blank. presentModalViewController in landscape after portrait viewController: Modal views are not correctly rendered either. A set of different solutions have been presented, some of them including completely custom animation via CoreGraphics, while others build on the observation that the first view controller loaded from the main nib is always displayed correct. I have spent a significant amount of time investigating this issue and finally found a solution that is not only a partial solution but should work under all these circumstances. It is my intend with this CW post to provide sort of a FAQ for others having issues with UIViewControllers in Landscape mode. Please provide feedback and help improve the quality of this Post by incorporating any related observations. Feel free to edit and post other/better answers if you know of any.

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • Replacing specific HTML tags using Regex

    - by matthewpe
    Alright, an easy one for you guys. We are using ActiveReport's RichTextBox to display some random bits of HTML code. The HTML tags supported by ActiveReport can be found here : http://www.datadynamics.com/Help/ARNET3/ar3conSupportedHtmlTagsInRichText.html An example of what I want to do is replace any match of <div style="text-align:*</div> by <p style=\"text-align:*</p> in order to use a supported tag for text-alignment. I have found the following regex expression to find the correct match in my html input: <div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div> However, I can't find a way to keep the previous text contained in the tags after my replacement. Any clue? Is it me or Regex are generally a PITA? :) private static readonly IDictionary<string, string> _replaceMap = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"<div style=\"text-align:(.*?)</div>", "<p style=\"text-align:(.*?)</p>"} }; public static string FormatHtml(string html) { foreach(var pair in _replaceMap) { html = Regex.Replace(html, pair.Key, pair.Value); } return html; } Thanks!

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  • Replace image in word doc using OpenXML

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    Following on from my last question here OpenXML looks like it probably does exactly what I want, but the documentation is terrible. An hour of googling hasn't got me any closer to figuring out what I need to do. I have a word document. I want to add an image to that word document (using word) in such a way that I can then open the document in OpenXML and replace that image. Should be simple enough, yes? I'm assuming I should be able to give my image 'placeholder' an id of some sort and then use GetPartById to locate the image and replace it. Would this be the correct method? What is this Id? How do you add it using Word? Every example I can find which does anything remotely similar starts by building the whole word document from scratch in ML, which really isn't a lot of use. EDIT: it occured to me that it would be easier to just replace the image in the media folder with the new image, but again can't find any indication of how to do this.

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  • Inflated ImageView to put in GalleryView isn't the right size

    - by Richard
    I am trying to inflate an ImageView that scales a Drawable that I can display in a GalleryView. My code to inflate the view seems to work fine, except that the attributes of the ImageView are not applied. Specifically, the inflated ImageView does not have the width/height that I set for it via the android:layout params in XML. Can someone show me what I'm doing wrong? I want to set the width/height of the image in dp, so that it is the correct size across multiple screen dpis and support Android 1.5+. As a result I cannot use something like: i.setLayoutParams(new Gallery.LayoutParams(150, 116) My layout definition is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ImageView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="150dp" android:layout_height="116dp" android:background="@drawable/gallery_item_background" android:scaleType="fitXY" /> </ImageView> And the snippet I am using to inflate the ImageView is: public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); ImageView i = (ImageView) inflater.inflate(R.layout.gallery_item, null); i.setImageResource(mImageIds.get(position)); i.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.FIT_XY); return i; }

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  • Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

    - by Chris
    Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

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  • rails + compass: advantages vs using haml + blueprint directly

    - by egarcia
    I've got some experience using haml (+sass) on rails projects. I recently started using them with blueprintcss - the only thing I did was transform blueprint.css into a sass file, and started coding from there. I even have a rails generator that includes all this by default. It seems that Compass does what I do, and other things. I'm trying to understand what those other things are - but the documentation/tutorials weren't very clear. These are my conclusions: Compass comes with built-in sass mixins that implement common CSS idioms, such as links with icons or horizontal lists. My solution doesn't provide anything like that. (1 point for Compass). Compass has several command-line options: you can create a rails project, but you can also "install" it on an existing rails project. A rails generator could be personalized to do the same thing, I guess. (Tie). Compass has two modes of working with blueprint: "basic" and "semantic" usage. I'm not clear about the differences between those. With my rails generator I only have one mode, but it seems enough. (Tie) Apparently, Compass is prepared to use other frameworks, besides blueprint (e.g. YUI). I could not find much documentation about this, and I'm not interested on it anyway - blueprint is ok for me (Tie). Compass' learning curve seems a bit stiff and the documentation seems sparse. Learning could be a bit difficult. On the other hand, I know the ins and outs of my own system and can use it right away. (1 point for my system). With this analysis, I'm hesitant to give Compass a try. Is my analysis correct? Are Am I missing any key points, or have I evaluated any of these points wrongly?

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  • Git with SSH on Windows

    - by pankar
    Hello all, I've went through the excellent guide provided by Tim Davis (http://www.timdavis.com.au/git/setting-up-a-msysgit-server-with-copssh-on-windows/) which is about configuring Git to work with SSH under Windows in order to produce a Git Server in order to have a main place for my DVCS. I am in the process of creating a clone for my project. I’ve went through all the steps till this point, but I keep getting this from TortoiseGit: git.exe clone -v “ssh://[email protected]:22/SSH/Home/administrator/myapp.git” “E:\GitTest\myapp” bash: [email protected]: command not found Initialized empty Git repository in E:/GitTest/myapp/.git/ fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly Success and nothing gets cloned. BTW: The TortoisePLink comes up just before this message appears and asks me: “login as:” ( I thought that this info is given in the command, i.e: Administrator@blahblah. My home variable is set to the correct place: From a Git Bash shell: echo $HOME /c/SSH/home/Administrator I’ve also tried using Putty’s plink instead of TortoisePLink (in both Git’s and TortoiseGit’s installation). This time the error was narrowed down to: git.exe clone -v “ssh://[email protected]:22/c:/SSH/Home/administrator/myapp.git” “E:\GitTest\myapp” Initialized empty Git repository in E:/GitTest/myapp/.git/ fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly Any help is more than welcome! Thanks Panagiotis

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  • How to preprocess text to do OCR error correction

    - by eaglefarm
    Here is what I'm trying to accomplish: I need to get a several large text files from a computer that is not networked and has no other output except a printer. I tried printing the text, then scanning the printout with OCR to recover the text on another computer but the OCR gets lots of errors (1 vs l, o vs 0, O vs D, etc). To solve this I am thinking of writing a program to process (annotate?) the text file, before printing it, so that the errors can be corrected from the text output of the OCR program. For example, for 1 (number one) vs l (letter L), I could change the text like this: sample inserting \nnn after characters that are frequently wrong in the OCR results: sampl\108e Then I can write another program to examine the file, looking for \nnn and check the character before the \nnn (where nnn is the ascii code in decimal) and fix it if necessary. Of course the program will have to recognize that the \nnn may have errors too but at least it knows that the nnn are digits and can easily correct them. I think I would add a CRC on each line so that any line that isn't corrected perfectly can be flagged as having a problem. Has anyone done anything like this? If there is an existing way of doing this I'd rather not reinvent the wheel. Or any suggestions for annotation format that would help solve this problem would be helpful too.

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  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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  • LinkedIn API returning extra/incorrect login prompt

    - by Paul Osetinsky
    I have a Rails application running the omniauth-linkedin gem and linkedin gem (essentialy an API wrapper). When a user logs in, they receive a primary login prompt that displays to them the correct scopes (FULL PROFILE and EMAIL ADDRESS), as below: However, after they log in, they get another login prompt that should not come up, and that ignores the initial scope request. It tells them that LinkedIN is only requesting their PROFILE OVERVIEW, which is incorrect: The problem must lie in my auth_controller, and I think it has do to with the url that is created in one of the authentication stages (definitely right after the user enters their LinkedIn authentication credentials). Here is my auth_controller: require 'linkedin' class AuthController < ApplicationController def auth client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) request_token = client.request_token(:oauth_callback => "http://#{request.host_with_port}/callback") session[:rtoken] = request_token.token session[:rsecret] = request_token.secret redirect_to client.request_token.authorize_url end def callback client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) if session[:atoken].nil? pin = params[:oauth_verifier] atoken, asecret = client.authorize_from_request(session[:rtoken], session[:rsecret], pin) session[:atoken] = atoken session[:asecret] = asecret @user = current_user @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' else client.authorize_from_access(session[:atoken], session[:asecret]) @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' end @user = current_user @user.save redirect_to current_user end end Just in case, here is my omniauth.rb file that states the scopes I am requesting for my application: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider :linkedin, ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET'], :scope => 'r_fullprofile r_emailaddress', :fields => ['id', 'email-address', 'first-name', 'last-name', 'headline', 'industry', 'picture-url', 'public-profile-url', 'location', 'positions', 'educations'] end Can't figure out how to get rid of that second unnecessary and misleading prompt from LinkedIn and would appreciate any guidance! Thank you.

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  • ASP.net AppendHeader not working in ASP MVC

    - by Chao
    I'm having problems getting AppendHeader to work properly if I am also using an authorize filter. I'm using an actionfilter for my AJAX actions that applies Expires, Last-Modified, Cache-Control and Pragma (though while testing I have tried including it in the action method itself with no change in results). If I don't have an authorize filter the headers work fine. Once I add the filter the headers I tried to add get stripped. The headers I want to add Response.AppendHeader("Expires", "Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT"); Response.AppendHeader("Last-Modified", String.Format("{0:r}", DateTime.Now)); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "post-check=0, pre-check=0"); Response.AppendHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); An example of the headers from a correct page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:22:24 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache Expires Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified Mon, 14 Jun 2010 18:22:24 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 352 Connection Close And from an incorrect page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:27:34 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache, no-cache Cache-Control private, s-maxage=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 4937 Connection Close

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  • Paypal sandbox account in dotnet: "IPN Response invalid"

    - by Sam
    I am integrating Paypal with my website. I use a sandbox account, one buyer account and one seller account. I downloaded the code below from Paypal: string strSandbox = "https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr"; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strSandbox); //Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; byte[] param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength); string strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param); strRequest += "&cmd=_notify-validate"; req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length; //for proxy //WebProxy proxy = new WebProxy(new Uri("http://url:port#")); //req.Proxy = proxy; //Send the request to PayPal and get the response StreamWriter streamOut = new StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII); streamOut.Write(strRequest); streamOut.Close(); StreamReader streamIn = new StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()); string strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd(); streamIn.Close(); if (strResponse == "VERIFIED") { //check the payment_status is Completed //check that txn_id has not been previously processed //check that receiver_email is your Primary PayPal email //check that payment_amount/payment_currency are correct //process payment } else if (strResponse == "INVALID") { //log for manual investigation } else { //log response/ipn data for manual investigation } When I add this snippet in my pageload event of my success page, I show the IPN response as INVALID, but amount is paid successfully. Why is this? Paypal's docs are not clear.

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  • How to figure out what error my Java Eclipse project has?

    - by Greg Mattes
    I've created a Java project from existing source with an Ant build script in Eclipse. I cannot run my project because Eclipse tells me that there is at least one error in it. Now, I know that the project runs fine on the command line, so I suspect an Eclipse configuration error. As far as I can tell, the only feedback that I have from Eclipse is a little red X on my project in the Package Explorer window and dialog window when I try to run the project says there are errors in the project This is all wonderful, but what is the error? Is there a "show me the next error" button somewhere? In the past, on other Eclipse projects, I've notice other little red X's on folders containing source files with errors, the little red X's appear on the source files as well. I scanned (manually) through all of the source files and I haven't found any other red X's (again, where is the "next error" button?). If I select the "Proceed" button I am greeted with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError for my main class, which makes me suspect a classpath issue. I've checked the classpath, and I'm fairly certain that it's correct. Is there a way to see the exact jvm command line that Eclipse is invoking? I realize that it might be invoking the JVM programmatically, and not on a "real" command line. In any case, is there a way, other than the run configuration dialog, to see what is actually happening when I hit the "Proceed" button?

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  • reconstructing a tree from its preorder and postorder lists.

    - by NomeN
    Consider the situation where you have two lists of nodes of which all you know is that one is a representation of a preorder traversal of some tree and the other a representation of a postorder traversal of the same tree. I believe it is possible to reconstruct the tree exactly from these two lists, and I think I have an algorithm to do it, but have not proven it. As this will be a part of a masters project I need to be absolutely certain that it is possible and correct (Mathematically proven). However it will not be the focus of the project, so I was wondering if there is a source out there (i.e. paper or book) I could quote for the proof. (Maybe in TAOCP? anybody know the section possibly?) In short, I need a proven algorithm in a quotable resource that reconstructs a tree from its pre and post order traversals. Note: The tree in question will probably not be binary, or balanced, or anything that would make it too easy. Note2: Using only the preorder or the postorder list would be even better, but I do not think it is possible. Note3: A node can have any amount of children. Note4: I only care about the order of siblings. Left or right does not matter when there is only one child.

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  • Core Data NSPredicate to filter results

    - by Bryan
    I have a NSManagedObject that contains a bID and a pID. Within the set of NSManagedObjects, I only want a subset returned and I'm struggling to find the correct NSPredicate or way to get what I need out of Core Data. Here's my full list: bid pid 41 0 42 41 43 0 44 0 47 41 48 0 49 0 50 43 There is a parent-child relationship above. Rules: If a record's PID = 0, it means that that record IS a parent record. If a record's PID != 0, then that record's PID refers to it's parent record's BID. Example: 1) BID = 41 is a parent record. Why? Because records BID=42 and record BID=47 have PID's of 41, meaning those are children of its PID record. 2) BID = 42 has a parent record with a BID = 41. 3) BID = 43 is a parent record. 4) BID = 44 is a parent record. 5) BID = 47 has a parent record with a BID = 41 because its PID = 41. See #1 above. 6) BID = 48 is a parent record. 7) BID = 49 is a parent record. 8) BID = 50 is a child record, and its parent record has a BID = 43. See the pattern? Now, basically from that, I want only the following rows fetched: bid pid 44 0 47 41 48 0 49 0 50 43 BID = 41, BID = 48, BID = 49 should all be returned because there are no records with a PID equal to their BID. BID = 47 should be returned because it is the most recent child of PID = 41. BID = 50 should be returned because it is the most recent child of PID = 43. Hope this helps explain it more.

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  • Can't operator == be applied to generic types in C#?

    - by Hosam Aly
    According to the documentation of the == operator in MSDN, For predefined value types, the equality operator (==) returns true if the values of its operands are equal, false otherwise. For reference types other than string, == returns true if its two operands refer to the same object. For the string type, == compares the values of the strings. User-defined value types can overload the == operator (see operator). So can user-defined reference types, although by default == behaves as described above for both predefined and user-defined reference types. So why does this code snippet fail to compile? void Compare<T>(T x, T y) { return x == y; } I get the error Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T'. I wonder why, since as far as I understand the == operator is predefined for all types? Edit: Thanks everybody. I didn't notice at first that the statement was about reference types only. I also thought that bit-by-bit comparison is provided for all value types, which I now know is not correct. But, in case I'm using a reference type, would the the == operator use the predefined reference comparison, or would it use the overloaded version of the operator if a type defined one? Edit 2: Through trial and error, we learned that the == operator will use the predefined reference comparison when using an unrestricted generic type. Actually, the compiler will use the best method it can find for the restricted type argument, but will look no further. For example, the code below will always print true, even when Test.test<B>(new B(), new B()) is called: class A { public static bool operator==(A x, A y) { return true; } } class B : A { public static bool operator==(B x, B y) { return false; } } class Test { void test<T>(T a, T b) where T : A { Console.WriteLine(a == b); } }

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