Search Results

Search found 15231 results on 610 pages for 'presentation model'.

Page 538/610 | < Previous Page | 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545  | Next Page >

• Why is this CHOICE element not getting assigned in my SharePoint Field definition schema?

  - by ccornet

  I defined a new field of the type "Choice" for my web application. It will serve basically as a pseudo-lookup as its contents are defined by the value of a Text field in a list. It is initialized with a dummy choice to begin with (I'm under the impression a choice field needs at least one choice when defined), which is replaced with a real choice later on. But for some reason, this dummy choice is never actually added to the choices! Below is the XML Schema for the field in question. <Field ID="{ALICEH-ASFA-KEGU-IDLISTED}" Name="ddlSystems" Group="Lookup Columns" DisplayName="ddlSystems" Type="Choice" Sealed="FALSE" ReadOnly="FALSE" Hidden="FALSE" FillInChoice="TRUE" DisplaceOnUpgrade="TRUE"> <CHOICES> <CHOICE>BLANULL</CHOICE> </CHOICES> <Default>BLANULL</Default> </Field> Initially, I used a default choice of (a single space), but I changed it to BLANULL so that I can parse an actual word instead of a veritably empty string. Now, even after having uninstalled and reinstalled the feature with this field, I have a choice field that has (still a single space) as the only choice. Even more perplexing, BLANULL is actually listed for the default value in both the UI and the object model! What is causing this problem, and how can I circumvent it so that I don't have to manually set this dummy value each time?

  Read the article

• Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

  Read the article

• ColdFusion 9 ORM - Securing an object at a low level...

  Hiya: I wonder if anybody has an idea on this... I'm looking at securing a low level object in my model (a "member" object) so by default only certain information can be accessed from it. Here's a possible approach (damn sexy if it would work!): 1) Add a property called "locked" - defaulting to "true" to the object itself. It appears that the only option to do this, and not tie it to a db table column, is to use the formula attribute that takes a query. So to default locked to TRUE I've got: <cfproperty name="locked" formula="select 1" /> 2) Then, I overwrite the existing set-ers and get-ers to use this: e.g. <cffunction name="getFullname" returnType="string"> <cfscript> if (this.getLocked()) { return this.getScreenName(); } else { return this.getFullname(); } </cfscript> </cffunction> 3) When i use it like this: <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> shows the ScreenName (great!) but... When I do this: <cfset oMember.setLocked(false)> <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> Just hangs!!! It appears that attempting to set a property that's been defined using "formula" is a no-no. Any ideas? Any other way we can have properties attached to an ORM object that are gettable and settable without them being present in the db? Ideas appreciated!

  Read the article

• How do I set up routes to enable me to call different actions on the same controller?

  - by Remnant

  I am building my first asp.net mvc application for learning and development purposes and have come across an issue that I'd like some guidance with. Suppose I have a controller with two actions as follows: public class MyController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { dbData = GetData("DefaultParameter") return View(dbData); } public ActionResult UpdateView(string dbParameter) { dbData = GetData("dbParameter"); return View(dbData); } } On my webpage I have the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateView", "MyController")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("Selection", Model.List, new { onchange="this.form.submit();" })%></div> <% } %> I have the following route in Global.asax: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "Index"}); } The issue I am having is as follows: When I use the dropdownlist I get an error saying that /MyController/UpdateView could not be found. It therefore seems that I need to add an additional route as follows: routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}", new { controller = "MyController", action = "UpdateView"}); However, this causes two new issues for me: Due to the hierachy within the routing list, the similarity of the routes means that the one that appears first in the list is always executed. I don't see why I need to create another route for UpdateView. All I want to do is to retrieve new data from the database and update the view. I don't see what this has to do with the URL schema. It feels like I have gone down the wrong track here and I have missed something quite fundamental?

  Read the article

• [MySQL/PHP] Avoid using RAND()

  - by Andrew Ellis

  So... I have never had a need to do a random SELECT on a MySQL DB until this project I'm working on. After researching it seems the general populous says that using RAND() is a bad idea. I found an article that explains how to do another type of random select. Basically, if I want to select 5 random elements, I should do the following (I'm using the Kohana framework here)? If not, what is a better solution? Thanks, Andrew <?php final class Offers extends Model { /** * Loads a random set of offers. * * @param integer $limit * @return array */ public function random_offers($limit = 5) { // Find the highest offer_id $sql = ' SELECT MAX(offer_id) AS max_offer_id FROM offers '; $max_offer_id = DB::query(Database::SELECT, $sql) ->execute($this->_db) ->get('max_offer_id'); // Check to make sure we're not trying to load more offers // than there really is... if ($max_offer_id < $limit) { $limit = $max_offer_id; } $used = array(); $ids = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $limit; ) { $rand = mt_rand(1, $max_offer_id); if (!isset($used[$rand])) { // Flag the ID as used $used[$rand] = TRUE; // Set the ID if ($i > 0) $ids .= ','; $ids .= $rand; ++$i; } } $sql = ' SELECT offer_id, offer_name FROM offers WHERE offer_id IN(:ids) '; $offers = DB::query(Database::SELECT, $sql) ->param(':ids', $ids) ->as_object(); ->execute($this->_db); return $offers; } }

  Read the article

• Auto complete from database using CodeIgniter (Active Record)

  - by Ralph David Abernathy

  I have a form on my website in which one is able to submit a cat. The form contains inputs such as "Name" and "Gender", but I am just trying to get the auto completion to work with the "Name" field. Here is what my jquery looks like : $(document).ready(function() { $( "#tags" ).autocomplete({ source: '/Anish/auto_cat' }); }); Here is what my model looks like: public function auto_cat($search_term) { $this->db->like('name', $search_term); $response = $this->db->get('anish_cats')->result_array(); // var_dump($response);die; return $response; } } Here is my controller: public function auto_cat(){ $search_term = $this->input->get('term'); $cats = $this->Anish_m->auto_cat($search_term); } And here is my view: <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css" /> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="/resources/demos/style.css" /> </head> <h1>Anish's Page</h1> <form action="/Anish/create" method="POST"> <div class="ui-widget"> <label for="tags">Name</label><input id="tags" type="text" name="name"> </div> <div> <label>Age</label><input type="text" name="age"> </div> <div> <label>Gender</label><input type="text" name="gender"> </div> <div> <label>Species</label><input type="text" name="species"> </div> <div> <label>Eye Color</label><input type="text" name="eye_color"> </div> <div> <label>Color</label><input type="text" name="color"> </div> <div> <label>Description</label><input type="text" name="description"> </div> <div> <label>marital status</label><input type="text" name="marital_status"> </div> <br> <button type="submit" class="btn btn-block btn-primary span1">Add cat</button> </form> <br/><br/><br/><br/> <table class="table table-striped table-bordered table-hover"> <thead> <tr> <th>Name</th> <th>Gender</th> <th>Age</th> <th>Species</th> <th>Eye Color</th> <th>Color</th> <th>Description</th> <th>Marital Status</th> <th>Edit</th> <th>Delete</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <?php foreach ($cats as $cat):?> <tr> <td> <?php echo ($cat['name']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['gender']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['age']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['species']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['eye_color']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['color']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['description']);?><br/> </td> <td> <?php echo ($cat['marital_status']);?><br/> </td> <td> <form action="/Anish/edit" method="post"> <input type="hidden" value="<?php echo ($cat['id']);?>" name="Anish_id_edit"> <button class="btn btn-block btn-info">Edit</button> </form> </td> <td> <form action="/Anish/delete" method="post"> <input type="hidden" value="<?php echo ($cat['id']);?>" name="Anish_id"> <button class="btn btn-block btn-danger">Delete</button> </form> </td> </tr> <?php endforeach;?> </tbody> </table> I am stuck. In my console, I am able to see this output when I type the letter 'a' if I uncomment the var_dump in my model: array(4) { [0]=> array(9) { ["id"]=> string(2) "13" ["name"]=> string(5) "Anish" ["gender"]=> string(4) "Male" ["age"]=> string(2) "20" ["species"]=> string(3) "Cat" ["eye_color"]=> string(5) "Brown" ["color"]=> string(5) "Black" ["description"]=> string(7) "Awesome" ["marital_status"]=> string(1) "0" } [1]=> array(9) { ["id"]=> string(2) "16" ["name"]=> string(5) "Anish" ["gender"]=> string(2) "fe" ["age"]=> string(2) "23" ["species"]=> string(2) "fe" ["eye_color"]=> string(2) "fe" ["color"]=> string(2) "fe" ["description"]=> string(2) "fe" ["marital_status"]=> string(1) "1" } [2]=> array(9) { ["id"]=> string(2) "17" ["name"]=> string(1) "a" ["gender"]=> string(1) "a" ["age"]=> string(1) "4" ["species"]=> string(1) "a" ["eye_color"]=> string(1) "a" ["color"]=> string(1) "a" ["description"]=> string(1) "a" ["marital_status"]=> string(1) "0" } [3]=> array(9) { ["id"]=> string(2) "18" ["name"]=> string(4) "Matt" ["gender"]=> string(6) "Female" ["age"]=> string(2) "80" ["species"]=> string(6) "ferret" ["eye_color"]=> string(4) "blue" ["color"]=> string(4) "pink" ["description"]=> string(5) "Chill" ["marital_status"]=> string(1) "0" } }

  Read the article

• Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

  - by Eric

  I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

  Read the article

• Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

  - by blockcipher

  I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

  - by user643794

  I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

  Read the article

• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by burnt_hand

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

  Read the article

• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

  Read the article

• Adding a button or link to an inline in Django admin

  - by Lexo

  Hello, I have created the following django models: class Entry(SiteObject): parent = models.ForeignKey(Blog, related_name="entries") content = models.TextField(help_text = "The Content of the blog post") class EntryImage(models.Model): entry = models.ForeignKey(Entry, related_name="entryimages") imagewidth = models.PositiveIntegerField(editable=False,) imageheight = models.PositiveIntegerField(editable=False,) image_file = ImageWithThumbnailsField( #from sorl-thumbnail. Basically a wrapper for an ImageField that generates a thumbnail. upload_to="images/blogs", height_field="imageheight", width_field="imagewidth", help_text = "Select an image to upload.", thumbnail={'size': (360,720)}, generate_on_save=True, ) The EntryImage class shows up as an inline in the admin page for Entry. What I'd like to do is place a link or a button beside each of these inlines that does the following: Save the EntryImage Append <Image x> to the content of the Entry, where x is the number of the EntryImage. This will be replaced by the image's thumbnail using a template filter. Save the Entry Return to editing the Entry I have looked into this, but I just can't wrap my head around where I'm supposed to add this button or link. Has anyone else tried something similar? I've got JQuery available, since I'm using WYMEditor for the content field of the Entry class. Would this help? Thanks in advance, Lexo

  Read the article

• Are document-oriented databases any more suitable than relational ones for persisting objects?

  - by Owen Fraser-Green

  In terms of database usage, the last decade was the age of the ORM with hundreds competing to persist our object graphs in plain old-fashioned RMDBS. Now we seem to be witnessing the coming of age of document-oriented databases. These databases are highly optimized for schema-free documents but are also very attractive for their ability to scale out and query a cluster in parallel. Document-oriented databases also hold a couple of advantages over RDBMS's for persisting data models in object-oriented designs. As the tables are schema-free, one can store objects belonging to different classes in an inheritance hierarchy side-by-side. Also, as the domain model changes, so long as the code can cope with getting back objects from an old version of the domain classes, one can avoid having to migrate the whole database at every change. On the other hand, the performance benefits of document-oriented databases mainly appear to come about when storing deeper documents. In object-oriented terms, classes which are composed of other classes, for example, a blog post and its comments. In most of the examples of this I can come up with though, such as the blog one, the gain in read access would appear to be offset by the penalty in having to write the whole blog post "document" every time a new comment is added. It looks to me as though document-oriented databases can bring significant benefits to object-oriented systems if one takes extreme care to organize the objects in deep graphs optimized for the way the data will be read and written but this means knowing the use cases up front. In the real world, we often don't know until we actually have a live implementation we can profile. So is the case of relational vs. document-oriented databases one of swings and roundabouts? I'm interested in people's opinions and advice, in particular if anyone has built any significant applications on a document-oriented database.

  Read the article

• Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

  - by Nix

  I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

  Read the article

• NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

  Read the article

• How to return all records and whether a related record exists?

  - by David Glenn

  Using Entity Framework 4 CTP5 I have a basic model and a basic DbContext that works public class Customer { public int CustomerId { get; set; } public int Name { get; set; } //... public ICollection<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public bool HasAddress { get { return Addresses.Count > 0; } } } public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public string StreetLine1 { get; set; } //.... public Customer Customer { get; set; } } How can I query my DbContext to return all customers and whether they have an address? A customer can have multiple addresses and I don't want to return all the addresses for each customer when I am only interested in whether they have an address or not. I use context.Customers.Include(c => c.Addresses) but that returns all addresses for each customer

  Read the article

• Modelbinding using Interfaces in ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by Thomas

  I have the following View Data: public class ShoppingCartViewData { public IList<IShoppingCartItem> Cart { get; set; } } I populate the viewdata in my controller: viewData.Cart = CurrentSession.CartItems; return View(viewData); And send the data to the view and display it using: <% for (int i = 0; i < Model.Cart.Count; i++ ) { %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.Cart[i].Quantity)%> <%= Html.HiddenFor(m => m.Cart[i].Id) %> <% } %> I want to be able to catch the viewdata on the post. When I try: [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(ShoppingCartViewData viewData) { ... } When I run this I get a: System.MissingMethodException: Cannot create an instance of an interface. Can anyone shed some light on this. What would I have to do to get this to work? Many Thanks

  Read the article

• Rails: Getting rid of "X is invalid" validation errors

  - by DJTripleThreat

  I have a sign-up form that has nested associations/attributes whatever you want to call them. My Hierarchy is this: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic belongs_to :user_role, :polymorphic => true end class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end class Employee < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end I have some validation stuff in these classes as well. My problem is that if I try to create and Customer (or Employee etc) with a blank form I get all of the validation errors I should get plus some Generic ones like "User is invalid" and "Customer is invalid" If I iterate through the errors I get something like: user.login can't be blank User is invalid customer.whatever is blah blah blah...etc customer.some_other_error etc etc Since there is at least one invalid field in the nested User model, an extra "X is invalid" message is added to the list of errors. This gets confusing to my client and so I'm wondering if there is a quick way to do this instead of having to filer through the errors myself.

  Read the article

• ViewModel Views relation/link/syncroniztion

  - by mehran

  Third try to describing problem: Try 1: Sunchronizing view model and view Try2: WPF ViewModel not active presenter Try3: I have some class for view models: public class Node : INotifyPropertyChanged { Guid NodeId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Connection: INotifyPropertyChanged { public Node StartNode { get; set; } public Node EndNode { get; set; } } public class SettingsPackModel { public List<Node> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<Connection> Connections { get; private set; } } I also have some templates to displays these models: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Node}">…</DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Connection}"> <my:ConnectionElment StartNodeElment="???" EndNodeElment="???"> </my:ConnectionElment> <DataTemplate> But the problem is that DataTemplate for Connection need reference ot two element of type UIElement , how can I pass these two, how can I fill ??? in above expression?

  Read the article

• how to place dropdown list box in jquery grid column

  - by kumar

  Hello friends, I have a jquery grid columns defined like this.. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using Trirand.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace JQGridMVCExamples.Models { public class OrdersJqGridModel { public OrdersJqGridModel() { OrdersGrid = new JQGrid { Columns = new List<JQGridColumn>() { new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderID", Width = 50 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderDate", Width = 100, DataFormatString = "{0:d}" }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "CustomerID", Width = 100 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "Freight", Width = 75 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "ShipName" } }, Width = Unit.Pixel(640) }; OrdersGrid.ToolBarSettings.ShowRefreshButton = true; } public JQGrid OrdersGrid { get; set; } } } and in the view I am caling like this <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> I am getting result perfect.. but for column Freight in the Jquery grid I need to place a dropdown list dynamically for all result rows.. can anyone help me out.. THanks

  Read the article

• how to reapply knockout binding

  - by MikeW

  Currently I have a knockout binding that stripes rows in a list which works fine ko.bindingHandlers.stripe = { update: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var value = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()); //creates the dependency var allBindings = allBindingsAccessor(); var even = allBindings.evenClass; var odd = allBindings.oddClass; //update odd rows $(element).children(":nth-child(odd)").addClass(odd).removeClass(even); //update even rows $(element).children(":nth-child(even)").addClass(even).removeClass(odd); ; } } Triggered from <button data-bind="click: addWidget" style="display:none">Add Item</button> The problem I have is when reloading data from the server , I call addWidget() manually in the view model the stripe binding handler is not applied - all rows appear as same color, if I click the html button then the binding happens and stripes appear var ViewModel = function() { self.addWidget(); }); Is it possible to reapply this custom binding manually in js? Thanks Edit: The stripe binding gets applied like so <div data-bind="foreach: widgets, stripe: widgets, evenClass: 'light', oddClass: 'dark'">

  Read the article

• Why does this Rails named scope return empty (uninitialized?) objects?

  - by mipadi

  In a Rails app, I have a model, Machine, that contains the following named scope: named_scope :needs_updates, lambda { { :select => self.column_names.collect{|c| "\"machines\".\"#{c}\""}.join(','), :group => self.column_names.collect{|c| "\"machines\".\"#{c}\""}.join(','), :joins => 'LEFT JOIN "machine_updates" ON "machine_updates"."machine_id" = "machines"."id"', :having => ['"machines"."manual_updates" = ? AND "machines"."in_use" = ? AND (MAX("machine_updates"."date") IS NULL OR MAX("machine_updates"."date") < ?)', true, true, UPDATE_THRESHOLD.days.ago] } } This named scope works fine in development mode. In production mode, however, it returns the 2 models as expected, but the models are empty or uninitialized; that is, actual objects are returned (not nil), but all the fields are nil. For example, when inspecting the return value of the named scope in the console, the following is returned: [#<Machine >, #<Machine >] But, as you can see, all the fields of the objects returned are set to nil. The production and development environments are essentially the same. Both are using a SQLite database. Any ideas what's going wrong?

  Read the article

• Docs for auto-generated methods in Ruby on Rails

  - by macek

  Rails has all sorts of auto-generated methods that I've often times struggled to find documentation for. For example, in routes.rb, if I have: map.resources :projects do |p| p.resources :tasks end This will get a plethora of auto-generate path and url helpers. Where can I find documentation for how to work with these paths? I generally understand how to work with them, but more explicit docs might help me understand some of the magic that happens behind the scenes. # compare project_path(@project) project_task_path(@project, @task) # to project_path(:id => @project.id) project_task_path(:project_id => @project.id, :id => @task.id) Also, when I change an attribute on a model, @post.foo_changed? will be true. Where can I find documentation for this and all other magical methods that are created like this? If the magic is there, I'd love to take advantage of it. And finally: Is there a complete resource for config.___ statements for environment.rb? I was able to find docs for Configuration#gem but what attributes can I set within the stubs like config.active_record.___, config.action_mailer.___, config.action_controller.___, etc. Again, I'm looking for a complete resource here, not just a settings for the examples I provided. Even if you can only answer one of these questions, please chime in. These things seem to have been hiding from me and it's my goal to get them some more exposure, so I'll be upvoting all links to docs that point me to what I'm looking for. Thanks! ps, If they're not called auto-generated methods, I apologize. Someone can teach me a lesson here, too :) Edit I'm not looking for tutorials here, folks. I have a fair amount of experience with rails; I'm just looking for complete docs. E.g., I understand how routing works, I just want docs where I can read about all of the usage options.

  Read the article

• PHP Object References in Frameworks

  - by bigstylee

  Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

  Read the article

• Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

  - by Jonners

  Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545  | Next Page >